Medical Terms Flashcards
1
Q
The least-likely cause of altered LOR is:
A
Heart Attack
2
Q
What is LOR?
A
Level of Responsiveness
3
Q
A bee sting can lead to:
A
Anaphylactic Shock
4
Q
What comes after the second part of labor?
A
Delivery of the baby
5
Q
Your patient’s ECG shows respiratory sinus dysrhythmia. Her heart rate does what during inspiration?
A
Increases
6
Q
The anatomical structure where the trachea splits into two bronchi is called the:
A
Carina
7
Q
You suspect that your patient, who is immobilized on a long spine board, may be going into shock. How should you position the long-board?
A
Raise the ‘‘feet’’ end of the spine board 6-8 inches
8
Q
Is a nasal airway contraindicated when ventilating an unresponsive patient using a BVM?
A
No
9
Q
Most EMT-B protocols allow EMTs to administer oxygen.
A
True
10
Q
This is a moderately difficult medical question
The term ‘‘diaphoretic’’ means:
A
Sweating Profuselt
11
Q
What is the antidote for organophosphate poisoning?
A
atropine
12
Q
Should you bend at the waist when lifting or carrying a patient?
A
No
13
Q
Which of the following most accurately describes septic shock?
A
Leaking blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection
14
Q
The ‘‘O’’ in OPQRST stands for
A
Onset
15
Q
Is NS IV fluid isotonic?
A
Yes (An isotonic solution has the same salt concentration as the cells of the body and the blood. Normal saline (NS) is isotonic.)
16
Q
An EMT’s responsibility to respond to calls in an expeditious (and safe) manner, perform a thorough assessment of the patient, provide the appropriate treatment, and transport the patient (when warranted) to the appropriate facility is legally defined as:
A
Duty to Act
17
Q
Dehydration can lead to:
A
Hypovolemic Shock (also known as hemorrhagic shock, is a life-threatening condition that results when you lose more than 20 percent (one-fifth) of your body’s blood or fluid supply. This severe fluid loss makes it impossible for the heart to pump a sufficient amount of blood to your body.)
18
Q
EMTs should reduce a dislocated finger by applying gentle longitudinal traction.
A
False ( Most EMT and paramedic protocols do not permit reduction of dislocated joints.)
19
Q
Which of these diseases is most commonly transmitted via the oral/fecal route?
A
Hepatitis A
20
Q
Looking at the ECG strip, you see that there are 6 large boxes between QRS complexes. What is the heart rate?
A
50 (To calculate the heart rate on an ECG strip, divide 300 by the number of large boxes between QRS complexes. In this case, 300 divided by 6 is 50.)
21
Q
What does hypoxia mean?
A
Low oxygen in body tissue
22
Q
What does hypoxemia mean?
A
low oxygen in blood
23
Q
Is the mandible superior to the manubrium?
A
No (The mandible is the lower jaw and the manubrium is the upper portion of the sternum. So the jaw is “superior to” (above) the sternum.)
24
Q
Hypoperfusion refers to:
A
Inadequate Circulation
25
Which of the following is not a typical sign of non-neurogenic compensated shock?
Bradycardia
26
What is the term for a pulse rate that is slower than 50 beats per minute?
Bradycardia
27
How many cervical vertebrae are in the spine?
7
28
The Ryan White CARE Act deals with
Life threatening diseases (The Ryan White CARE Act mandates that EMS personnel can find out whether they were exposed to life threatening diseases while providing care.)
29
Where would you find the peritoneum?
Abdomen (The peritoneum is the membrane that forms the lining of the abdominal cavity. Don't confuse this with the perineum which is the area between the anus and the genitals.)
30
At what rate should one rescuer perform CPR compressions on a child?
100 to 120 per minute (According to the American Heart Association 2015 guidelines, chest compressions should be at a rate of "100 to 120/minute." This is true for both children and adults.)
31
Approximately how many bones are there in the human body?
206
32
Insulin converts sugar to glucose.
False (Insulin helps cells receive glucose, but it does not convert the sugar to glucose.)
33
What is ''eclampsia''?
Seizures relating to pregnancy (Preeclampsia is a complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Eclampsia is the onset of seizures (convulsions) in a woman with preeclampsia)
34
What is your first priority during a patient assessment?
BSI (Body Substance Isolation) should be your first priority.
35
Most arteries carry:
Oxygen-rich blood
36
''Normal'' systolic blood pressure is:
Less than 120 mm Hg
37
You have determined that the scene is safe. The next thing you would do (of these choices) is:
Check LOR (Level of Responsiveness)
38
What is the third stage of labor?
Delivery of placenta
39
Oxygen is stored in the lungs.
False: This question wasn't meant to be tricky: oxygen isn't stored in the lungs (if anything, it is stored in blood).
40
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant's face?
9% : An infant's head is 18 percent so his face is approximately 9 percent.
41
The left atrium sends blood to the:
Left Ventricle
42
Which of the following is not a risk factor for pneumothorax?
Being Female (Men are three times more likely than women to have a spontaneous pneumothorax.)
43
Supine refers to a patient who is:
Lying on his back
44
In which stage of labor does ''crowning'' occur?
Second stage
45
Which of the following is not used to assess mental status:
APGAR (a measure of the physical condition of a newborn infant.)
46
A sphygmomanometer should be applied to the:
Arm (Used to measure BP)
47
A contraindication for nitroglycerin is:
Viagra
48
The anatomical structure that prevents food from entering the trachea is the:
Epiglottis
49
How many sacral vertebrae are in the spine?
5
50
The letter ''A'' in the ABCs stands for what?
Airway
51
What is epistaxis associated with?
Nose
52
Parietal means:
The wall of a body cavity
53
Is activated charcoal appropriate with lithium poisoning?
No. Activated charcoal is contraindicated in numerous situations, including lithium poisoning
54
Which of the following is a typical sign of compensated shock?
Rapid heart rate
55
Most patients experiencing chest pain will not be having a heart attack.
True
56
What is the name of the knee cap
Patella
57
Demerol is a brand name for:
Meperidine
58
The term stridor typically refers to which type of airway obstruction?
Upper (In medicine, "stridor" refers to "a harsh vibrating noise when breathing, caused by obstruction of the windpipe or larynx.")
59
The ulna is located near the:
Arm (in the forearm)
60
Your patient has a heart rate of less than 50 beats per minute. The ECG shows a variation between R waves of 3 small boxes. Is this rhythm:
Regular ( A variation of three small boxes (or less) in rate is generally considered a regular rhythm (although this patient appears to be experiencing bradycardia, the rhythm appears normal).)
61
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is called the:
Pulse Pressure
62
hat is the average core body temperature in Fahrenheit?
98.6
63
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer atropine.
False
64
What is the correct dosage of aspirin for an adult who is experiencing chest pain?
162 - 325 mg
65
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult's face?
4.5 percent (An adult's head is 9 percent so the face is approximately 4.5 percent.)
66
Which of the following is the more common diabetic emergency?
Hypoglycemia
67
The PR Interval on an ECG starts at the:
Start of the P wave
68
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is the front of an adult's leg?
9 percent
69
Approximately how often should you give breaths to a child when ventilating?
Once every 3 to 5 seconds
70
You should normally see the jugular neck veins in a standing patient.
False
71
Which membrane surrounds the abdominal cavity?
Peritoneum
72
What happens when the diaphragm contracts?
Air moves into the lungs (When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the lungs down which causes them to fill with air.)
73
Based on the color of triage tags, which of these patients would not receive care?
Black
74
In which case might you want to remove a penetrating object?
The object is in the airway
75
The term plantarflex means to:
Point the toes downward
76
The term dromotropy refers to:
Conductivity of a Nerve Fiber
77
The scapula is located nearest the:
Back (The scapula is the medical term for the shoulder blade.)
78
The ''T'' in ''OPQRST'' stands for
Time
79
Organisms that cause diseases are called:
Pathogens
80
In which of the following situations might you consult with medical control before inserting a nasopharyngeal airway?
Patient has severe trauma to head and face (Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway into a patient with severe facial trauma might cause further harm.)
81
What should you give for a morphine overdose?
Narcan
82
One of the best ways to prevent disease transmission is:
Frequent hand washing
83
What is the generic name for Narcan?
Naloxone
84
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant's entire leg?
14 percent
85
When triaging multiple patients, green means:
Hold (third priority)
86
The colored part of the eye that controls light levels inside the eye is called the:
Iris
87
Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of grief?
Bitterness
88
This heart valve is located where the blood leaves the right ventricle:
Pulmonary valve
89
How many areas should you palpate when assessing the abdomen?
4 (for 4 quadrants)
90
Which of these are caused by a virus?
Hepatitis B
91
You have a patient with hypoxia, decreased breath sounds on one side, and tracheal deviation. You suspect:
Tension Pneumothorax
92
Why is the jaw-thrust preferable for traumatic patients?
It minimizes spinal movement
93
What medicine prevents Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Thiamine (Thiamine deficiency can result in Wernicke's Encephalopathy (WE). In the West, thiamine deficiency is typically associated with chronic alcoholism.)
94
Which membrane surrounds each lung?
Pleura
95
Nitroglycerin is a:
Vasodilator
96
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer lidocaine.
False
97
Many EMT-B protocols allow them to administer activated charcoal.
True
98
The heart contains:
4 chambers
99
To size an nasopharyngeal airway, measure from the:
nostril to the earlobe
100
Excessive pressure on the carotid artery can increase the heart rate in older patients.
False (Pressure on the carotid artery can result in the slowing of the heart (typically in older patients)
101
Red blood cells fight infection.
False (White blood cells are involved in destroying germs.)
102
When the left ventricle contracts, it sends a pressure wave of blood through the veins which is called the pulse.
False (The pressure wave goes through the arteries, not veins.)
103
The radial pulse rate is usually slightly slower than the carotid pulse:
False ( Although the radial pulse may be more difficult to feel, both will have the same rate (unless the radial pulse is so weak that some beats cannot be felt)
104
The acronym ''CPAP'' stands for:
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure
105
What is the initial treatment for a responsive patient suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning?
100% O2 via NRM
106
Select the most common airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient.
Tongue (Although food may be the most common airway obstruction in conscious patients, the tongue is the most common in unresponsive patients.)
107
The ''C'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for:
Contusions (DCAP-BTLS is a memory aid which is used to help assess trauma patients.)
108
Anatomy refers to:
Body structures (Physiology is body functions)
109
The epigastric region is:
between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
110
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to administer morphine.
False
111
''Lateral'' means:
Toward the side
112
Posterior refers to
Back
113
Distal refers to
Further from trunk
114
It may be possible to resuscitate somebody who has been in cardiac arrest for more than 30 minutes if they are submerged in cold water.
True
115
What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) for your adult patient if they open their eyes to speech, localizes pain, and their speech is confused.
12
116
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain
Skeletal
117
You should avoid warming the limbs of a patient with moderate hypothermia.
True (Warming the extremities of moderate or severe hypothermic patients may result in shock or arrhythmias.)
118
The first task you should perform when you encounter an apparently unresponsive patient is:
Check for scene safety (you should not provide medical care until the scene is safe.)
119
Failing to turn your patient over to somebody with equal or higher medical training is called:
Abandonment
120
The PR interval on an ECG begins at the:
Start of the P wave (The PR segment begins at the end of the P wave. The PR interval begins at the start of the P wave.)
121
What are the possible side effects of lidocaine?
Drowsiness, confusion, seizures, bradycardia, heart blocks
122
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is the front of an infant's leg?
7 percent
123
What might occur secondary to prolonged vomiting?
Metabolic Alkalosis (due to loss of gastric acid) or after the ingestion of large amounts of bicarbonates.)
124
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to assist patients with prescribed nitroglycerin.
True
125
This heart valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery:
Pulmonic valve
126
''Inferior'' refers to
Below
127
What is the term for an injury when a body structure is partially torn from the body?
Avulsion
128
A sound typically associated with fluid in the airway is:
Gurgling
129
The ''A'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for:
Abrasion
130
You should treat all unresponsive patients as if they have:
A Spinal Injury
131
''Dorsal'' means:
Back
132
How many pairs of ribs are connected to the spine?
12
133
Which of the following would be a closed injury?
Hematoma
134
What is the definition of auscultation?
Listening to body sounds
135
Most veins carry:
Oxygen-poor blood
136
The atria are superior to the ventricles.
True
137
The hole at the base of the skull is called the:
Foramen Magnum
138
Which of the following five parameters are most helpful when interpreting cardiac rhythms?
Rate, Regularity, QRS Width, P Waves, PR Interval
139
The bulb of hair follicles are contained in the:
Dermis
140
Which of the following is not a cause of JVD?
Dehydration
141
White blood cells fight infection:
True
142
The ''S'' in ''OPQRST'' stands for
Severity
143
A Yankauer suction tip is:
Rigid
144
On the human body, Ventral refers to
Belly
145
Shocking news can lead to:
Psychogenic Shock
146
Internal bleeding can lead to:
Hypovolemic Shock
147
An avulsion occurs when a body structure is partially torn from the body.
True
148
A myocardial infarction can lead to:
Cardiogenic Shock
149
The immediate threat caused by an open wound is infection.
False (The immediate threat caused by an open wound is blood loss, not infection.)
150
If a patient has no signs of a significant injury and there was not a significant MOI, you must still perform a rapid trauma assessment.
False (This question refers to patients with minor traumatic injuries or a medical condition (e.g., a patient who hit their finger with a hammer or a patient with flu-like symptoms). Although it certainly will not hurt to do a rapid trauma assessment in these situations, it isn't necessary.)
151
Which technique is better suited for a trauma patient with a significant MOI:
Jaw Thrust
152
When you treat an unresponsive patient you are assuming:
Implied Consent
153
What is the purpose of checking capillary refill before and after bandaging?
To check circulation
154
The term ''mottled'' means:
Blotchy
155
Which meningal layer is the hard mother?
Dura Matter
156
A 26-year-old woman is complaining of sudden, sharp pain in her LLQ. What is the most likely ailment?
Ectopic Pregnancy
157
How many cc's would you administer if you were ordered to give a normal saline IV bolus to a 10 kg patient?
200 cc
158
The right ventricle sends blood to the:
Lungs
159
Hyperthermia occurs when the body loses more heat than it can create.
False
160
What do you call a pH that is greater than 7.45?
Alkalosis
161
Thrombolytic drugs typically must be administered to stroke patients within how many hours?
3 hours
162
The diaphragm is a part of the:
Respiratory
163
Inhaled air contains approximately what percent oxygen?
21
164
If a patient who was ejected from a vehicle tells you his only injury is an abrasion on his wrist, you should still perform a rapid trauma assessment.
True
165
Is the mandible superior to the maxilla?
No
166
Hypoperfusion usually results in what color skin?
Cyanotic
167
The transfer of heat when heat waves, or rays, are dispersed from an object is called:
Radiation
168
What is the normal core body temperature in Celsius?
37
169
What is the term for a substance that triggers an allergic reaction?
Antigen
170
What is ''abruptio placentae''?
Placenta separating from uterus
171
Where would you find the perineum?
Groin (The perineum is the region of the body inferior to the pelvic diaphragm and between the legs. It is generally defined as the surface region in both males and females between the pubic symphysis and the coccyx. Don't confuse this with the peritoneum which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity.)
172
The following formula is used to calculate cardiac output:
Stroke Volume times Heart Rate
173
The signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following except:
Collapsed Jugular Vein
174
What is optimum on-scene time for a critical trauma patient?
10 mins
175
The beta cells of the pancreas produce:
Insulin Hormone
176
The left ventricle first sends blood to the:
Aorta (The left ventricle first sends blood to the aorta where it is then distributed throughout the body.)
177
The dorsalis pedis pulse is located on:
Top of the foot (The dorsalis pedis pulse can be palpated on the lateral side of the large tendon on the top of the foot.)
178
The ''AVPU'' scale is used to measure:
Level of Responsiveness
179
Your unresponsive adult patient is breathing at the rate of 6 breaths per minute. What treatment will you provide?
BVM with 100% O2
180
Which of the following injuries is not possible?
A fracture of lumbar vertebrae 6 (There are only five lumbar vertebrae.)
181
A SAMPLE history is required for medical patients, but not for trauma patients.
False
182
The gallbladder is located in the:
RUQ
183
What is crepitus?
A grinding sound ( Crepitus refers to the sound that fractured bones make when they rub together.)
184
In which of the following diabetic emergencies would you expect to find cold, pale, moist, or clammy skin:
Hypoglycemia
185
What are the effects of epinephrine?
Bronchodilation and Vasoconstrction
186
Which membrane surrounds the heart?
Pericardium
187
What is ''status epilepticus''?
Seizures lasting 5+ minutes (Status epilepticus is an epileptic seizure of greater than five minutes OR more than one seizure within a five-minute period without the person returning to normal between them.)
188
Which of the following is not typically considered a sign or symptom of hypoglycemia?
Vomiting
189
The pulse that can be palpated near the groin is called the:
Femoral Pulse
190
During triage, a sucking chest wound would be:
Red
191
An amputation occurs when a piece of skin is left hanging from the body.
False
192
The ''A'' in SAMPLE history stands for:
Allergies
193
During triage, a femur fracture wound would be:
Yellow
194
Myocardial infarction is:
cardiac necrosis due to an imbalance in oxygen supply and demand.
195
The T wave on an ECG represents the depolarization of the atria.
False (The P wave, not the T wave, represents the depolarization of the atria.)
196
What is the normal respiration rate for a child?
15 to 30 breaths per minute
197
Approximately how long with an oxygen tank containing 250 liters last at 15 lpm?
16 mintues
198
Approximately how long with an oxygen tank containing 250 liters last at 15 lpm?
Lower
199
You should use the OPQRST mnemonic for your medical patients.
True
200
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Nitroglycerin?
Hives
201
Never insert the tip of a suction tip:
Further than you can see
202
The ''P'' in OPQRST stands for
Provokes
203
Red blood cells transport oxygen.
True
204
The brachial artery is located in the:
Arm (The brachial artery is located in the upper arm.)
205
The bone in the lower arm that joins the wrist near the thumb is the:
Radius
206
Which of the following victims would you care for first?
A 30-year-old female with a femur fracture
207
The membrane layer that is in contact with abdominal organs is called the:
Visceral peritoneum
208
Exhaled air contains what percent oxygen?
16
209
How many thoracic vertebrae are in the spine?
12
210
How many coccyx vertebrae are in the spine?
4 (The coccyx is formed of either three, four or five rudimentary vertebrae.)
211
The ''B'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for:
Burns
212
Which off the following types of nerves carry information from the body to the brain?
Sensory
213
Your patient tells you they are going to vomit. Is this a sign or a symptom?
Symptom (Symptoms are things that your patient feels but you can't confirm. Thus, nausea is a symptom.)
214
It is acceptable to ask patients to walk when triaging an MCI.
True
215
This is a difficult airway question
| A French suction tip is:
Flexible
216
Which of the following is a typical sign of neurogenic shock?
Bradycardia (Most forms of shock are associated with tachycardia (rapid heart rate). However, neurogenic shock is typically associated with bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure)
217
The maximum suction time for an infant is:
5 secs
218
To size an oropharyngeal airway, measure from the:
Corner of the mouth to the ear lobe
219
The prongs on a nasal cannula should curve:
Downward (i.e., toward the tongue
220
To protect your patient's privacy, you should only inspect a genitalia injury if there is obvious bleeding.
False
221
If you touch a responsive patient without first obtaining consent, you may have committed:
Batter (Battery is non-consensual touching that results in physical or emotional harm.)
222
You patient should attempt to hold his breath after using an MDI:
True ( MDI is an abbreviation for Metered Dose Inhaler. The patient should attempt to hold his or her breath to keep the medicine in his or her lungs.)
223
An AED is an appropriate treatment for a trauma patient:
False
224
The transfer of heat when air or water currents carry heat from an object is called:
Convection
225
The systolic blood pressure indicates the pressure when the left ventricle contracts:
True
226
The R in OPQRST stands for
Radiate
227
Bones and muscles are connected by?
Tendons
228
Nubain is a:
Synthetic Opioid (Don't confuse this with Narcan, which reverses the effects of opioids.)
229
What is the maximum amount of time you should suction a patient's airway?
10-15 secs
230
The buildup of fatty deposits inside of arteries is called atherosclerosis.
True
231
Core body temperature is one of the four key vital signs?
True
232
Digitalis toxicity would be expected to cause an abnormally short PR Interval.
False
233
Medial means:
Toward the middle
234
Which receptor plays a role in maintaining blood pressure?
Baroreceptors
235
In the human anatomical position, the palms of the hands face:
Anteriorly
236
Vasopressin is an alternative to:
Epinephrine
237
The diastolic blood pressure indicates the pressure when the left ventricle contracts:
False (The diastolic blood pressure is the pressure when the left ventricle dilates (and refills with blood)
238
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an infant's back?
18%
239
What drip rate would you use if you were ordered to administer 1 L over one hour with a 10 gtt/mL drip set?
167 gtt (One liter is 1000 cc. So the calculation is: (1000 cc * 10 gtt/mL) / 60 minutes = 166.67 gtt)
240
You are treating a triathlete who has an upset stomach the day before a race. His pulse is 48 beats per minute. Should you begin treatment for bradycardia?
No (A resting heart rate of 48 is not uncommon for a well conditioned athlete. Treating for bradycardia should be based on whether the patient has signs and symptoms that are the result of the bradycardia.)
241
Vagal maneuvers:
Slow conduction through the AV node
242
At what rate should one rescuer perform CPR compressions on a newborn?
100 to 120 per minute
243
The normal resting heart rate for an adult is:
60-100
244
When triaging multiple patients, yellow means:
Delayed (second priority)
245
''Meconium'' is
A type of feces
246
Which of the following is not an early sign of hypoperfusion?
Hypotension (A late sign of hypoperfusion)
247
Which drug class does nitroglycerin belong?
Vasodilators
248
Is wheezing a sign or a symptom?
Sign (Signs are things that you can see, feel, hear, smell, etc. Symptoms are things that only your patient feels. Since you can hear wheezing, it is a sign.)
249
Hemorrhaging can lead to:
Hypovolemic Shock
250
Bronchiole are smaller than alveolus.
False
251
A sound typically associated with asthma or an allergic reaction is:
Wheezing
252
This heart valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle:
Mitral Valve
253
The transfer of heat when water vaporizes is called:
Evaporation
254
The smallest kind of artery is an:
Arteriole
255
The ''tarsals'' are located near the:
Foot
256
Which of the following is typically associated with profuse sweating?
Heat Exhaustion
257
Which of the following is associated with a significant increase in core body temperature?
Heat Stroke
258
Is normal saline isotonic?
Yes
259
Fowler's position refers to a patient who is:
Lying on his back with back raised
260
An oropharyngeal airway is contraindicated if the patient:
Has a gag reflex
261
When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, the beveled edge should be positioned ________ the septum.
Toward
262
The most likely injury from a knife is:
Laceration
263
The ''L'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for:
Lacerations
264
Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction?
Hypertension (Hypotension is a symptom of a severe allergic reaction.)
265
Lasix is used to treat:
Hypertension
266
When practical, CPR should be performed while AED pads are being applied.
True
267
''Normal'' diastolic blood pressure is:
Less than 80 mm Hg
268
The term CVA refers to a:
Cerebrovascular Accident
269
A hematoma is another name for a:
Bruise
270
What should you give for an opiate overdose?
Narcan
271
What is the normal respiration rate for an infant?
25 to 50 breaths per minute
272
The use of an emergency move (e.g., the shoulder drag) is warranted if you are unable to reach other critically injured patients.
True
273
White blood cells transport oxygen:
False
274
To correctly perform the Heimlich maneuver on an adult, you should place your hand:
Between the navel and xiphoid process
275
The pulse that can be palpated near the wrist is called the:
Radial Pulse
276
COPD is common in pediatric patients:
False
277
Where is the cephalic vein located?
Arm
278
What is the APGAR score of a newborn if his arms and legs are flexed, his pulse is > 100, there is grimace, his extremities are blue three minutes after birth, and he is actively crying?
7
279
Based on the color of triage tags, which of these patients would receive care second?
Yellow
280
In the alveoli, does blood give off oxygen and take on carbon dioxide?
No
281
The pharynx is located inferior to the nasopharynx.
True (The pharynx is comprised of both the nasopharynx and the oropharynx.)
282
The term for an injury where the skin is scraped is:
Abrasion
283
The ''midaxillary'' line runs in which direction?
Vertically
284
Your patient vomits. Is this a sign or a symptom?
Sign
285
Which of these is common during an opioid overdose:
Respiratory Depression
286
All arteries carry oxygen rich blood.
False
287
The transparent disk inside the eye that focues the light is called the:
Lens
288
Yellow skin probably indicates:
Liver Problems
289
The epidermis contains blood vessels:
False
290
What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) for your adult patient who only opens their eyes when you speak, can localize pain, and is disoriented.
12
291
A flail chest can be caused by:
Chest Trauma
292
The smaller bone in the lower leg is the:
Fibula
293
A weakened section of an arterial wall is a:
Aneurysm
294
You respond to an MVA and discover a 19-year-old female with signs and symptoms of a closed pelvic fracture. What is your primary concern?
Blood loss due to internal bleeding
295
Proximal refers to:
Closer to trunk
296
You should repeat the ongoing assessment of a patient with serious S&S, MOI, or NOI every:
5 minutes
297
The letter ''i'' in MOI stands for:
Injury
298
The most likely injury from a hammer is:
Hematoma
299
The voice box is really the:
Larynx
300
The ''S'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for:
Swelling
301
An infection typically decreases the heart rate.
False
302
What do you call a pH that is less than 7.35?
Acidosis
303
CHF is:
a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough oxygenated blood to the body.
304
What is the name of the heart valve that is located where the blood leaves the left ventricle?
Aortic valve
305
Care that an EMT can provide is legally defined as:
Scope of Practice
306
What is another name for Thiamine?
Vitiman B1
307
What is the most abundant cation in the extracellular fluid in the body?
Sodium
308
Which formula is used to determine the endotracheal tube size for children?
(Age / 4) + 4 or (Age + 16) / 4
309
The ''L'' in SAMPLE history stands for:
Last Oral Intake
310
The coarse rattling sound (somewhat like snoring) that can be heard when auscultating lungs is called:
Rhonchi
311
Plasma:
Transports platelets
312
Which of the following is not typically associated with a stroke?
Leg Pain
313
People with Type II diabetes typically take insulin daily.
False
314
Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults?
All of the Above (Grunting Respiration, Nasal Flaring, See-sawing of the Chest and Abdomen)
315
A traction splint is indicated in which of the following:
Mid-thigh closed fracture
316
Using the rule-of-nines to determine the burn percentage, what percent is an adult's abdomen?
9 percent
317
Which fluid carries blood cells?
Plasma
318
What does ''EOA'' stand for?
Esophageal Obturator Airway
319
When treating a drug overdose, which question should you not ask:
Who gave you the pills?
320
The tube that carries air to the lungs is called the:
Trachea
321
The ''metatarsals'' are located near the:
Foot
322
The ''ischium'' is located in the:
Pelvis
323
The maxilla is:
Below the zygomatic bone
324
Is Lactated Ringers (LR) isotonic?
Yes
325
Is a DNR an advanced directive?
Yes ( A "do not resuscitate" (DNR) is a legal document to respect the patient's wishes to not receive CPR or advanced life support.)
326
How should you measure the proper depth of a suction catheter?
From the corner of the mouth to the ear lobe
327
You should perform an assessment of a pediatric patient in the same order as an adult patient.
False (Most texts suggest that you should assess pediatric patients from the feet up, rather than from the head down. Presumably, this is less frightening for the child.)
328
You should vigorously shake an MDI before use.
Yes (MDI is an abbreviation for Metered Dose Inhaler.)
329
Whom would you treat first at the scene of a multiple vehicle accident?
A 33-year-old male with rapid breathing and a weak pulse
330
The term ''flushed'' refers to:
Red
331
The ''Q'' in OPQRST stands for
Quality
332
The pulse that can be palpated near the top of the foot is called the:
Dorsalis Pedis Pulse
333
The first 'L' in LLQ refers to
Left
334
The term for an injury where a body part is separated from the body is:
Amputation
335
What is the correct route for activated charcoal?
PO
336
The stage of labor when a woman reaches complete dilation and is pushing is called:
Stage 2 (Stage 1: Onset of labor to complete dilation. Stage 2: Pushing to delivery of baby. Stage 3: Delivery of baby to delivery of placenta.)
337
What shape is a Macintosh laryngoscope blade?
Curved
338
The manubrium is near the:
Upper Sternum
339
Auscultation is:
Something you hear
340
Your 14-year-old patient is bleeding profusely from his wrist following a bicycle accident. What is the first method you would use to control the bleeding?
Direct Pressure
341
What is the layman's term for a contusion?
Bruise
342
Palpation is:
Something you feel
343
When the pupils are in a dark room, they will:
Dilate
344
How many pairs of ribs are there?
12
345
The inferior tip of the sternum is the:
Xiphoid Process
346
The larger bone in the lower-leg is the:
Tibia
347
What are ''lucid'' intervals?
Periods between consciousness and unconsciousness
348
What is unique about the hyoid bone?
It does not articulate with any other bone
349
Dyspnea means:
Difficulty breathing
350
Your trauma patient is complaining of pain in the LUQ. They are showing signs of hypoperfusion. You suspect:
Ruptured spleen (The spleen is located in the Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ))
351
Your patient's ECG shows a heart rate of 200 beats per minute. Is this sinus tachycardia?
No (A heart rate of 200 is usually associated with supraventricular (not sinus) tachycardia.)
352
The ''D'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for:
Deformities
353
Which of the following is not a symptom of stress?
Increase in sexual desire
354
How many bones are there in each foot?
26
355
Zygomas are:
Cheek bones
356
You see vomit running out of your patient's mouth. This is a:
Sign
357
What is the first stage of labor?
Active Labor
358
The epiglottis superior to the larynx.
True
359
A normal PR Interval on an ECG measures 0.04 to 0.12 second.
False (A normal PR Interval on an ECG should actually be 0.12 to 0.20 second.)
360
The SA node is located near the:
Right Atrium
361
The MONA acronym is used for the treatment of:
MI (MONA refers to Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, and Aspirin (treatment for a heart attack, an "MI")
362
While performing a Rapid Body Assessment on an unresponsive trauma patient, you discover an open fracture of the left tibia that has life-threatening bleeding. You should:
Immediately control the bleeding.
363
How many lumbar vertebrae are in the spine?
5
364
What is the postictal state referring to?
seizures
365
The frontal plane:
Divides anterior from posterior
366
An oral airway helps relax the muscles of a responsive patient.
False
367
During a seizure, you should insert an oral airway to prevent the patient from biting his or her tongue.
False
368
Oxygen should be administered to hypoxic COPD patients
True
369
A contusion often results in:
Hematoma
370
Which of the following medical conditions has a slower onset?
Hyperglycemia (Hypoglycemia, low blood sugar, can happen quickly. Hyperglycemia, high blood sugar, takes much longer to develop.)
371
Platelets help the blood clot.
True
372
Penetrating trauma to the eye should be treated by:
Securing the penetrating object in place
373
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is:
a condition relating to the alveoli.
374
Fever, chills, and sore muscles are typical symptoms of a:
Infection
375
Valium is a brand name for:
Diazepam
376
What are agonal respirations?
Gasping Respirations
377
Which of the following is not a ''route of entry'' for a toxin?
Intoxication
378
The correct placement of a curved laryngoscope blade is normally the:
Vallecula
379
The pulse that can be palpated near the neck is called the:
Carotid Artery
380
Before use, the reservoir bag on a non-rebreather mask should be pre-inflated to:
100% capacity
381
The ''E'' in SAMPLE history stands for:
Event
382
When triaging multiple patients, red means:
Immediate (highest priority)
383
In which of the following diabetic emergencies might you find breath that smells like nail polish remover?
Hyperglycemia
384
Visceral means:
The surface closest to an organ
385
The term Dorsiflex means to:
Pull toes upward
386
The transparent, dome-shaped window covering the front of the eye is called the:
Cornea
387
Most EMT-B protocols allow them to assist patients with prescribed epinephrine.
True
388
A patient with a nose bleed should be positioned:
Seated, leaning forward
389
Contralateral means:
Opposite side of midline
390
Which drug may be nebulized for an asthma attack?
Atropine
391
Nicardipine is helpful for the treatment of hypotension.
False (Nicardipine is helpful for the short-term treatment of hypertension.)
392
When packaging a young child to a spine board, you should consider padding under the:
Shoulders ( Because young children have relatively larger heads, you may need to pad under their shoulders (upper back) to keep the spine aligned.)
393
Hypothermia is usually defined as a core body temperature below:
35° C (95.0° F)
394
What does the acronym ''STEMI'' help identify?
A blocked a coronary artery.
395
Is abdominal pain a sign or a symptom?
Symptom
396
The ''T'' in the trauma mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for:
Tenderness
397
Oxygen is supplied to the myocardium via the:
Cornary Arteries
398
Why should norepinephrine be given through via a central access line whenever possible?
It may cause necrosis if it extravasates in a peripheral line
399
A written document containing rules, policies, procedures, regulations, and orders for the conduct of patient care in the prehospital environment is called:
Standing orders
400
The peripheral nerves are a part of the central nervous system.
False (The peripheral nerves are included in the nervous system (specifically, in the peripheral nervous system), but not in the central nervous system.)
401
The spleen is located in the?
LUQ
402
The lateral malleolus is located near the
Foot (The lateral malleolus is the "outside" ankle bone (i.e., the end of the fibula).)
403
The tough, white, outer layer of the eye is called the:
Sclera
404
The most likely injury after being shot with an arrow is:
Puncture
405
The lateral bone in the lower-leg is the:
Fibula
406
Is a drop in BP an early or late sign of hypoperfusion?
Late
407
A full oxygen cylinder is typically:
2000 psi
408
Which of these patients would you treat even if they refuse care?
A 33-year-old male with a Glasgow score of 10.
409
Which type of fracture is more common in younger patients than in older patients?
Geen Stick (A greenstick fracture occurs when a bone bends and cracks instead of breaking completely into separate pieces.)
410
Where is the preferred location for an OS IV?
Proximal tibia
411
Which of the following heart rates would you most expect for an adult in good physical condition while at rest?
70 bpm
412
The term jaundice refers to:
Yellow
413
What is preeclampsia?
Hypertension during pregnancy
414
The PR segment on an ECG begins at the:
End of the P wave
415
The ''sagittal'' plane:
Divides left and right
416
Hypertension, erratic respirations, and slowing heart rate may indicate:
Cushing
417
Activated charcoal is appropriate for cyanide poisoning.
False
418
The fibula is to the tibia as the ulna is to the:
Radius
419
What reverses the effects of temazepam?
Flumazenil
420
Peanuts can lead to:
Anaphylactic Shock
421
The venae cavae are located near the:
Heart
422
Superior refers to
Above
423
You have a patient who is experiencing non-neurogenic, compensated shock. Which of the following symptoms would you not expect?
Bradycardia
424
The transverse process is located in the:
Back
425
How should you package an amputated body part for transportation to the hospital?
Covered with a dry dressing and kept cool
426
The term PPE refers to:
Personal Protective Equipment
427
The MOI can provide clues that will help you help your patient.
True (mechanism of injury)
428
When triaging multiple patients, black means:
Unsurvivable (no treatment)
429
You should repeat the ongoing assessment of a patient with minor S&S and a minor MOI (or LOI) every:
15 minutes
430
Crepitus and false motion are:
Signs of a fracture
431
The ''acetabulum'' is located in the:
Hip (The acetabulum is the socket of the hip joint.)
432
Approximately what percent oxygen does a patient receive from rescue breathing without supplemental oxygen?
16 percent ( Air contains approximately 21% oxygen at sea level. During rescue breathing this drops to approximately 16%.)
433
Smooth muscle refers to:
Involuntary muscle
434
What is the total number of lobes on both lungs?
5
435
The jugular neck veins are normally visible in a supine patient.
True (Normally, the jugular veins will be visible in a supine (lying down) patient. If they are flat, it might be a sign of blood loss.)
436
Which of these is closest to phalanges?
Ankle (Phalanges is the name of the finger and toe bones.)
437
The direction of life support procedures by a physician that are carried out by emergency medical technicians and paramedics, including online and off-line supervision, is called:
Medical Control
438
The ''S'' in SAMPLE history stands for:
Signs and Symptoms
439
The sacrum is located in the:
Pelvis
440
What is the normal respiration rate for an adult?
12 to 20 breaths per minute
441
Which of the following is NOT used to report LOR?
SALT
442
The tragus is part of the:
Ear
443
The tube that carries food to the stomach is called the:
Esophagus
444
A spinal injury can lead to:
Neurogenic Shock
445
The left ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary artery.
False
446
What is the name of a bubbling sound in lungs?
Rales
447
Which of the following is not in the upper airway?
Trachea
448
The carpals are located near the:
Hand
449
What is the term for a patient who is standing face forward with palms forward?
Anatomical
450
Which of the following is the most important during an assessment:
Maintaining an open airway
451
What is placenta previa?
Placenta covering the cervix
452
A child with projectile vomitting, a stiff neck, and a fever causes you to suspect:
Meningitis
453
The right atrium sends blood to the:
Right Ventricle
454
The right ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary artery.
True
455
The liver is located in the?
RUQ
456
Lack of oxygen is called:
Hypoxia
457
How many pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum?
10
458
What is the mnemonic N.A.V.E.L. used for?
Drugs that can be administered via an ET tube
