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Medical Protocols Flashcards

1
Q

The EMT in the field is expected to follow protocols without deviations unless he or she receives a…

A

VERBAL ORDER FROM AN ON-LINE MEDICAL CONTROL PHYSICIAN

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2
Q

Personnel may perform only to the level that they are…

A

LOCALLY CERTIFIED

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3
Q

In protocols WITHOUT a medical control bar, all treatments may be given by_____, and it is unlikely personnel will receive orders for any other treatments if______

A

STANDING ORDER

MEDICAL CONTROL IS CONTACTED

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4
Q

Non-protocol orders may be requested, with justification by field personnel, or be______

A

INITIATED BY THE MEDICAL CONTROL PHYSICIAN

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5
Q

Care ordered by the Medical Control Physician not contained in specific protocols shall:

(LONG ANSWER) A, B, C

A

A. Follow rules promulgated under:
Texas Administrative Code, Title 25, Part 1, Chapter 157 (Emergency Medical care) Texas Health and Safety Code Chapter 773 (EMS and Trauma Systems)

B. BE WITHIN THE SCOPE OF THE EMT’S LOCAL LEVEL OF CERTIFICATION AS DEFINED BY EPFDEMS MEDICAL PROTOCOL SECTION 1- GENERAL #11 (UNIVERSAL PATIENT TREATMENT), AND PROTOCOL SECTION 1- GENERAL #10 (EPFDEMS MEDICATIONS)

C. Be documented in the Medical Control section of the electronic patient care report by EPFDEMS personnel. Med control section will include the Medical control Phy # giving the order, AND THE ORDER

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6
Q

Medical control responsibilities include being ____ to provide medical advice and ____ orders

A

AVAILABLE

TREATMENT

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7
Q

ROUTINE CAUSES FOR CONTACTING MED CONTROL

When advice, support or direction is needed regarding appropriate patient management and/ disposition_____

A

THE RIGHT TO CONTACT MED CONTROL IS NEVER DENIED.

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8
Q

ROUTINE CAUSES FOR CONTACTING MED CONTROL

Advanced Life support requiring Med control orders____

A

BELOW THE BAR

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9
Q

ROUTINE CAUSES FOR CONTACTING MED CONTROL

Pt refusing transport who appears to need med attention; Med Control should be called for____

A

“Physician ADVICE to PATIENT”

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10
Q

ROUTINE CAUSES FOR CONTACTING MED CONTROL

Physician Bystander____

A

ACCEPTING RESPONSIBILITY FOR PATIENT CARE

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11
Q

ROUTINE CAUSES FOR CONTACTING MED CONTROL

For Permission to DISCONTINUE_____ (LIFE SAVING)

A

RESUSCITATION ALREADY BEGUN

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12
Q

Med control must be contacted prior to discontinuing ANY____

A

ALS TREATMENTS (IV therapy, ECG monitoring, Med administration)

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13
Q

Communication failure- if standard radio contact cannot be initiated with med control____

A

Call dispatch (or any other recorded line) @ 832-4432
AND
Request a conference call to Med control at UMC

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14
Q

Unable to contract Med control for any reason? (lengthy explanation)

  1. and
    2.
A

May perform to the LIMITS of their LOCAL LEVEL OF CERTIFICATION
&
1. Paramedics auth to perform protocols below the bar which would normally require on-line med control IF the pt needs immediate therapy to prevent immediate death.

  1. If actions that require med control are not urgent, they should be deferred until comm is reestablished.
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15
Q

ALL circumstances which there is a failure of comm devices or other COMM equipment failure shall be reviewed BY

A

THE MED DIRECTOR

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16
Q

EPFD Personnel involved will NOTIFY____ as soon as practical after the inability to____

A

FIRE ADMINISTRATION

CONTACT MEDICAL CONTROL

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17
Q

ALL skills listed under ECA/EMT-Basic and EMT-Advanced may be performed by____ without______

A

STANDING ORDER

CONTACTING MEDICAL CONTROL

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18
Q

EMT-B skills that don’t require contacting Med control:

A
  1. Vital signs- including pulse ox and BGL
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19
Q

Spinal motion restriction that doesn’t require med control

4 Items

A

a. Rigid cervical collars
b. Backboards
c. extrication devices/ vests (KEDS)
d. cervical immobilization devices after patient is secured to backboard

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20
Q

Oxygen related items that can be used without contacting medical control

a. stable
b. Unstable/acute

A

a. Stable/ non-acute o2- 1-4 LPM via NC

b. unstable/acute o2- 8-15 LPM via Non-rebreather, BVM, or BAG VALVE TUBE of intubated pt’s at 100%

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21
Q

Lower flow rates of (?) may be used as long as bag remains x% full during______

A

8-10 LPM
50% full
Patient’s MAXIMUM Ventilatory effort

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22
Q

Positioning and suctioning for airway control don’t require

A

Contacting med control

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23
Q

Insertion of OPA or NPA airways don’t

A

Require contacting med control

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24
Q

Insertion of SUPRAGLOTTIC airway in medical or trauma or Cardiac arrest PT’s doesn’t

A

Require contacting med control

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25
Q

BVM or demand-valve for PPV doesn’t

A

Require contacting med control

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26
Q

Rapid PT extrication doesn’t

A

Require contacting med control

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27
Q

DOESN’T REQUIRE CONTACTING MED CONTROL

Application of____ to ISOLATED fractures of_____ or_____

A

Tractions splints
FEMUR
Tibia/Fibula

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28
Q

DOESN’T REQUIRE CONTACTING MED CONTROL

Electrical defibrillation with_____

A

Automated External Defibrillator (AED)

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29
Q

Stabilize and splint bone fractures and joint dislocations using (4 items)

A
  1. Board splints
  2. Wire or “ladder splints”
  3. Pliable metal or “SAM” splints
  4. Field-expedient means: Pillows or blankets, etc
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30
Q

DOESN’T REQUIRE CONTACTING MED CONTROL
Six meds/actions that don’t require med control
2(actions)
4 (meds)

A
  1. CPR
  2. Childbirth
  3. Admin of aspirin
  4. Oral Glucose
  5. Epi auto injector
  6. Admin of nebulized albuterol
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31
Q

Request for ambulance=

A

Considered a patient

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32
Q

Calls to 9-1-1 are not always intended to be an_______, although an ambulance may be dispatched (_______)

A

AMBULANCE REQUEST

Minor MVCs

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33
Q

If someone is not a legal adult (under the age of 18) they=

A

ARE a PATIENT

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34
Q

A person is NOT ALERT and ORIENTED to person, time, place, and event=

A

THEY ARE A PATIENT

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35
Q

Someone is a patient if they are under reasonable_____ of_____ or______ known or unknown.

A

SUSPICION
ALCOHOL
DRUG SUBSTANCE

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36
Q

If someone has signs or symptoms of an active medical illness or injury they=

A

ARE A PATIENT

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37
Q

If someone has a medical or psychological event=

A

THEY ARE A PATIENT

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38
Q

If someone suffers a trauma event (including a minor fall)

A

They are a patient

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39
Q

All patients MUST have a completed (2 items)

A

Patient Care Record
and/or
Patient refusal

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40
Q

If the involved party IS NOT a patient other responding Fire and Medical units will be____ and both_____ and ______ will need not be completed.

A

Cancelled
Patient Care RECORDS
Refusal FORMS

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41
Q

If there is any___, complete a_______ and/or______

A

DOUBT
Patient Care RECORD
REFUSAL

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42
Q

Level III patients___ attended by any EMT level crew member locally certified under the EPFDEMS Med director

A

May be

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43
Q

Level I and II patients____ attended by a Locally Certified EMT-Paramedic

A

MUST BE

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44
Q

If NO locally certified paramedic is available for any reason, the______ crew member will attend all level I or Level II patients

A

Highest locally certified

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45
Q

Although each individual is held responsible for his or her actions, the_________, is responsible for all patient care,_______ of who attends the patient

A

Highest locally certified crew member

REGARDLESS

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46
Q

A Physician on-scene can either be a ____ or a _____ in providing optimal care for a patient

A

Help

Hindrance

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47
Q

It is important to be______ (to an on-scene Physician)

A

Cordial

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48
Q

Who mediates disputes when there is an on-scene physician

A

Med control

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49
Q

When an ALS unit is dispatched under Medical direction a____

A

Physician/patient relationship is established.

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50
Q

The Pre-hospital provider on the scene is responsible for the management of the patient and acts as the

A

AGENT of the physician providing med control

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51
Q

Usual places for patient’s private physician (not in a public place ex. mall)

A

Physician’s office
Patient’s home
or Nursing home

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52
Q

If a private physician is on-scene and ASSUMES responsibility for pt care the Pre-hospital provider should____ to their orders_____ those orders_____ with the established protocols

A

DEFER
UNLESS
CONFLICT

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53
Q

You must request Private Physician to____ his or her____, with printed_____, _____, and ______ number

A 
document
orders
name
signature
DEA
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54
Q

The on-scene Physician’s orders will be FORWARDED TO (for what reason)

A

EPFDEMS Admin for attachment to Pt’s med record

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55
Q

On-line Med control Physician will be notified of the______ of the patient’s private physician

A

PARTICIPATION

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56
Q

If private physician’s orders conflict they shall be____

A

placed in communication with Med control

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57
Q

If med control and Private physician don’t agree the private Doc must either (two things)

A

Continue to provide direct pt care and accompany pt to the hospital
OR
Defer all remaining care to Med control

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58
Q

Med control or on-line med control shall assume responsibility for the pt at anytime when______

A

The pt’s private physician is not in attendance

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59
Q

Usual places for by-stander physician

A 
Public place( MVA, mall, etc)
Pt's home where a by stander or neighbor identifies themselves as a Doc
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60
Q

If a Doc is present and has satisfactorily ID’d themselves as a licensed Physician, and expressed they want to assume responsibility… (you should do what?)

A

A med control physician should be contacted

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61
Q

Med control is ultimately responsible for the patient unless and/or until (someone does what?)

A

The intervening Physician appropriately assumes responsibility of the patient

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62
Q

First thing

needed to ID an on scene physician

A
  1. Must verbally state that they are a MD or DO currently licensed to practice in Texas
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63
Q

Second thing that must be done for on scene physician to be ID’d
(one of the following three things)

A
  1. Visually ID’d by on-scene EMT
  2. Pic ID (driver’s license) with name confirmed by On line med control or dispatch
  3. Wallet copy of the medical licensure
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64
Q

Med control has three options when working with an intervenor physician

A
  1. Managing case exclusively
  2. Working with intervenor physician
  3. Allowing intervenor to assume complete control
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65
Q

If intervenor takes control all of their orders should be

A

Repeated to Med control for record keeping purposes

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66
Q 
Intervenor documentation should be done where?
(two options)
1.
or
2. with what info?
A

On Patient Care Record
OR
On a 8 1/2 by 11 paper with Phy’s printed name, sig, and DEA #

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67
Q

Intervenor’s orders will be forwarded to____ for______ to________

A

EPFDEMS Admin

attachment

Patient’s med records

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68
Q

If Intervenor decides not to accompany pt to hospital it has to be______

A

approved by on-line physician

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69
Q

Fire personnel will not___ from authorized_____ and Medical procedures

A

Deviate

Local SCOPE of practice

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70
Q

Absence of vital signs___ authorize EMT to ____ that the patient has expired

A

Does not

Asssume

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71
Q

Only a____, _______, ________, or ______ is legally authorized to pronounce death

A

LICENSED PHYSICIAN
DULY Authorized REGISTERED NURSE
Judge
Medical Examiner

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72
Q

In certain circumstances, however, death is obvious, and resuscitation efforts would be______and_____

A

FUTILE

INAPPROPRIATE

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73
Q

6 Things that are criteria for OBVIOUS DOS

A 
Decomposition
Decapitation
Hemi-Section
Incineration
Rigor Mortis
Dependent Lividity
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74
Q

OBVIOUS DOS
Victims in_____ secondary to________(signs of brain and heart destruction), and with NO SIGNS OF LIFE noted by bystanders or pre-hospital care workers, including absence of pulse and respirations

A

Cardiac arrest

OBVIOUS MORTAL INJURIES

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75
Q

OBVIOUS DOS

Extenuating circumstances- 4 examples

A

HAZMAT incident
Mass casualty incident
Prolonged extrication
Drowning victims under water for longer than one hour

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76
Q

Victims who were under water should be resuscitated IF

A

They were underwater for an undetermined amount of time OR LESS than ONE HOUR

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77
Q

If the first EPFDEMS unit makes pt contact and determines that it’s an obvious DOS criteria is present they will….

A

Cancel responding units

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78
Q

Once resuscitation has been started by ANYONE it may not be discontinued without….

A

Order from Med Control physician

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79
Q

Determined that obvious DOS (in absence of duly registered nurse or Physician), and death appears to be natural with no extenuating circumstances or signs of foul play____ (request one of two agencies/people)

A

Notify dispatcher to request the appropriate law enforcement agency OR Medical examiner to be dispatched to scene.

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80
Q

Leave the body and scene_____, complete_______ noting obvious death criteria met.

A

“as-is”

Patient Care Record

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81
Q

Advise the family members that _____ ___ and/or the ___ ___ have been notified and will respond. Don’t give an ETA.

A

Law enforcement

Medical Examiner

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82
Q

Fire unit may go ___ __ ______ and leave the scene

A

back in service

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83
Q

Fire comm will notify ___ _________ that the EPFD is leaving the scene a police response is still required to respond.

A

Law Enforcement

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84
Q

Any question regarding the circumstances of _____ or any signs of ___ ___exist, crews shall remain on scene, out of service, to protect evidence until the arrival of PD.

A

death

foul play

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85
Q

In order to terminate resuscitation efforts (age) patient must be

A

An Adult. >18

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86
Q

ALS length of care to terminate resuscitation (unwitnessed)

A

20 min

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87
Q

ALS length of care to terminate resuscitation (witnessed)

A

30 min

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88
Q

You can term resuscitation when this criteria is met? (Five items/actions)

A

A. observable rise and fall of chest
B. Auscultation of breath sounds
C. Absence of gastric sounds
D. Capnography

IV or IO access

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89
Q

EtCO2 of less than ______ with ______ chest compressions

In order to term resuscitation

A

20 mm hg

HIGH QUALITY

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90
Q

Termination of Resuscitation will not be done for (2 items)

A

Minors

Visibly pregnant patients

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91
Q

Termination of resuscitation will NOT occur with- Cardiac arrest associated with other circumstances (5 items)

A 
Overdose
Hypothermia
Toxicological exposure
Electrocution
Airway obstruction
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92
Q

Termination of resuscitation will not happen if (law enforcement related)

A

Patient is a victim of a crime

In Law enforcement custody

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93
Q

Termination of resuscitation will not occur when (2 items) Public places

A

In a crowded place (excluding nursing homes and extended care facilities)
If it would place personnel in danger

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94
Q

Termination of resuscitation will not be done if family

A

Does not accept termination

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95
Q

Avoid using euphemisms such as “Passed away”, “No longer with us”. Use terms such as….

A

Death, dying, or dead.

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96
Q

Avoid saying “I’m sorry” Use phrases like…

A

“You have my sympathy”

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97
Q

Chapter 672 of TEXAS ADMIN CODE (TAC), natural death act allows responding health care professionals to______ or ________

A

Withhold or discontinue the resuscitation of certain patients.

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98
Q

DNR=

A

Do NOT Resuscitate

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99
Q

DNR Identification devices State-approved_____ or_____ containing DNR symbol (______)

A

bracelet
necklace
any state

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100
Q

Number of Qualified relatives

A

Two persons if available

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101
Q

People who are QUALIFIED RELATIVES: 4 total

A

Patient’s spouse
Majority of pt’s adult kids
Patient’s parents
Patient’s nearest living relative

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102
Q

DPAHC

A

Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care

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103
Q

Proxy-

A

Person authorized to make treatment decisions for the patient.

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104
Q 
If patient has ONE of the following CPR and other life sustaining measures SHOULD NOT be initiated
a
b
c
d
e
A 
Single page with texas DNR in upper left hand corner if from Texas
Patient is correctly id'd on the form
All required sections are completed
All required sigs are present
Duplicate copies ARE considered valid
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105
Q

Presences of a state-approved, signed Out-of-Hospital DNR form,___ _____ = valid

A

Any state

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106
Q

DNR bracelet or necklace description
A
B
C

A

A. White plastic/ stainless steel with “Texas” or Texas shape with word “STOP” and words “DO NOT RESUSCITATE

B. Stainless steel 1” diameter disk on a 16” to 18” length of SS chain with “DO NOT RESUSCITATE” on it

C. Items will NOT be honored if not being worn by patient

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107
Q

Living wills and Power of Attorney are/are not considered valid DNRs?

A

ARE NOT

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108
Q

If there is any doubt of the validity DNR?

A

Life sustaining measures should be initiated until the discovery of a valid DNR or until pt is transferred to a higher level of care.

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109
Q

If patient with a DNR needs palliative care (define) what should you do?

A

Palliative- provide comfort

Follow standard protocols as directed by Med Control

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110
Q

____ stopping the resuscitation, rescuers should make clear to qualified relatives, proxy, or legal guardian(s) on scene that they are about to discontinue resuscitation efforts because of the DNR.

A

Before

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111
Q

If in Resp or Cardiac arrest, and resuscitation has_____ _____ ____ ______, and evidence is found of a state-issued Out-of-hospital-DNR order, the resuscitation should be_______

A

HAS ALREADY BEEN STARTED

DISCONTINUED

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112
Q

If there is_________, the DNR order is considered________ and resuscitation should continue.

A

OBJECTION

REVOKED

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113
Q

The discontinuation of resuscitation measures in the presence of a State-issued Out-of-Hospital DNR order ____ ______ require a _________ _______ order

A

DOES NOT

MEDICAL CONTROL

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114
Q

If a patient covered by a State-issued Out-Of-Hospital DNR order is_________, the Personnel transporting should make a ___________ ________ to bring the ________ form with the patient.
Don’t compromise the patient to secure the form.

A

Transported
REASONABLE EFFORT
ORIGINAL

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115
Q

If a patient covered by a State-issued Out-Of-Hospital DNR Order is being transported, and develops Cardiac or Respiratory Arrest_____ transport, personnel should______ life sustaining measures and _______ transport to the Emergency Department of the receiving hospital.

A

DURING
WITHHOLD
CONTINUE

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116
Q

DO NOT honor a DNR if (4 reasons)

A

Alterations to the form (something is marked through)
Patient is pregnant
You cannot conclusively match patient name to the form
There are unnatural or suspicious circumstances

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117
Q

ANY DNR order may be______ at ____time by the patient, legal guardian, proxy, or qualified relatives.

A

Revoked

ANY

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118
Q

The revocation will involve _________ of wishes to responding Health Care Professionals,______ of the form, and____ of all or any DNR identification devices the patient may possess.

A

COMMUNICATION
DESTRUCTION
REMOVAL

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119
Q

Patients will be transported to the_________ _________ facility

A

Closest

Appropriate

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120
Q

Based on their _____ level, _______ patients will be transported to the closest appropriate_______ facility.

A

ACUITY
TRAUMA
TRAUMA

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121
Q

In some instances, this (the closest appropriate facility) will not be the closest_______ _______

A

Emergency Department

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122
Q

As with Trauma, other hospitals are sometimes designated for specialized care in______, ______, ____ exams, and _______ capabilities etc

A

STEMI
Stroke
SSA
Hyperbaric

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123
Q

When two receiving facilities are____-______ from the scene, the patient’s ______ of the two will be honored as the transport decision.

A

Equi-distance

preference

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124
Q

Med control __ __ contacted for _____ orders when there is any ______, or a problem, with transporting the patient to the closest appropriate facility.

A

May be
Destination
question

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125
Q

Legally, the only patient who can be transported______ his/her____ is one who constitutes a_____ to him/herself or_______, or is________ incompetent (minor, mentally disabled, etc)

A 
Against
Will
Danger
Others
Legally
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126
Q

A patient who is alert and oriented to, _____, ______, ________, ______, and wished to refuse medical treatment, even for a very _______ condition, is ____ considered a danger to him/herself.

A 
Person
Place
Time
Events
Serious
NOT
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127
Q

A patient who has an _______ ________ status for any reason (________/______ ingestion, _____ injury, ______ state, _______ disability) may possibly be considered a danger to him/herself if he/she_____ treatment and transport.

A 
Altered Mental
Alcohol/Drug
Head
Postictal
Mental
Refuses
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128
Q

If a patient is a danger to him/herself or others/incompetent, does not want/consent to transport, and they require transport you should…
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Assure safety of crew. Struggling is to be avoided. Don’t enter violent situation without PD.
  2. Contact PD for restraint assistance
  3. For safety, PD should accompany crew members in Rescue.
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129
Q

The_____ agency has the________ of transport.

A

Custodial

Discretion

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130
Q

Destination is determined by patient’s ______ condition and ________ facility as specified by protocols.

A

Medical

Appropriate

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131
Q

If a patient’s condition does not______ a destination, then the agency’s requests will be______.

A

Specify

Honored.

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132
Q

Responders should always consider the ____ of the patient, _______, and responding________. ______ ________ will secure the scene ________ Medical responders enter.

A 
Safety
Community
Medical providers
Law Enforcement
BEFORE
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133
Q

The use of_____ is important to responders.

A

PPE

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134
Q

The donning of_____, _____. and ____ to mitigate a possible exposure _____ be used during contact with a ______ patient.

A 
Gloves
Goggles
Mask
SHALL
combative
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135
Q

With all_______, ________ _______ will be contacted and will________ the_______ process.

A

Restraining
Law Enforcement
complete
restraining

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136
Q

Restraints should only be used in situations where the patient is________ _____ or a behavior that may be deemed a _____ to ____ or others.

A

Potentially Violent

Self

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137
Q

Administering restraints should be completed in a _______ and _______ manner. The should not inflict more _______ or _______.

A

Humane
Professional
Pain
Injury

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138
Q

Provider should consider _______ ________ addressed in the _______ ______ protocol.

A

Medical Problems

Excited Delirium

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139
Q

Restraint shall allow the patient to be monitored for _____ ____ and other treatment. The method shall protected the _____, ________, ________ status and not to compromise ______ status of the patient.

A 
Vital Signs
Airway
Respiratory
Vascular
Neurologic
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140
Q

Restraining in the ______ position should be avoided.

A

Prone

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141
Q

If this process (Prone) is used it should be a ________ measure until______ is gained.

A

Temporary

Control

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142
Q

Patients should be placed in a ___ OR____ point______ position.

A

4
6
Restraint

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143
Q

4 to 6 point restraint=

A

Both wrists
Both ankles
Strap
Sheet above the knees

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144
Q

If backboard is Aux is used,___ careful attention to the _______ ______. Place_____ behind it_____ they become violent and begin striking their head on the board or the bar of the aux.

A

Pay
Patient’s head
Padding
IF

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145
Q

If the patient is in a______ position the patient should face the _____ ________, not the ______.

A

Lateral
FD Personnel
Wall

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146
Q

The use of the _____ can assist in the ______ of the patient over to the _____ _____ easier.

A

Board
Transferring
Hospital Bed

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147
Q

_____ restraints______ be used when possible over ______ restraints.

A

Soft
Should
Hard

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148
Q

List the 5 soft restraints

A 
Cravats
Sheets
Posey Vest
Velcro
Padded Leather
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149
Q

If Law enforcement has applied handcuffs (______ ______) __ __ cuff the patient to the _____.

A

Hard restraints
Do not
Stretcher

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150
Q

Law Enforcement_____ _______ the patient in the ambulance __ the handcuffs are applied.

A

Will accompany

If

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151
Q

EMS crews ____ have means of________ releasing any restraints, medical _____ or a _____.

A

Must
immediately
scissors
key

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152
Q

A patient should never be _____ or ________ with their arms and legs tied behind their backs.

A

“hobbled”

“hog tied”

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153
Q

The patient should be_______ restrained to the stretcher or______ by any means

A

Restrained

Sandwiched

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154
Q

Any type of restraint that would restrict the______, ______(_________) by direct pressure or hyperextension of the ________ wall= prohibited

A

Chest
Abdomen
Diaphragm
Chest

155
Q

No type of_____, ____ or object shall be placed over the patient’s______

A

Towel
Sheet
Face

156
Q

The use of a _______ ________ mask or shield may be used.

A

Loose fitting

157
Q

If a patient continues to struggle after proper restraints the Paramedic should consider_______ _______ ________

A

Chemical restraint protocol

158
Q

The responsibility of the patient will rest on the ______ _______ ________ individual

A

Highest medically trained

159
Q

Documentation of restraint use should be________

A

Thorough

160
Q

Ems personnel have a statutory obligation to report abuse of what ages?
(3 items)

A

Children ( under 18)
Elderly (65+)
Disabled persons (18+ and disabled)

161
Q

How long do you have to report the abuse of a child, elderly person, or a disabled person?

A

48 hours within encountering the patient/victim

162
Q

You may ______ delegate the reporting to anyone else (reporting abuse)

A

NOT

163
Q

Citations within the statue eliminate the usual “________ ________” restrictions that normally apply.

A

patient confidentiality

164
Q

Abuse hotline #1 - call prior to when?

A

1800-877-5300

Leaving your shift

165
Q

Abuse hotline #2- call prior to when?

A

1800-252-5400

Leaving your shift

166
Q

You may also report abuse to______

A

Any EPPD officer

167
Q

How to treat suspected abuse

A

Follow applicable protocols

Report suspicious and observations to receiving hospital physician and chain of command.

168
Q

“Suspected abuse”

If patient/caretaker refuse transport?

A

Call for PD assistance

169
Q

SSA protocol

_________ _________ is a priority after stabilizing life threatening injuries

A

Evidence preservation

170
Q

SSA protocol

Do not allow patient to wash _____, _____, or ________ ______ etc

A

Hands
Face
Brush Teeth

171
Q

SSA Protocol
If patient has changed clothes, original clothings should be transported in a ________ _____ if possible (_____ ______), for evidence preservation

A

paper bag

not plastic

172
Q

SSA Protocol

Reassure the patient that they are ____ ; provide _______ support as needed and appropriate.

A

Safe

Emotional

173
Q

SSA

Unstable SSA patients should be transported to

A

Closest appropriate facility

174
Q

SSA protocol
Stable patients will be transported to a _____ facility to complete forensic exam by a ______ ______ ______ ______ (_____)

A

SSA
Sexual Assault Nurse Examiner
SANE

175
Q

SSA
Patient should be advised of the importance of being evaluated at a ______ designated facility for ______ examination as well as preservation of forensic evidence.

A

SSA

Adequate

176
Q

SSA

When transmitting patient report; refer to patient of this nature as ____ or_____

A

SSA

Code 5

177
Q

Indications of Supraglottic airway

A

Respiratory Arrest
Cardiac Arrest
After attempts at intubation are unsuccessful in a pulseless arrest
Difficult airway anticipated and rapid airway control is necessary

178
Q

Supraglottic airway contraindications- 7 things

A

Ability to maintain oxygenation and ventilation with a less invasive method
Intact gag reflex
Known esophageal disease
Ingestion of caustic substance
Tracheotomy or laryngectomy
Suspected foreign airway obstruction
Patient isn’t within the appropriate size chart

179
Q

Surpaglottic airway steps (first 4 steps)

A
  1. Proper PPE
  2. Select appropriate size
  3. Test cuffs prior to insertion
  4. Lubricate only lower cuffs with water soluble lube- don’t lube over anterior openings
180
Q

Head position for supraglottic airway
Medical
Trauma

A

Medical- sniffing/ slight cervical hyperextension

Trauma- in line spinal immobilization

181
Q 
Confirm supraglottic airway placement  by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A

Auscultation
Chest movement
Capno
Waveform capno

182
Q

King size 4-5 ft= size___ at ___-____ ML

A

3

45-60 ML

183
Q

King size 5-6 ft= Size__ at ___-___ML

A

4

60-80 ML

184
Q

6+= size_ at ___-___ ML

A

5

70-90

185
Q

Removal of king airway if:

A

Can’t be tolerated by patient

Airway is no longer patent and can no longer be adequately ventilated

186
Q

King removal 5 steps

A
  1. Place head in neutral position
  2. Have suction available
  3. Deflate cuffs completely
  4. Open mouth using scissor technique
  5. In one motion, smoothly slide King airway out.
187
Q

With exception of____,_____,______, and ________ medications are for advanced or Paramedics.

A 
Oxygen
Aspirin
Oral Glucose
Epi-pen
Albuterol
188
Q

Applicable _______ _______/_____________ protocols allow admin of certain meds by _______ under the direction and ____ of a paramedic or_______

A 
Hazardous material
Mass casualty incident
EMT-Bs
supervision
Medical control physician
189
Q

Auto Pulse resuscitation system provides _____-____ automated CPR to victims of sudden cardiac arrest. The auto pulse has been shown to reduce_____ in the _____ during transport.

A

High-quality
Interruptions
Compressions

190
Q

Autopulse- initial care

A

Current AHA CPR basic life support guidelines

191
Q

Auto-pulse

Patient chest circumference permitted?

A

29.9-51.2 inches

192
Q

Auto-pulse

Patient chest width permitted?

A

9.8- 15 inches

193
Q

Auto pulse

Maximum patient weight permitted?

A

300 lbs.

194
Q

Auto pulse

Age usage?

A

18 years and older

195
Q

Auto pulse

Contraindications?

A

In cardiac arrest with Traumatic injuries

Under 18

196
Q

Auto pulse
Step 1
Expose patient’s____ by removing all clothing. CPR ______ pad and ______ pads applied to chest while performing _______ CPR.

A

Chest
Feedback
Defribillator
Manual

197
Q

Auto pulse
Step 2
Turn on auto pulse and _____ it above the patient’s_____ on the ground using the ____ on the auto pulse.

A

Align
Head
Guides

198
Q

Auto pulse
Step 3
Sit up patient and_____ auto pulse into position and putting patient on the auto pulse ______ the patient’s _______ with the _____ ____, making sure the patient is _____ on the auto pulse.

A 
Slide
Aligning
Airpits
Yellow line
Centered
199
Q

Auto pulse
Step 5
Press the bands______ to ____ and secure the velcro fastener. Give a gentle ____ to the life band to ______ extend it while placing it over the patient’s______.

A

Together
Engage
Pull
Fully

200
Q

auto pulse

Warning- do not…

A

Touch the patient or the life band while auto pulse platform is analyzing the patient’s size.

201
Q

Auto pulse

After a ___ second pause, verify ______ and ____, compressions will start_______ at 30 to 2 ratio.

A

3
Alignment
Size
Compressions

202
Q

Auto pulse

Turning off steps

A

Stop/Cancel followed by On/Off.

203
Q

Auto pulse

Stop/Cancel button does what?

A

Cease the compression cycles and relax the life band.

204
Q

Auto pulse
Do not _____ life band ____ removing it. _____ the life band may cause the auto pulse to report a ____ and will require specific steps to clear the fault.

A

Cut
Before
Cutting
Fault

205
Q

Level I medical- airway

A

Compromised or uncorrectable

206
Q

Level I- Breathing

A

Signs or symptoms of acute respiratory distress

207
Q

Level I- Circulation

A

Signs or symptoms of shock or impending shock

208
Q

Level I- Disability
Any presenting sign or_____ that in your____ judgement is highly suspicious of ______ mortality OR (Will list these in other cards)

A

Symptom

Best

209
Q

Depressed level of consciousness =

A

Level I

210
Q

Level 1 hypertension

A

Systolic ABOVE 220

Diastolic ABOVE 120

211
Q

Level 1 Hypotension

A

Systolic BELOW 90

212
Q

Level 1 brady or tachycardia

______ by any other ______ indicator

A

Accompanied

Unstable

213
Q

Abnormal respiratory rate, depth, and/or effort; abnormal lung sounds=

A

Level 1

214
Q

_____or Cyanotic skin=

A

Level 1

215
Q

_______ not associated with a hot environment=

A

Diaphoresis

Level 1

216
Q

______ (or similar)____ pain with or without accompanied radiation, nausea, sense of____ doom, or_____=

A

Crushing
Similar
Denial

Level 1

217
Q

Stroke/TIA signs and symptoms within _____ hours of last seen normal with a positive ___ ______ ____ _______. (_______)

=

A

24 hours
Pre-hospital Stroke Assessment
Code Brain

218
Q

Level 2
_____ lights and sirens to the ______ appropriate facility with the __________ of that hospital’s____ to care for the patient.

A

Without
Closest
Consideration
Ability

219
Q

Level 2
___ medical emergency with ___ vital signs having a significant medical history, and _____ of the indicators for an ______ patient.

A

Any
Stable
None
unstable

220
Q

Level 2

___ patient with a ____ index of _____.

A

Any
High
Suspicion

221
Q

Level 2
_____ med control for _____ to upgrade to ____ and ____ with the patient remaining a Level 2 to the _______ appropriate______

A 
Contact
Permission
Lights
Sirens
Closest
Facility
222
Q

Level 3

Transport_____ lights or siren to the patient’s ______ of ______ following the _____ transport policy.

A

Without
Facility
Choice
Current

223
Q

Level 3
Criteria: ____ patient with no _______ Medical_______ and non-______ medical complaint; ___ medical patient who does not meet _____ 1 or ____ criteria

A 
Stable
Significant
History
emergency
Any
Level 
II
224
Q

The ______ patient with no _____ ____ requires ______ protection.

A

Unconscious
Gag
Reflex
Airway

225
Q

O2 sats at _____ may warrant______ intervention with ______ administration with ventilatory ______ with the goal to maintain spO2 of ___ to ___.

A 
<85%
Immediate
100%
assistance
93%
99%
226
Q

OPA should be used on all patients______ a gag reflex

A

Without

227
Q

Maintain a good seal, with______ from other_______ ______

A

Assistance
Crew
Members

228
Q

ETCo2 normal values=

A

35-45 mgHg

229
Q

A supraglottic airway may be inserted by _____ skill levels. (The use of Colorimetric is____ if no ______ is available)

A

Any
Mandatory
ETCo2

230
Q

____ attempts may be made to insert a ________ airway

A

Two

Supraglottic

231
Q

Secure____ ______ and ______ strap before_____ the patient. Follow the commands of Auto Pulse as given.

A

Shoulder
Straps
Waist
Moving

232
Q

The auto pulse has a _________ mode that will give __________ without pause when an ________ airway is in place.

A

Continuous
Compressions
Advanced

233
Q

After either a_________ resuscitation or ________ of activities, press the ______/______ button followed by the___/___ button. The _____/_____ button will cease the compression cycle and relax the life band. The ____/___ button action will power down the auto pulse.

A 
Successful
Termination
Stop/Cancel
On/Off
Stop/Cancel
On/Off
234
Q

Open the_____ fastener and ____ or _____ roll the patient ____ the auto pulse platform, as necessary.

A

Velcro
Lift
Log
Off

235
Q

Discard the life band as it is a ______- use component. Treat the life band as ________ medical_____ and dispose of it accordingly.

A

Single
Contaminated
Waste

236
Q

Alt Mental Status

Inappropriate response to ____ or ______ stimuli

A

Verbal

Physical

237
Q 
*Alt mental status*
Hypo/Hyper\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Hypo/Hyper\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Hemi\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Fever
OD
A

Glycemia
Thermia
paresis

238
Q

Alt mental status

Check ____ and _____ pulses

A

Central

Peripheral

239
Q

Alt mental status

____ OD or Drug ___________, contact_______ control

A

Drug
Paraphernalia
Poison

240
Q

Anaphylaxis

Position patient ____-_____ position (_______), IF conscious.

A

Semi-Fowler

Reclined

241
Q

Anaphylaxis

If patient is _____, place supine with _______ elevated.

A

Unconscious

Legs

242
Q

Anaphylaxis

Attempt to _______ allergen affecting patient.

A

Ascertain.

243
Q

Anaphylaxis

If patient is exhibiting signs/symptoms of _____ allergic reaction, to include ______ distress, and/or _____, contact ______ ______ for possible _________ auto-______ administration.

A 
Severe
Respiratory
Shock
Medical Control
Epinephrine
Injector
244
Q 
*Anaphylaxis*
 Adult- 0._ 
_:\_\_\_
Pediatric- 0.\_\_
_:\_\_\_\_
A
  1. 3
    1: 1000
  2. 15
    1: 2000
245
Q

CO

CO is a ______, odorless, ______ gas by product of most _____ reactions

A

Colorless
Invisible
Combustion

246
Q

CO
Indication- CO screening should be performed on all ______, _______, and _____ staff during rehab. Be aware of those in ________ to the event. I.e _____ and all_____ of the buildings with CO detector activations.

A 
Patients
Firefighters
Command
proximity
Police
occupants
247
Q

CO

Symptoms- 9 total

A 
Headache
Dizziness
Weakness
Vomiting
SOB
Chest Pain
Palpitations (tachypnea) Nausea
May describe flu like symptoms
Confusion/alt mental status
248
Q

CO
______ patient(s) and all_____ from area to _____ air
Obtain an _____ of______ time, if possible

A 
Evacuate
Personnel
Fresh
Estimate
Exposure
249
Q

CO

Support ___’s _____ flow _____ via____

A

ABC’s
High
Oxygen
MNR

250
Q

CO
CO poisoning typically will yield normal _______ _______ levels, despite _________ intoxication. Treatment should ____ be guided in any way by readings obtained.

A

Pulse Oximetry
Significant
NOT

251
Q

CO
Measure SpCO level (available on _____ and ______)
When using SpCo monitoring attention to ____ probe _______ and _____ from light will ____ accuracy of measuring SpCO levels.

A 
Battalions
LifePak 15
Proper
Placement
Shielding 
Improve
252
Q

CO

If ___ is altered in any way, measure ___ _____ _____ with ________.

A 
LOC
Blood 
Glucose 
Level
Glucometer
253
Q

CO

<3%=

A

No Further evaluation of SpCO required
&
Transport is the Patient’s prerogative.

254
Q

CO

SpCO 3%-10%

A

If noted as a smoker this may be normal for them.

Transport- Assess for signs and symptoms. Symptomatic/Asymptomatic and should be medically evaluated.

255
Q

CO

>3% greater than 25%

A

With LOC, neurological impairment admin high flow 02, consider CPAP if Avail.

Transport to a hospital with HBO (Hyperbaric Oxygen)
Level 1

256
Q

CO

>3 but less than 25%

A

Not exhibiting decreased levels of consciousness or neurological impairment admin high-flow O2.
Monitor for other signs of CO poisoning.

Transport- Level 2 to the closest appropriate facility.

257
Q

CO

>15%

A

Prenant patients with SpCO reading of greater than 15%, even if asymptomatic, administer high flow O2.

Level 1 medical- transport to hospital with HBO- Hyperbaric oxygen.

258
Q

Diabetic

History of _____ excess: ,_____ missed meal, _____, vomiting or______

A

Insulin
overdose
exercise
Diarrhea

259
Q

Diabetic

Respirations- 3 items

A

Shallow, slow, or snoring

260
Q

Diabetic

What do you do about 02?

A

Provide 02, monitor Sats

261
Q

Diabetic

BGL of

A

60

Symptomatic

262
Q

Diabetic

If patient is____ and able to swallow with an ____ ___ reflex administer 1 ___ of instant glucose or _____ ________

A 
Alert
Intact
Gag
tube
Sugar Substitute
263
Q

Excited Delirium

Patients that are hyper _______ with _______ behavior and are _______ to pain, combative, hyper___, and _____cardic

A 
Aggressive
Bizarre 
Impervious
Hyperthermic
Tachycardic
264
Q

Excited delirium
Patient’s are typically in a struggle with _____ _________ that involves physical, ______ chemical (tear gas, _____) or ECD use (_____) followed by a period of ____ and sudden _____.

This is a _________ emergency!

A 
Law enforcement
Noxious
Mace
Taser
Quiet
Death
Medical
265
Q

Excited delirium

If patient is ________- apply ____ packs to neck, ______ and _____ or cooling with water, ______ (do not promote______)

A 
Hyperthermic
Cold
Axilla
groin
fanning
266
Q

Hyperglycemia
Patients with hyperglycemia may progress to _______ __________ (___) that may cause severe ______ and Metabolic _________.

A

Diabetic Ketoacidosis
DKA
Dehydration
Acidosis

267
Q

Hyperglycemia

Pulses: ______cardic and _____ pulses

A

Tachycardic

Thready

268
Q

Hyperglycemia

Respirations=

A

Kassmaul

269
Q

Hyperglycemia
Patient may present with ____tension, dry ______ membranes, skin may be___ (consider ____thermia), and a _____ odor (fruity smell)

A 
Hypotension
mucous 
Cool
Hypothermia
Ketone
270
Q

Hyperglycemia
Other symptoms may be ______ pain, nausea, vomiting, poly_____ which is excessive ______, and poly____ which is excessive _____. Along with sustained _____ glucose levels.

A 
Nausea
Polyuria
Urination
Polydipsia 
Urination
Elevated
271
Q

Hyperglycemia

As a basic you can evaluate _____ status, administer ______ and _____ oxygen saturations, and check ____.

A

Mental
Oxygen
Monitor
BGL

272
Q

Hyperglycemia

A patient is considered hyperglycemic if they are >___mg/dl and _________

A

250

Symptomatic

273
Q

Hypertension & Hypertensive Crisis
Assess for _______ of breath, _______ mental status, ______ headache, ______ (nose bleed), ______ (ringing ears), change in ______ acuity, ______, ECG_____, Nausea, and ______.

A 
Shortness
Altered
Vertigo
Epistaxis
Tinnitus
Visual
Seizure
Changes
Vomting
274
Q

Hypertension & Hypertensive Crisis
BLS- ___’s per patient’s ____, ______ monitoring, _____ signs, and there is epistaxis ____ to stop by______ nostril or _____ clip.

A 
ABC
needs
Glucose
Vital
Attempt
Pinching
Nose
275
Q

Hyperthermia

____ cooling is essential

A

Rapid

276
Q

Hyperthermia

Three types of heat emergency=

A

Heat Cramps
Heat Exhaustion
Heat Stroke

277
Q

Hyperthermia
Any heat related condition with a temp of >___ F or ____C or any _____ _____ of ________ should be treated as heat stroke and transported ______.

A 
104 
40
Altered 
Level 
Consciousness
Rapidly
278
Q

Hyperthermia

Remove patient to a _____, _____ area.

A

Cool

Shaded

279
Q

Hyperthermia
Remove patient’s ______ and cool patient with wet _____; low-pressure ____ ______ may be used to continually re-___ the patient.

A 
Clothing
Sheets
Water 
Hoses
wet
280
Q

Hyperthermia

Manually __ the patient to promote cooling by ________.

A

Cool

Evaporation

281
Q

Hyperthermia

Apply ____ packs to, ____, axilla, and _____.

A

Cold
Neck
Groin

282
Q

Hyperthermia

DO NOT ____ __ ____. Dangerous reversal to ______ may occur.

A

Pack in Ice

Hypothermia

283
Q

Hypothermia and Frostbite

Hypothermia core body temp BELOW___ and ___ celcius

A
  1. 0

35. 0

284
Q

Hypothermia and Frostbite

Mild hypothermia= ___ to ____ F and ___ to ____ C.

A

95
90
35
32

285
Q

Hypothermia and Frostbite

Moderate Hypothermia is ___ to ___ F and ___ to ___ C

A

90.0
82.0
32
28

286
Q

Hypothermia and Frostbite

Severe hypothermia is

A

82

28

287
Q

Hypothermia and Frostbite

If a patient is not in _____ arrest, and they have adequate respirations _____ handling could cause _____ arrest.

A

Cardiac
Rough
Cardiac

288
Q

Hypothermia and Frostbite
A patient who isn’t in cardiac arrest with adequate respirations should be _______ to a _____ environment, have _____ clothing removed, _____ in dry blankets, and have their ____ covered and _____ against further heat loss.

A 
Moved
Warm
wet
covered
head
insulated
289
Q

Hypothermia and Frostbite
Frostbite injuries should be handled as follows: _____ remove _____ from injured part, _____ injured part from ____, trauma, and ______. Loosely _____ injured parts with _____ sterile dressing.

A 
Gently
Clothing
Protect
Pressure
Friction
Cover
Dry
290
Q

Hypothermia and Frostbite

Do not ____ or ___ a frostbitten area. Do not attempt __-______ of the injured part.

A

Massage
Rub
Re-warming

291
Q

Hypothermia and Frostbite
Cardiac arrest with respirations less than 5 per minute.
Ventilate _____ at _-__ per minute.
Basic BLS with application of ___.
After first ____ (if given), ______ use of AED, and proceed with BLS and CPR only.
Continued _________ is contraindicated in acute hypothermia.

A 
Slowly
8-10
AED
Shock
Discontinue
Defibrillation
292
Q

Nausea and vomiting

Criteria- Nausea, ______ vomiting or those ______ vomiting after arrival with no other ______ or _____.

A

Prolonger
Actively
Symptoms
Complaints

293
Q

Nausea and vomiting
Assess and support ___’s
Oxygen and airway _____ to maintain Sp02 of at least __%
Place patient is position of _____. ______ ______ recumbent position, or ____ with legs elevated with ____ at hips unless ______ compromise or ____________.
Asses ___ and treat for _______ if protocol is met

A 
ABC
Maintenance 
94
Comfort
Left
Lateral
Supine
Flexion
Respiratory
Contraindicated
BGL
Hypoglycemia
294
Q

Near Drowning
Info needed: Description and ______ of fluid in which submerged.
_____of time submerged. More than ____ hour = refer to obvious DOS protocol.
Those _____ than ___ hour or ______ time should be ________.
Note _____ and type of _____. Consider a diving incident.
Possibility of _____ or _____/medication consumption.

A 
Temperature
Note
One
Less
One
Unknown 
Resuscitated
Depth
Type
Alcohol
Drug
295
Q

Near Drowning
Airway management- ______, oral, ______, suction
Lung sounds: ___- or signs of _______ edema, ________ distress.
_____ spine ______ to removing patient from ______
Wet clothing should be ____. Keep patient ___ and _____.

A 
Ventilations
Nasal
Rales
Pulmonary 
Respiratory
Stabilize 
Prior
Water
Removed
Warm 
Dry
296
Q 
**Respiratory**
BLS steps
\_\_\_\_\_ patient in a \_\_\_\_\_ of comfort
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Oxygen as \_\_\_\_
The goal is patient care is to reach an Oxygen sat of \_\_\_
A

Place
Position
Administer needed
96%

297
Q

Respiratory

Caution- High _______ of _____ may suppress the COPD patient’s _______ to an ________ level.

A

Concentrations
Oxygen
Respirations
Inadequate

298
Q

Respiratory
COPD- Cautions
Be prepared to ________ ventilations but __ ____ decrease oxygen ________.

A

Assist
DO NOT
Concentrations

299
Q

Respiratory
COPD cautions
______ withhold oxygen from a ______ patient.
The goal of patient care for a COPD patients is to reach an oxygen saturation of __-__%

A

NEVER
Hypoxic
88-92%

300
Q

Respiratory
If a patient has a ______ and _____ inhaler, you may ____/____ them to take puffs as prescribed. (some patients may have _____ puffs prescribed)

A 
Prescribed 
Unexpired
Assist
Allow
Several
301
Q

Respiratory

Be prepared to assist _______ with ___ for patients who are ______ (__resp/min)

A 
Ventilations
BVM
Bradypnic
10
Tachypnic
30
302
Q

Seizures
Assess and support ___s
Airway management, o2, Pulse ox, and maintain sats of >__%
__ ___ force anything between ____.
Anticipate ______
Protect patient from injury. ____ hazardous objects away from patient and protect ____ and _____ spine from injury.

A 
ABC
94%
DO NOT
Teeth
Vomiting
Move
Head 
Cervical
303
Q

Seizure
__ ___ forcefully ____ an actively seizing patient.
Protect _-____ if patient fell.
If no trauma, place patient is position of ____, or ___ _____ ____ position.

A 
Do not
Restrain
C-Spine
Comfort
Left Lateral Recumbent
304
Q

Seizure

If pediatric patient with temperature >___._ (__ C) provide supportive care and ______ cooling by ______ the patient.

A

100.4
38
Passive
Undressing

305
Q

Seizure

If patient is actively seizing for _ or more minutes, look for a history (Trauma,____, Pregnancy, _____ ________)

A

5
COPD
Severe Hypertension

306
Q

Sepsis

Recent surgery __ __ days

A

<10

307
Q

Sepsis
Symptom
Cough with thick _______

A

Sputum

308
Q 
**Sepsis Symptom**
#s
Temp >\_\_\_ F (\_\_ C) 
or \_\_
Resp >\_\_
Systolic
A 
101 
38
96.8
36
90
20
90
65
309
Q

Sepsis

O2 saturation >__%

A

94

310
Q

**Asthma*

Status _______ is an acute exacerbation of asthma that does not respond to standard treatments of ________ and _______

A

Asthmaticus
Bronchodilators
Steroids

311
Q

**Asthma*

Approx ___,___ deaths _____ worldwide due to ______.

A

250,000
Annually
Asthma

312
Q

Asthma

Goal for for patient care is to reach a 02 sat of __%

A

96%

313
Q

Asthma
Symptoms include wheezing, _____ __ _____, _____ tightness, and coughing. Other possible signs include _____ and cyanosis.

A

Shortness of breath
Chest
Retractions

314
Q

Asthma

Sats for a patient with COPD=

A

88-92%

315
Q 
*Asthma*
Patient can be admin'd Albuterol:
Between ages of _ and \_\_
Physician \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ history of asthma 
Been prescribed a \_\_\_\_-\_\_\_\_ before
Is \_\_\_\_\_ and/or \_\_\_\_\_ of \_\_\_\_\_.
A 
5-70
Diagnosed
Beta-agonist
Wheezing
Short of breath
316
Q

Asthma
If patient has a previous ______ history (Angina, AMI, HF, Dysrhythmias) contact ___ ______ for authorization to admin ________.

A

Cardiac
Med Control
Albuterol

317
Q

Asthma

Nebulized albuterol may be admin’d _____ for a total of _____ doses if condition does not improve.

A

Twice

3

318
Q

Stroke

Symptom- Unusual or severe _____ or ____ pain.

A

Neck

Face

319
Q

Stroke

Aphasia/Dysphasia=

A

Unable to speak, slurred speech, or difficulty speaking

320
Q

Stroke

Sensory loss to ___ or ___ limbs

A

One

More

321
Q

Stroke

Ataxia= 3 things

A

Poor balance
Clumsiness
Difficulty walking

322
Q

Stroke

Non-traumatic, visual ______/____ (_____ effect)

A

Disturbance
Loss
Curtain

323
Q

Stroke

O2 sats =

A

> 94%

324
Q

Stroke

Position patient with ___ and ___ elevated to __ degrees, or in ______ of ______.

A

Head
Chest
30
Position of comfort

325
Q

Stroke

Focus history= last ___ seen ______ signs/symptoms

A

Time

without

326
Q

Stroke

Protect ________, if noted __________, evaluate body temperature.

A

Extremeties

hemiparesis

327
Q

Level 1 trauma
Airway: Obstruction and/or _______
Respiratory rate: Respiratory ______, or Respiratory _____ of __/min
Systolic:

A 
Intubation
Compromise
Rate
10
29
90
13
328
Q

Level 1 trauma Pedi

Respiratory rate

A

20
1
Ventilator

329
Q

Level 1 Pedi

Systolic < 70+ (_x___)

A

2

Age

330
Q

Level 1

All penetrating injuries to the:

A 
Head
Neck
Torso
Groin
Extremities proximal to the Knee or Elbow
331
Q

Level 1

Chest wall deformity/instability=

A

Flail chest

332
Q

Level 1

Limb ________

A

Paralysis

333
Q

Level 1

Amputation ______ to the ____ or _____

A

Proximal
Wrist
Ankle

334
Q

Level 1

Pelvic _____

A

Fractures

335
Q

Level 1

Open or ______ skull _____

A

Depressed

336
Q

Level 1

C____, De-______, or _______ pulseless extremity

A

Crushed
De-gloved
Mangled

337
Q

Level 2 Trauma

____ mechanism of injury and the _____ of ____-energy impact. Transport to trauma center ______ lights and sirens

A

Assess
Evidence
High
Without

338
Q

Level 2 trauma
Contact ______ _____ for permission to upgrade to _____ and ____ with the patient remaining at the level II status for the _____ appropriate ______ hospital.

A 
Medical Control
Lights 
Sirens
Closest
Trauma
339
Q

Level 2 trauma- Burns

__ Degree burns= involve the ____ (including ears), ____, feet, ____, perineum or ______ joints.

A 
2nd
Face
Hands
Genitalia
Major
340
Q

Level 2 trauma- burns
>__% total BSA
&
___ degree burns

A

10

3rd

341
Q

Level 2 trauma- falls

_____ falls greater than ___ ft (1 story = __ft)

A

Adult
20
10

342
Q

Level 2 trauma- falls

Children falls >__ or __ times the height of the child

A

10

2

343
Q

Level 2 trauma- high risk auto crash
Intrusion, including_____ >__ inches occupant site > __ inches ___ site in the occupants (_______) compartment.
Ejection (_____ or ______) from vehicle
______ in the same passenger compartment
Vehicle ______ data consistent with high risk of injury

A 
Roof
12
18
any
Interior
Full
Partial
Death
Telemetry
344
Q

Level 2 trauma

____ versus pedestrian/bicyclist thrown, run over, or with significant (>__) impact.
Motorcycle collision > __ MPH

A

Vehicle
20
20

345
Q

Level 3 trauma

_____ patient not meeting Level 1 or 2 criteria.

A

Stable

346
Q

Considerations for transporting patient to a trauma center
Older adults: ____ of death increases after __
SBP

A 
Risk
55
110
65
Low
Ground 
Severe
347
Q

Trauma Special considerations

Children ____ be triaged ________ to a pediatric _____ trauma center.

A

Should
Preferentially
Capable

348
Q

Trauma- anti-coagulation and bleeding disorders

Watch those with head injuries for ______ deterioration.

A

Rapid

349
Q

Trauma & burns

Burns with trauma mechanism triage to ________ trauma facility

A

Appropriate

350
Q

Department Protocol
___ patients will be transported Level 2 or Level I for a ____ drowning. If physiological ____ or ____ are present. Transport to the appropriate ______ designated hospital.

A 
All
Near
Signs
Symptoms
Trauma
351
Q

Abdominal Trauma

If evisceration is present, ____ with ____ dressing _____ with sterile normal saline and _____ loosely in place.

A

Cover
Sterile
Moistened
Bandage

352
Q

Abdominal Trauma

__ ____ attempt to replace protruding ____ into abdominal cavity.

A

Do Not

Tissue

353
Q

**Burns: Thermal, Chemical, Electrical and Inhalation Injuries*
Ensure _____ process is _____
The use of ____ water or _____ ______ solution and the removal of any smoldering ______ should be applied if indicated.

A 
Burning
Stopped
Tepid 
Normal 
Saline
Clothing
354
Q

**Burns: Thermal, Chemical, Electrical and Inhalation Injuries*

Do not ___ ___ clothing that is ____ to a burn, ___ around it.

A

Pull Away
Stuck
Cut

355
Q

**Burns: Thermal, Chemical, Electrical and Inhalation Injuries*
Look for evidence of _______ injury.
(H_______, S______, So___ S____, F____ B___, or singed Nasal or Facial hair.

A 
Inhalation
Hoarseness
Stridor
Sooty Sputum
Facial Burns
356
Q

**Burns: Thermal, Chemical, Electrical and Inhalation Injuries*
__ ____ use the __________ airway in a patient with Thermal or Chemical airway injury. If airway management is indicated, ____________ airway is the preferred adjunct.

A

Do Not
Supraglottic
Orapharengeal

357
Q

**Burns: Thermal, Chemical, Electrical and Inhalation Injuries*
Remove J____, B____, S____ from burn areas.
Apply a ____ sterile ____, clean or ______ sheet to burned area.
Keep _____ intact.
Monitor to prevent _______
Estimate burn size with ______

A 
Jewelry 
Belts
Shoes
Dry
Dressing
Sterile
Blisters
Hypothermia
Rule of Nines
358
Q

**Burns: Thermal, Chemical, Electrical and Inhalation Injuries*

Second Degree burns- transport any patient with >__% BSA and burns involving the F___, (including ears), h___, f___, g____, p____, or major ____ associated with trauma to a _____ center as a level___.

A 
10
Face
Hands
Feet
Genetalia 
Perineum 
Joints
Trauma
Two
359
Q

Chemical Burns
_____ contaminated clothing
____ area immediately with ______ amounts of water. Use s_____, g____ h____, or low pressure Fire Suppression app if necessary.

A 
Remove
Flush
Copious
Shower
Garden Hose
360
Q

Chemical Burns
If ___ are affected, have patient remove C____ L____ if present and irrigate with _____ amount of _____ water or ____ at the scene and _____.

A 
Eyes
Contact Lenses
Copious
Sterile
Saline
Enroute
361
Q

Chemical Burns
In ____ chemical burns (____ lime, etc) addition of ____ may produce a very _______ substance.
To treat, remove the patient’s____ and _____ the ______ _____ away from the skin. Then ______ with copious amounts of water.

A 
Dry
Dry
Water
Corrosive
Clothing
Brush
Dry 
Chemical
Irrigate
362
Q

Electrical Burn
Conduct ____-___ exam for ____ & ____ burns, P____, Muscle Spasms, and abnormal pulse and or /.

Asses for F____ and D______ associated with severe M_____ S____ or Falling.

_____ induced by electrical shock may mimic r____ m____ DO NOT ______ Cpr.

A 
Head 
toe
Entry
Exit
Paralysis
B/P
Fractures
Dislocations
Muscle Spasms 
Tetany
Rigor 
Mortis
Withhold
363
Q

Lightning strike
After a lightening strike or other high-voltage contact involving _____ patients apply “_____ triage.”
Patient in Cardiac Arrest are __ priority for _____ treatment and transport.

A

Multiple
Reverse
Top
Advanced

364
Q

Chest Trauma
Assess b_____ s____.
Cover suspected _____ chest wounds with an _______ dressing (sealed on _ sides)
Stabilize Fr____ and/or f____ segments

A 
Breath sounds
Open
Occulsive
3
Fractures
Flail
365
Q

Chest trauma

Be v_____ for developing T______ Pneumothorax

A

Vigilant

Tension

366
Q

Chest Trauma
If Tension Pneumothorax is s_____, release the ____ over the wound and allow any air under p____ to escape.

Then r____ the wound with _ sides of dressing secured and one f___ edge, and monitor the patient.

A 
Suspected
Seal
Pressure
re-seal
3
free
367
Q

Epistaxis
If epistaxis is spontaneous and the patient is a____ with s_____ vital signs, have the patient L____ F____ (if there is no neck or spine injury), and using M______ pressure, P_____ the nostrils together.

A 
Alert
Stable
Lean
Forward
Moderate
Pinch
368
Q

Epistaxis

Pt with epistaxis is hypotensive/ Altered, with no trauma mechanism, what do you do?

A

Place them in a lateral recumbent position.
Admin 02
Be aware of vomiting

369
Q

Epistaxis

If epistaxis due to trauma

A

Immobilize C spine.

370
Q

Eye injury
Laceration to eye/eye lid

___ ____ apply pressure to the eye ball
Cover ___ eyes with loose dressing
______ avulsed parts in a clean plastic bag

A

Do not
both
Preserve

371
Q

Eye Injuries
Foreign bodies
Do NOT ____ eye
Noted foreign body _____ to _____ with normal saline

A

Wipe
ATTEMPT
IRRIGATE

372
Q

Eye Injuries

Non-impaled= cover____ eye(s)

A

BOTH

373
Q 
*Eye injuries*
Impaled-
\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_ remove.
\_\_\_\_\_\_ with a paper cup and bulky dressing. 
Cover the \_\_\_\_\_\_ eye.
A

Do NOT
Stabilize
Unaffected

374
Q

Eye Injury

Avulsed eye=

A

Cover+sterile dressing+ sterile saline/normal saline/ tap water+ ASAP

375
Q

eye injuries

Chemical burns=

A

Irrigate+ tap water/ saline/ normal saline+ asap+ throughout transport.

376
Q

Fractures/Dislocations
Assess _____ circulation and sensory & motor function before and after splinting (CMS)
For suspected _____ and ____ fractures a ______ splint is REQUIRED

A

Distal
Femur
Pelvic
Traction

377
Q

Fractures/dislocations

Severely _______ fractures with compromised _____ may require alignment prior to _______.

A

Angulated
Circulation
Immobilization

378
Q

Fractures/dislocations
Dislocations of the E____, W_____, K____, or A_____ are emergencies in which time passed until r________ is critical in determining thee future use of the joint. Do not p_____ transport to carry out procedures or E______ immobilization.

A 
Elbow
Wrist
Knee
Ankle
Reduction
Prolong
Extensive
379
Q

Fractures and Dislocations

The two fractures which are immobilized by a sling and swathe are?

A

Clavicle

Humerus

380
Q

Shoulder dislocation is treated how?

A

Splinted in position found

381
Q

Elbow fracture OR Dislocation are immobilized how?

A

Splinted in position found

382
Q

Radius/Ulna fracture is immobilized how?

A

Rigid splint and sling.

383
Q

Wrist fracture is immobilized how?

A

Splint in position found

384
Q

All victims of trauma have ______ injury until proven ______

A

Spinal

Otherwise

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