Medical Terms Flashcards
The least-likely cause of altered LOR is:
Heart Attack
What is LOR?
Level of Responsiveness
A bee sting can lead to:
Anaphylactic Shock
What comes after the second part of labor?
Delivery of the baby
Your patient’s ECG shows respiratory sinus dysrhythmia. Her heart rate does what during inspiration?
Increases
The anatomical structure where the trachea splits into two bronchi is called the:
Carina
You suspect that your patient, who is immobilized on a long spine board, may be going into shock. How should you position the long-board?
Raise the ‘‘feet’’ end of the spine board 6-8 inches
Is a nasal airway contraindicated when ventilating an unresponsive patient using a BVM?
No
Most EMT-B protocols allow EMTs to administer oxygen.
True
This is a moderately difficult medical question
The term ‘‘diaphoretic’’ means:
Sweating Profuselt
What is the antidote for organophosphate poisoning?
atropine
Should you bend at the waist when lifting or carrying a patient?
No
Which of the following most accurately describes septic shock?
Leaking blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection
The ‘‘O’’ in OPQRST stands for
Onset
Is NS IV fluid isotonic?
Yes (An isotonic solution has the same salt concentration as the cells of the body and the blood. Normal saline (NS) is isotonic.)
An EMT’s responsibility to respond to calls in an expeditious (and safe) manner, perform a thorough assessment of the patient, provide the appropriate treatment, and transport the patient (when warranted) to the appropriate facility is legally defined as:
Duty to Act
Dehydration can lead to:
Hypovolemic Shock (also known as hemorrhagic shock, is a life-threatening condition that results when you lose more than 20 percent (one-fifth) of your body’s blood or fluid supply. This severe fluid loss makes it impossible for the heart to pump a sufficient amount of blood to your body.)
EMTs should reduce a dislocated finger by applying gentle longitudinal traction.
False ( Most EMT and paramedic protocols do not permit reduction of dislocated joints.)
Which of these diseases is most commonly transmitted via the oral/fecal route?
Hepatitis A
Looking at the ECG strip, you see that there are 6 large boxes between QRS complexes. What is the heart rate?
50 (To calculate the heart rate on an ECG strip, divide 300 by the number of large boxes between QRS complexes. In this case, 300 divided by 6 is 50.)
What does hypoxia mean?
Low oxygen in body tissue
What does hypoxemia mean?
low oxygen in blood
Is the mandible superior to the manubrium?
No (The mandible is the lower jaw and the manubrium is the upper portion of the sternum. So the jaw is “superior to” (above) the sternum.)
Hypoperfusion refers to:
Inadequate Circulation
Which of the following is not a typical sign of non-neurogenic compensated shock?
Bradycardia
What is the term for a pulse rate that is slower than 50 beats per minute?
Bradycardia
How many cervical vertebrae are in the spine?
7
The Ryan White CARE Act deals with
Life threatening diseases (The Ryan White CARE Act mandates that EMS personnel can find out whether they were exposed to life threatening diseases while providing care.)
Where would you find the peritoneum?
Abdomen (The peritoneum is the membrane that forms the lining of the abdominal cavity. Don’t confuse this with the perineum which is the area between the anus and the genitals.)
At what rate should one rescuer perform CPR compressions on a child?
100 to 120 per minute (According to the American Heart Association 2015 guidelines, chest compressions should be at a rate of “100 to 120/minute.” This is true for both children and adults.)
Approximately how many bones are there in the human body?
206
Insulin converts sugar to glucose.
False (Insulin helps cells receive glucose, but it does not convert the sugar to glucose.)
What is ‘‘eclampsia’’?
Seizures relating to pregnancy (Preeclampsia is a complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Eclampsia is the onset of seizures (convulsions) in a woman with preeclampsia)
What is your first priority during a patient assessment?
BSI (Body Substance Isolation) should be your first priority.
Most arteries carry:
Oxygen-rich blood
'’Normal’’ systolic blood pressure is:
Less than 120 mm Hg
You have determined that the scene is safe. The next thing you would do (of these choices) is:
Check LOR (Level of Responsiveness)
What is the third stage of labor?
Delivery of placenta
Oxygen is stored in the lungs.
False: This question wasn’t meant to be tricky: oxygen isn’t stored in the lungs (if anything, it is stored in blood).
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant’s face?
9% : An infant’s head is 18 percent so his face is approximately 9 percent.
The left atrium sends blood to the:
Left Ventricle
Which of the following is not a risk factor for pneumothorax?
Being Female (Men are three times more likely than women to have a spontaneous pneumothorax.)
Supine refers to a patient who is:
Lying on his back
In which stage of labor does ‘‘crowning’’ occur?
Second stage
Which of the following is not used to assess mental status:
APGAR (a measure of the physical condition of a newborn infant.)
A sphygmomanometer should be applied to the:
Arm (Used to measure BP)
A contraindication for nitroglycerin is:
Viagra
The anatomical structure that prevents food from entering the trachea is the:
Epiglottis
How many sacral vertebrae are in the spine?
5
The letter ‘‘A’’ in the ABCs stands for what?
Airway
What is epistaxis associated with?
Nose
Parietal means:
The wall of a body cavity
Is activated charcoal appropriate with lithium poisoning?
No. Activated charcoal is contraindicated in numerous situations, including lithium poisoning
Which of the following is a typical sign of compensated shock?
Rapid heart rate
Most patients experiencing chest pain will not be having a heart attack.
True
What is the name of the knee cap
Patella
Demerol is a brand name for:
Meperidine
The term stridor typically refers to which type of airway obstruction?
Upper (In medicine, “stridor” refers to “a harsh vibrating noise when breathing, caused by obstruction of the windpipe or larynx.”)
The ulna is located near the:
Arm (in the forearm)
Your patient has a heart rate of less than 50 beats per minute. The ECG shows a variation between R waves of 3 small boxes. Is this rhythm:
Regular ( A variation of three small boxes (or less) in rate is generally considered a regular rhythm (although this patient appears to be experiencing bradycardia, the rhythm appears normal).)
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is called the:
Pulse Pressure
hat is the average core body temperature in Fahrenheit?
98.6
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer atropine.
False
What is the correct dosage of aspirin for an adult who is experiencing chest pain?
162 - 325 mg
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult’s face?
4.5 percent (An adult’s head is 9 percent so the face is approximately 4.5 percent.)
Which of the following is the more common diabetic emergency?
Hypoglycemia
The PR Interval on an ECG starts at the:
Start of the P wave
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is the front of an adult’s leg?
9 percent
Approximately how often should you give breaths to a child when ventilating?
Once every 3 to 5 seconds
You should normally see the jugular neck veins in a standing patient.
False
Which membrane surrounds the abdominal cavity?
Peritoneum
What happens when the diaphragm contracts?
Air moves into the lungs (When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the lungs down which causes them to fill with air.)
Based on the color of triage tags, which of these patients would not receive care?
Black
In which case might you want to remove a penetrating object?
The object is in the airway
The term plantarflex means to:
Point the toes downward
The term dromotropy refers to:
Conductivity of a Nerve Fiber
The scapula is located nearest the:
Back (The scapula is the medical term for the shoulder blade.)
The ‘‘T’’ in ‘‘OPQRST’’ stands for
Time
Organisms that cause diseases are called:
Pathogens
In which of the following situations might you consult with medical control before inserting a nasopharyngeal airway?
Patient has severe trauma to head and face (Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway into a patient with severe facial trauma might cause further harm.)
What should you give for a morphine overdose?
Narcan
One of the best ways to prevent disease transmission is:
Frequent hand washing
What is the generic name for Narcan?
Naloxone
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant’s entire leg?
14 percent
When triaging multiple patients, green means:
Hold (third priority)
The colored part of the eye that controls light levels inside the eye is called the:
Iris
Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of grief?
Bitterness
This heart valve is located where the blood leaves the right ventricle:
Pulmonary valve
How many areas should you palpate when assessing the abdomen?
4 (for 4 quadrants)
Which of these are caused by a virus?
Hepatitis B
You have a patient with hypoxia, decreased breath sounds on one side, and tracheal deviation. You suspect:
Tension Pneumothorax
Why is the jaw-thrust preferable for traumatic patients?
It minimizes spinal movement
What medicine prevents Wernicke’s encephalopathy?
Thiamine (Thiamine deficiency can result in Wernicke’s Encephalopathy (WE). In the West, thiamine deficiency is typically associated with chronic alcoholism.)
Which membrane surrounds each lung?
Pleura
Nitroglycerin is a:
Vasodilator
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer lidocaine.
False
Many EMT-B protocols allow them to administer activated charcoal.
True
The heart contains:
4 chambers
To size an nasopharyngeal airway, measure from the:
nostril to the earlobe
Excessive pressure on the carotid artery can increase the heart rate in older patients.
False (Pressure on the carotid artery can result in the slowing of the heart (typically in older patients)
Red blood cells fight infection.
False (White blood cells are involved in destroying germs.)
When the left ventricle contracts, it sends a pressure wave of blood through the veins which is called the pulse.
False (The pressure wave goes through the arteries, not veins.)
The radial pulse rate is usually slightly slower than the carotid pulse:
False ( Although the radial pulse may be more difficult to feel, both will have the same rate (unless the radial pulse is so weak that some beats cannot be felt)
The acronym ‘‘CPAP’’ stands for:
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure
What is the initial treatment for a responsive patient suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning?
100% O2 via NRM
Select the most common airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient.
Tongue (Although food may be the most common airway obstruction in conscious patients, the tongue is the most common in unresponsive patients.)
The ‘‘C’’ in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for:
Contusions (DCAP-BTLS is a memory aid which is used to help assess trauma patients.)
Anatomy refers to:
Body structures (Physiology is body functions)
The epigastric region is:
between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer morphine.
False
'’Lateral’’ means:
Toward the side
Posterior refers to
Back
Distal refers to
Further from trunk
It may be possible to resuscitate somebody who has been in cardiac arrest for more than 30 minutes if they are submerged in cold water.
True
What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) for your adult patient if they open their eyes to speech, localizes pain, and their speech is confused.
12
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain
Skeletal
You should avoid warming the limbs of a patient with moderate hypothermia.
True (Warming the extremities of moderate or severe hypothermic patients may result in shock or arrhythmias.)
The first task you should perform when you encounter an apparently unresponsive patient is:
Check for scene safety (you should not provide medical care until the scene is safe.)
Failing to turn your patient over to somebody with equal or higher medical training is called:
Abandonment
The PR interval on an ECG begins at the:
Start of the P wave (The PR segment begins at the end of the P wave. The PR interval begins at the start of the P wave.)
What are the possible side effects of lidocaine?
Drowsiness, confusion, seizures, bradycardia, heart blocks
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is the front of an infant’s leg?
7 percent
What might occur secondary to prolonged vomiting?
Metabolic Alkalosis (due to loss of gastric acid) or after the ingestion of large amounts of bicarbonates.)
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to assist patients with prescribed nitroglycerin.
True
This heart valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery:
Pulmonic valve
'’Inferior’’ refers to
Below
What is the term for an injury when a body structure is partially torn from the body?
Avulsion
A sound typically associated with fluid in the airway is:
Gurgling
The ‘‘A’’ in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for:
Abrasion
You should treat all unresponsive patients as if they have:
A Spinal Injury
'’Dorsal’’ means:
Back
How many pairs of ribs are connected to the spine?
12
Which of the following would be a closed injury?
Hematoma
What is the definition of auscultation?
Listening to body sounds
Most veins carry:
Oxygen-poor blood
The atria are superior to the ventricles.
True
The hole at the base of the skull is called the:
Foramen Magnum
Which of the following five parameters are most helpful when interpreting cardiac rhythms?
Rate, Regularity, QRS Width, P Waves, PR Interval
The bulb of hair follicles are contained in the:
Dermis
Which of the following is not a cause of JVD?
Dehydration
White blood cells fight infection:
True
The ‘‘S’’ in ‘‘OPQRST’’ stands for
Severity
A Yankauer suction tip is:
Rigid
On the human body, Ventral refers to
Belly
Shocking news can lead to:
Psychogenic Shock
Internal bleeding can lead to:
Hypovolemic Shock
An avulsion occurs when a body structure is partially torn from the body.
True
A myocardial infarction can lead to:
Cardiogenic Shock
The immediate threat caused by an open wound is infection.
False (The immediate threat caused by an open wound is blood loss, not infection.)
If a patient has no signs of a significant injury and there was not a significant MOI, you must still perform a rapid trauma assessment.
False (This question refers to patients with minor traumatic injuries or a medical condition (e.g., a patient who hit their finger with a hammer or a patient with flu-like symptoms). Although it certainly will not hurt to do a rapid trauma assessment in these situations, it isn’t necessary.)
Which technique is better suited for a trauma patient with a significant MOI:
Jaw Thrust
When you treat an unresponsive patient you are assuming:
Implied Consent
What is the purpose of checking capillary refill before and after bandaging?
To check circulation
The term ‘‘mottled’’ means:
Blotchy
Which meningal layer is the hard mother?
Dura Matter
A 26-year-old woman is complaining of sudden, sharp pain in her LLQ. What is the most likely ailment?
Ectopic Pregnancy
How many cc’s would you administer if you were ordered to give a normal saline IV bolus to a 10 kg patient?
200 cc
The right ventricle sends blood to the:
Lungs
Hyperthermia occurs when the body loses more heat than it can create.
False
What do you call a pH that is greater than 7.45?
Alkalosis
Thrombolytic drugs typically must be administered to stroke patients within how many hours?
3 hours
The diaphragm is a part of the:
Respiratory
Inhaled air contains approximately what percent oxygen?
21
If a patient who was ejected from a vehicle tells you his only injury is an abrasion on his wrist, you should still perform a rapid trauma assessment.
True
Is the mandible superior to the maxilla?
No
Hypoperfusion usually results in what color skin?
Cyanotic
The transfer of heat when heat waves, or rays, are dispersed from an object is called:
Radiation
What is the normal core body temperature in Celsius?
37
What is the term for a substance that triggers an allergic reaction?
Antigen
What is ‘‘abruptio placentae’’?
Placenta separating from uterus
Where would you find the perineum?
Groin (The perineum is the region of the body inferior to the pelvic diaphragm and between the legs. It is generally defined as the surface region in both males and females between the pubic symphysis and the coccyx. Don’t confuse this with the peritoneum which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity.)
The following formula is used to calculate cardiac output:
Stroke Volume times Heart Rate
The signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following except:
Collapsed Jugular Vein
What is optimum on-scene time for a critical trauma patient?
10 mins
The beta cells of the pancreas produce:
Insulin Hormone
The left ventricle first sends blood to the:
Aorta (The left ventricle first sends blood to the aorta where it is then distributed throughout the body.)
The dorsalis pedis pulse is located on:
Top of the foot (The dorsalis pedis pulse can be palpated on the lateral side of the large tendon on the top of the foot.)
The ‘‘AVPU’’ scale is used to measure:
Level of Responsiveness
Your unresponsive adult patient is breathing at the rate of 6 breaths per minute. What treatment will you provide?
BVM with 100% O2
Which of the following injuries is not possible?
A fracture of lumbar vertebrae 6 (There are only five lumbar vertebrae.)
A SAMPLE history is required for medical patients, but not for trauma patients.
False
The gallbladder is located in the:
RUQ
What is crepitus?
A grinding sound ( Crepitus refers to the sound that fractured bones make when they rub together.)
