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Medical terminology Exam #1 > Medical Terminology > Flashcards

Medical Terminology Flashcards

Exam #1

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

what is carcin/o

A

cancer

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2
Q

what is cyt/o

A

cell(s)

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3
Q

what is epitheli/o

A

epithelium, epithelial tissue

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4
Q

what is hist/o

A

tissue(s)

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5
Q

what is lip/o

A

fat, fat tissue

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6
Q

what is my/o

A

muscle(s), muscle tissue

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7
Q

what is neur/o

A

nerve(s), nerve tissue

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8
Q

what is onc/o

A

tumor(s)

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9
Q

what is path/o

A

disease

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10
Q

what is radi/o

A

x-rays (ionizing radiation)

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11
Q

what is sarc/o

A

flesh, connective tissue

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12
Q

what is viscer/o

A

internal organs

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13
Q

what is -al

A

pertaining to

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14
Q

what is -genic

A

producing, originating, causing

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15
Q

what is -logist

A

one who studies and treats (specialist, physician)

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16
Q

what is -logy

A

study of

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17
Q

what is -oid

A

resembling

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18
Q

what is -oma

A

tumor

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19
Q

what is -plasm

A

growth (substance or formation

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20
Q

what is -stasis

A

control, stop

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21
Q

what is meta-

A

beyond

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22
Q

what is neo-

A

new

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23
Q

what is the definition of carinogenic

A

producing cancer

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24
Q

what is the definition of carcinoma (CA)

A

cancerous tumor

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25
Q

what is the definition of cytoid

A

resembling a cell

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26
Q

what is the definition of cytology

A

study of cells

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27
Q

what is the definition of epithelial

A

pertaining to epithelium

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28
Q

what is the definition of epithelioma

A

tumor composed of epithelial tissue

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29
Q

what is the definition of histology

A

study of tissues

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30
Q

what is the definition of lipoid

A

resembling fat

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31
Q

what is the definition of lipoma

A

tumor composed of fat tissue

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32
Q

what is the definition of metastasis

A

beyond control [transfer of disease beyond the tissue or organ of origin]

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33
Q

what is the definition of myoma

A

tumor composed of muscle tissue

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34
Q

what is the definition of neoplasm

A

new growth

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35
Q

what is the definition of neuroma

A

tumor composed of nerve tissue

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36
Q

What is the definition of oncologist

A

Physician who studies and treats tumors

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37
Q

What is the definition of oncology

A

study of tumors

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38
Q

what is the definition of pathogenic

A

producing disease

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39
Q

What is the definition of pathologist

A

Physician who studies disease

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40
Q

What is the definition of pathology (PATH)

A

study of disease

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41
Q

What is the definition of radiologist

A

Physician who studies and treats using x-rays (and other diagnostic imaging procedures)

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42
Q

what is the definition of radiology

A

study of x-rays (and other diagnostic imaging procedures)

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43
Q

what is the definition of sarcoma

A

tumor of connective tissue

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44
Q

what is the definition of visceral

A

pertaining to internal organs

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45
Q

what is the definition of benign

A

not malignant, nonrecurring

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46
Q

what is the definition of biopsy (Bx)

A

removal of living tissue to be viewed under a microscope for diagnostic purposes

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47
Q

what is the definition of chemotherapy (chemo)

A

treatment of cancer by using pharmaceuticals

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48
Q

what is the definition of diagnosis (Dx)

A

identification of a disease

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49
Q

what is the definition of infection

A

invasion of pathogens in body tissue

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50
Q

what is the definition of inflammation

A

localized, protective response to injury or tissue destruction characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain

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51
Q

what is the definition of malignant

A

tending to become progressively worse, possibly resulting in death

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52
Q

what is the definition of prognosis (Px)

A

prediction of a possible outcome of a disease

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53
Q

what is the definition of radiation therapy (XRT)

A

treatment of cancer with radioactive substances, x-rays, and other forms of radiation

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54
Q

what is the definition of remission

A

lessening or absence of signs of disease

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55
Q

what is the definition of staphylococcus (pl. staphylococci) (staph)

A

bacterium that grows in a pattern resembling grape like clusters and can cause infections

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56
Q

what is the definition of streptococcus (pl. streptococci) (strep)

A

bacterium that grows in a pattern resembling twisted chains and can cause infections

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57
Q

what is the abbreviation of Bx

A

biopsy

58
Q

what is the abbreviation of CA

A

cancer, carcinoma

59
Q

what is the abbreviation of chemo

A

chemotherapy

60
Q

wha is the abbreviation of Dx

A

Diagnosis

61
Q

what is the abbreviation of lab

A

Laboratory

62
Q

what is the abbreviation of mets

A

metastasis, metastases

63
Q

what is the abbreviation for PATH

A

pathology

64
Q

what is the abbreviation for Px

A

Prognosis

65
Q

what is the abbreviation for staph

A

Staphylococcus, staphylococci

66
Q

what is the abbreviation for strep

A

Streptococcus, streptococci

67
Q

what is the abbreviation for XRT

A

radiation therapy

68
Q

what is the definition of word root (wr)

A

core of the term; fundamental meaning.

69
Q

what is the definition of suffix (s)

A

attached to the end of the word root and provides additional information

70
Q

what is the definition of prefix (p)

A

attached to the beginning of the word root and provides additional information

71
Q

what is the definition of combining vowels (cv)

A

vowel, usually an o, placed between two word roots and between a word root and a suffix

72
Q

who created the first comprehensive disease classification system in the United States in 1869

A

American Medical Association (AMA)

73
Q

What are the main reasons to use procedure coding

A

to justify medical services to insurance companies by correlating procedures to diagnosis, to collect statistics about the outcome and effectiveness of treatments, to help physicians and hospitals set fees based on the amount of time and skill required to provide a specific service

74
Q

How often are level I codes updated

A

annually

75
Q

who updates and publishes the CPT manual

A

The American Medical Association (AMA)

76
Q

HCPCS level II codes include what services that are not in the CPT system and may not be covered by insurance

A

procedures, injections, and durable medical equipment

77
Q

how often should updated codes books be purchased

A

every year

78
Q

CPT manual contains codes which are usually how many digits long

A

5 digits

79
Q

what is the first section of the Current Procedural Manual

A

Anesthesia

80
Q

What is a modifier and how many digits are they

A

A modifier is an addition to a procedure code that indicated unusual circumstances related to the procedure, there are 2 digit modifiers

81
Q

what pieces of information may be significant when choosing the correct code for a procedure

A

look up the procedure in the alphabetic index of a CPT manual or an online code system

82
Q

What are the two types of CPT codes

A

stand-alone codes and indented codes

83
Q

if a patient comes in for an exam and has an electrocardiogram done, per the physicians orders, is this bill under the examination or separately, under its own code

A

the bill would be under the examination

84
Q

what types of services and providers would find their appropriate codes in the E/M section

A

A medical service could have been provided in the office, in a nursing home, in a hospital

85
Q

define established patient

A

one who has been seen in the previous 3 years

86
Q

define new patient

A

one who has not had services performed by any provider in the medical office in the previous 3 years

87
Q

define inpatient

A

a patient who has been formally admitted to a health care facility

88
Q

define outpatient

A

one who has not been admitted to a health care facility

89
Q

what is a problem-focused history

A

one that addresses the chief complaint, with a brief history of the illness or problem

90
Q

what is expanded problem-focused history

A

a review of systems that have to do with the chief complaint

91
Q

what is a detailed history

A

if a patient has more complicated medical problems and/or multiple problems

92
Q

what is comprehensive history

A

when a patient has a severe, acute medical condition or serious changed in a long-term condition

93
Q

what is a panel

A

a panel is a group of laboratory tests

94
Q

HCPCS level II codes are used primarily for items and services that do not have level I (CPT) codes, what are some examples of what these might be

A

supplies, materials, specific medications, ambulance services, and some procedures

95
Q

Diagnosis coding was originally developed for what four purposes

A

to track disease processes, to classify the causes of death, to collect data for medical research, and to evaluate hospital service utilization

96
Q

what organization originally published and still manages the international classification of disease

A

the World Health Organization (WHO)

97
Q

what does the “9” stand for in ICD-9

A

9th revision

98
Q

what does the 10 stand for in ICD-10

A

10th revision

99
Q

what new features are in the ICD-10, compared to the ICD-9

A

more extensive information related to ambulatory care and managed care encounters , an expansion of injury codes, new combination diagnosis and symptom codes to decrease the need for two codes, an added sixth and seventh digit for some conditions, increased ability to locate and choose specific codes

100
Q

what will happen if the care given does not correspond to the patient’s disease

A

many insurance companies will reject a claim because the patient’s diagnoses does not justify the procedures done for the patient

101
Q

In the Tabular list of the ICD-10-CM manual, the codes are arranged in what way

A

Alphabetical order

102
Q

what is a medical necessity

A

a term for health care that is reasonable and necessary for a patient based on evidence-based clinical standards of care

103
Q

when coding, the MA has an obligation to do what?

A

verify that a procedure code is linked to the correct diagnosis code

104
Q

what is upcoding?

A

when medical codes are misused in order to obtain a higher level of reimbursement than is allowed

105
Q

if an office is found to practice upcoding, what could be their consequence

A

levy fines and penalties for failure to adhere to compliance with regulations for using correct codes on claims for reimbursements

106
Q

what is downcoding

A

codes that do not reflect a high enough level of service

107
Q

why is it important to ensure that what we report on our charges matches the medical record

A

mitigates risks and reduces the chance of a successful malpractice claim. A well-documented record serves as evidence of treatment and care, helping to alleviate liability concerns in the event of a claim.

108
Q

what is capitation

A

paying a fixed amount per worker over a stated period of time for all necessary medical care

109
Q

what organization first started capitation

A

Kaiser Permanente

110
Q

what were the two programs created by the federal government to try and close the large gaps in medical coverage , who is covered under both

A

medicare and medicaid, elders

111
Q

what is TRICARE, who does it cover

A

healthcare program for active duty service members , covers dependent spouses and children of active-duty military personnel

112
Q

what is CHAMPVA, who does it cover

A

A companion program for veterans, covers dependent spouses and children of military veterans with service- connected disabilities

113
Q

what is a group plan/group insurance, who does it cover

A

one insurance policy that covered a group of people, individuals and families

114
Q

what is a premium

A

the amount of money paid by the consumer to purchase health insurance

115
Q

what is a benefit

A

payment for a service covered by health insurance

116
Q

what is a beneficiary

A

each individual covered by the health insurance plan

117
Q

what is insured

A

the individual who has the insurance, but a family plan also covered dependents of the insured including a spouse and children

118
Q

what is deductible

A

an amount of money that must be paid for services provided to an individual or a family member in a group plan every calendar year before any insurance payments

119
Q

what is coinsurance

A

when a patient is responsible for a specific percentage of the allowed charges

120
Q

what is a copayment

A

a fixed dollar amount that a patient is required to pay every time he or she obtains medical services or fills a prescription

121
Q

what is primary insurance

A

if a person is covered by more than one insurance policy, the insurance to which the insurance claim is sent first

122
Q

what is secondary insurance

A

provides additional insurance coverage

123
Q

what is coordination of benefits

A

a term for the rules insurance companies use to coordinate the payments for medical services so that the amount paid by all insurance carriers for any service provided is never more than 100% of the charge

124
Q

what type of household would follow these rules

A

individuals in households with two working adults make modifications in their benefits

125
Q

briefly describe the 5 rules under coordination of benefits

A

Custodial parent rule
If parents are divorced or separated, the custodial parent’s plan is usually the primary payer for their dependent children.
Continuation coverage rule
If you have continuation coverage and another plan, the continuation coverage plan is usually primary.
Longest plan rule
If no other rule applies, the plan you’ve been enrolled in the longest is usually primary.
Active/inactive rule
An active employee’s plan is usually primary over a retired or laid off employee’s plan.
Medicare rules
Medicare’s primary status can depend on working status and group size. For example, Medicare is usually primary for people who are 65 or older and still working for an employer with fewer than 20 employees.

126
Q

what is managed care

A

the movement to control health care costs while improving preventive care and is a general term for insurance. programs reimbursing care provided

127
Q

define primary care provider (PCP)

A

a healthcare practitioner who provides most of the patient’s care and also determines what other medical services the patient requires

128
Q

in the original HMO concept , all medical care was provided for 1 year for a fixed premium, with no deductibles or coinsurance. what was the patient only responsible for

A

a fixed amount for each visit or prescription (copayment)

129
Q

in this model, who acts as the gatekeepers before any referrals to specialists are approved

A

PCPs, physicians, nurse practitioners, and physician assistants

130
Q

PPOs allows in and out of network services, at what cost is this to the patient though

A

these plans usually have deductibles and coinsurance or copayments

131
Q

what is a point-of-service plan, it is a combination of what

A

combines an in-network plan that is an HMO with an additional out-of-network plan, it functions as a combination of an HMO and a PPO

132
Q

what are the details of medicare part a, part b, part c, part d

A

part a - provides coverage for hospitalization services
part b - covers physician and other provider services
part c - medicare was expanded to provide more choice in the types of available plans in 1997
part d - adds a prescription drug benefit to the Original Medicare Plan

133
Q

which part has a premium

A

part B

134
Q

patients with original medicare can purchase additional insurance, known as medicare supplemental or medigap insurance , which is billed as a primary, medicare or the supplemental

A

the supplemental

135
Q

only children enrolled in which government program can be enrolled into CHIP

A

Bipartisan Budget Act

136
Q

what is tricare prime

A

an HMO-type plan available to service members, reservists, dependents, and some retirees

137
Q

which summarizes the information on a patient’s insurance card

A

insurance identification number

138
Q

what is eligibility status and why is it so important to check prior to an office visit

A

determines whether the patient has health insurance coverage and will be able to receive health insurance benefits during the proposed time period ,

139
Q

what is a referral

A

a referral is the directing of a patient to a medical specialist by a primary care physician

140
Q

what type of services would a PCP complete a referral for a patient

A

to a physician who participates in the patient’s managed care plan without prior authorization

141
Q

on the lower lines of the claim form, there is information on the charges for services rendered, what information should be included for these charges

A

information about each procedure, the date of service, place of service, pointer to the procedure code, charge for the service, number of units being billed, and NPI number of the provider of each service

Medical terminology Exam #1 (1 decks)

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