Medical Terminology Flashcards
Exam #1
1
Q
what is carcin/o
A
cancer
2
Q
what is cyt/o
A
cell(s)
3
Q
what is epitheli/o
A
epithelium, epithelial tissue
4
Q
what is hist/o
A
tissue(s)
5
Q
what is lip/o
A
fat, fat tissue
6
Q
what is my/o
A
muscle(s), muscle tissue
7
Q
what is neur/o
A
nerve(s), nerve tissue
8
Q
what is onc/o
A
tumor(s)
9
Q
what is path/o
A
disease
10
Q
what is radi/o
A
x-rays (ionizing radiation)
11
Q
what is sarc/o
A
flesh, connective tissue
12
Q
what is viscer/o
A
internal organs
13
Q
what is -al
A
pertaining to
14
Q
what is -genic
A
producing, originating, causing
15
Q
what is -logist
A
one who studies and treats (specialist, physician)
16
Q
what is -logy
A
study of
17
Q
what is -oid
A
resembling
18
Q
what is -oma
A
tumor
19
Q
what is -plasm
A
growth (substance or formation
20
Q
what is -stasis
A
control, stop
21
Q
what is meta-
A
beyond
22
Q
what is neo-
A
new
23
Q
what is the definition of carinogenic
A
producing cancer
24
Q
what is the definition of carcinoma (CA)
A
cancerous tumor
25
what is the definition of cytoid
resembling a cell
26
what is the definition of cytology
study of cells
27
what is the definition of epithelial
pertaining to epithelium
28
what is the definition of epithelioma
tumor composed of epithelial tissue
29
what is the definition of histology
study of tissues
30
what is the definition of lipoid
resembling fat
31
what is the definition of lipoma
tumor composed of fat tissue
32
what is the definition of metastasis
beyond control [transfer of disease beyond the tissue or organ of origin]
33
what is the definition of myoma
tumor composed of muscle tissue
34
what is the definition of neoplasm
new growth
35
what is the definition of neuroma
tumor composed of nerve tissue
36
What is the definition of oncologist
Physician who studies and treats tumors
37
What is the definition of oncology
study of tumors
38
what is the definition of pathogenic
producing disease
39
What is the definition of pathologist
Physician who studies disease
40
What is the definition of pathology (PATH)
study of disease
41
What is the definition of radiologist
Physician who studies and treats using x-rays (and other diagnostic imaging procedures)
42
what is the definition of radiology
study of x-rays (and other diagnostic imaging procedures)
43
what is the definition of sarcoma
tumor of connective tissue
44
what is the definition of visceral
pertaining to internal organs
45
what is the definition of benign
not malignant, nonrecurring
46
what is the definition of biopsy (Bx)
removal of living tissue to be viewed under a microscope for diagnostic purposes
47
what is the definition of chemotherapy (chemo)
treatment of cancer by using pharmaceuticals
48
what is the definition of diagnosis (Dx)
identification of a disease
49
what is the definition of infection
invasion of pathogens in body tissue
50
what is the definition of inflammation
localized, protective response to injury or tissue destruction characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain
51
what is the definition of malignant
tending to become progressively worse, possibly resulting in death
52
what is the definition of prognosis (Px)
prediction of a possible outcome of a disease
53
what is the definition of radiation therapy (XRT)
treatment of cancer with radioactive substances, x-rays, and other forms of radiation
54
what is the definition of remission
lessening or absence of signs of disease
55
what is the definition of staphylococcus (pl. staphylococci) (staph)
bacterium that grows in a pattern resembling grape like clusters and can cause infections
56
what is the definition of streptococcus (pl. streptococci) (strep)
bacterium that grows in a pattern resembling twisted chains and can cause infections
57
what is the abbreviation of Bx
biopsy
58
what is the abbreviation of CA
cancer, carcinoma
59
what is the abbreviation of chemo
chemotherapy
60
wha is the abbreviation of Dx
Diagnosis
61
what is the abbreviation of lab
Laboratory
62
what is the abbreviation of mets
metastasis, metastases
63
what is the abbreviation for PATH
pathology
64
what is the abbreviation for Px
Prognosis
65
what is the abbreviation for staph
Staphylococcus, staphylococci
66
what is the abbreviation for strep
Streptococcus, streptococci
67
what is the abbreviation for XRT
radiation therapy
68
what is the definition of word root (wr)
core of the term; fundamental meaning.
69
what is the definition of suffix (s)
attached to the end of the word root and provides additional information
70
what is the definition of prefix (p)
attached to the beginning of the word root and provides additional information
71
what is the definition of combining vowels (cv)
vowel, usually an o, placed between two word roots and between a word root and a suffix
72
who created the first comprehensive disease classification system in the United States in 1869
American Medical Association (AMA)
73
What are the main reasons to use procedure coding
to justify medical services to insurance companies by correlating procedures to diagnosis, to collect statistics about the outcome and effectiveness of treatments, to help physicians and hospitals set fees based on the amount of time and skill required to provide a specific service
74
How often are level I codes updated
annually
75
who updates and publishes the CPT manual
The American Medical Association (AMA)
76
HCPCS level II codes include what services that are not in the CPT system and may not be covered by insurance
procedures, injections, and durable medical equipment
77
how often should updated codes books be purchased
every year
78
CPT manual contains codes which are usually how many digits long
5 digits
79
what is the first section of the Current Procedural Manual
Anesthesia
80
What is a modifier and how many digits are they
A modifier is an addition to a procedure code that indicated unusual circumstances related to the procedure, there are 2 digit modifiers
81
what pieces of information may be significant when choosing the correct code for a procedure
look up the procedure in the alphabetic index of a CPT manual or an online code system
82
What are the two types of CPT codes
stand-alone codes and indented codes
83
if a patient comes in for an exam and has an electrocardiogram done, per the physicians orders, is this bill under the examination or separately, under its own code
the bill would be under the examination
84
what types of services and providers would find their appropriate codes in the E/M section
A medical service could have been provided in the office, in a nursing home, in a hospital
85
define established patient
one who has been seen in the previous 3 years
86
define new patient
one who has not had services performed by any provider in the medical office in the previous 3 years
87
define inpatient
a patient who has been formally admitted to a health care facility
88
define outpatient
one who has not been admitted to a health care facility
89
what is a problem-focused history
one that addresses the chief complaint, with a brief history of the illness or problem
90
what is expanded problem-focused history
a review of systems that have to do with the chief complaint
91
what is a detailed history
if a patient has more complicated medical problems and/or multiple problems
92
what is comprehensive history
when a patient has a severe, acute medical condition or serious changed in a long-term condition
93
what is a panel
a panel is a group of laboratory tests
94
HCPCS level II codes are used primarily for items and services that do not have level I (CPT) codes, what are some examples of what these might be
supplies, materials, specific medications, ambulance services, and some procedures
95
Diagnosis coding was originally developed for what four purposes
to track disease processes, to classify the causes of death, to collect data for medical research, and to evaluate hospital service utilization
96
what organization originally published and still manages the international classification of disease
the World Health Organization (WHO)
97
what does the "9" stand for in ICD-9
9th revision
98
what does the 10 stand for in ICD-10
10th revision
99
what new features are in the ICD-10, compared to the ICD-9
more extensive information related to ambulatory care and managed care encounters , an expansion of injury codes, new combination diagnosis and symptom codes to decrease the need for two codes, an added sixth and seventh digit for some conditions, increased ability to locate and choose specific codes
100
what will happen if the care given does not correspond to the patient's disease
many insurance companies will reject a claim because the patient's diagnoses does not justify the procedures done for the patient
101
In the Tabular list of the ICD-10-CM manual, the codes are arranged in what way
Alphabetical order
102
what is a medical necessity
a term for health care that is reasonable and necessary for a patient based on evidence-based clinical standards of care
103
when coding, the MA has an obligation to do what?
verify that a procedure code is linked to the correct diagnosis code
104
what is upcoding?
when medical codes are misused in order to obtain a higher level of reimbursement than is allowed
105
if an office is found to practice upcoding, what could be their consequence
levy fines and penalties for failure to adhere to compliance with regulations for using correct codes on claims for reimbursements
106
what is downcoding
codes that do not reflect a high enough level of service
107
why is it important to ensure that what we report on our charges matches the medical record
mitigates risks and reduces the chance of a successful malpractice claim. A well-documented record serves as evidence of treatment and care, helping to alleviate liability concerns in the event of a claim.
108
what is capitation
paying a fixed amount per worker over a stated period of time for all necessary medical care
109
what organization first started capitation
Kaiser Permanente
110
what were the two programs created by the federal government to try and close the large gaps in medical coverage , who is covered under both
medicare and medicaid, elders
111
what is TRICARE, who does it cover
healthcare program for active duty service members , covers dependent spouses and children of active-duty military personnel
112
what is CHAMPVA, who does it cover
A companion program for veterans, covers dependent spouses and children of military veterans with service- connected disabilities
113
what is a group plan/group insurance, who does it cover
one insurance policy that covered a group of people, individuals and families
114
what is a premium
the amount of money paid by the consumer to purchase health insurance
115
what is a benefit
payment for a service covered by health insurance
116
what is a beneficiary
each individual covered by the health insurance plan
117
what is insured
the individual who has the insurance, but a family plan also covered dependents of the insured including a spouse and children
118
what is deductible
an amount of money that must be paid for services provided to an individual or a family member in a group plan every calendar year before any insurance payments
119
what is coinsurance
when a patient is responsible for a specific percentage of the allowed charges
120
what is a copayment
a fixed dollar amount that a patient is required to pay every time he or she obtains medical services or fills a prescription
121
what is primary insurance
if a person is covered by more than one insurance policy, the insurance to which the insurance claim is sent first
122
what is secondary insurance
provides additional insurance coverage
123
what is coordination of benefits
a term for the rules insurance companies use to coordinate the payments for medical services so that the amount paid by all insurance carriers for any service provided is never more than 100% of the charge
124
what type of household would follow these rules
individuals in households with two working adults make modifications in their benefits
125
briefly describe the 5 rules under coordination of benefits
Custodial parent rule
If parents are divorced or separated, the custodial parent's plan is usually the primary payer for their dependent children.
Continuation coverage rule
If you have continuation coverage and another plan, the continuation coverage plan is usually primary.
Longest plan rule
If no other rule applies, the plan you've been enrolled in the longest is usually primary.
Active/inactive rule
An active employee's plan is usually primary over a retired or laid off employee's plan.
Medicare rules
Medicare's primary status can depend on working status and group size. For example, Medicare is usually primary for people who are 65 or older and still working for an employer with fewer than 20 employees.
126
what is managed care
the movement to control health care costs while improving preventive care and is a general term for insurance. programs reimbursing care provided
127
define primary care provider (PCP)
a healthcare practitioner who provides most of the patient's care and also determines what other medical services the patient requires
128
in the original HMO concept , all medical care was provided for 1 year for a fixed premium, with no deductibles or coinsurance. what was the patient only responsible for
a fixed amount for each visit or prescription (copayment)
129
in this model, who acts as the gatekeepers before any referrals to specialists are approved
PCPs, physicians, nurse practitioners, and physician assistants
130
PPOs allows in and out of network services, at what cost is this to the patient though
these plans usually have deductibles and coinsurance or copayments
131
what is a point-of-service plan, it is a combination of what
combines an in-network plan that is an HMO with an additional out-of-network plan, it functions as a combination of an HMO and a PPO
132
what are the details of medicare part a, part b, part c, part d
part a - provides coverage for hospitalization services
part b - covers physician and other provider services
part c - medicare was expanded to provide more choice in the types of available plans in 1997
part d - adds a prescription drug benefit to the Original Medicare Plan
133
which part has a premium
part B
134
patients with original medicare can purchase additional insurance, known as medicare supplemental or medigap insurance , which is billed as a primary, medicare or the supplemental
the supplemental
135
only children enrolled in which government program can be enrolled into CHIP
Bipartisan Budget Act
136
what is tricare prime
an HMO-type plan available to service members, reservists, dependents, and some retirees
137
which summarizes the information on a patient's insurance card
insurance identification number
138
what is eligibility status and why is it so important to check prior to an office visit
determines whether the patient has health insurance coverage and will be able to receive health insurance benefits during the proposed time period ,
139
what is a referral
a referral is the directing of a patient to a medical specialist by a primary care physician
140
what type of services would a PCP complete a referral for a patient
to a physician who participates in the patient's managed care plan without prior authorization
141
on the lower lines of the claim form, there is information on the charges for services rendered, what information should be included for these charges
information about each procedure, the date of service, place of service, pointer to the procedure code, charge for the service, number of units being billed, and NPI number of the provider of each service
