Medical Ethics Flashcards

1
Q

morality is the conduct or behavior of a individual/group which reveals ___ or assumptions about ___ and evil

A

values; good

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2
Q

what is the difference btw ethics and morality?

A

ethics is the formal study of right and wrong while morality is the value placed upon good and evil

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3
Q

ethics is what we ___ to do, morality is what we ___ to do

A

ought; choose

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4
Q

What type of decision making does consequentialism use?

A

the ends justify the means

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5
Q

What is deontological ethical theory?

A

making decisions based upon absolute right and wrong

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6
Q

___ and ___ are branches under teleological ethical theory.

A

consequentialism and virtue ethics

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7
Q

___ considers “desirable” character traits to measure good or bad. Good character is essential

A

virtue ethics

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8
Q

is virtue ethics a character or principle based theory?

A

character

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9
Q

virtue ethics focuses more on ___ and less on ___

A

individual focus; society rules

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10
Q

aristotle’s golden mean is found in which ethical theory?

A

virtue ethics

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11
Q

deontology is derived from the Greek word “deon” meaning?

A

duty or obligation

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12
Q

Which philosopher is known for deontology?

A

Immanuel Kant

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13
Q

___ reflects our deep seated intuition that there is an inherent dignity in each individual which must be respected, and the idea that certain courses of action must ____ be pursued, regardless of expected consequences to the many.

A

Kantian ethics; never

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14
Q

utilitarianism focuses on the greatest good for the ___ number

A

greatest

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15
Q

which medical ethical code was created to address informed consent and absence of coercion?

A

nuremberg code

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16
Q

which case in the United States created the patient’s right to privacy?

A

Roe vs Wade

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17
Q

what are the principles of biomedical ethics?

A

respect for autonomy, nonmaleficence, beneficence, and justice (JANB)

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18
Q

the principles of biomedical ethics are also known as?

A

principalism

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19
Q

which principle of biomedical ethics supports individual capacity to choose?

A

autonomy

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20
Q

we ought to act in ways that do not cause needless harm, risk or injury to others is an example of which principle of biomedical ethics?

A

nonmaleficence

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21
Q

Which biomedical ethics principle ask the question, what is in the patient’s best interest?

A

beneficence

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22
Q

which biomedical ethics principle is about giving a person what he or she is due?

A

justice

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23
Q

principalist generates a ___ negative because it is only limited to 4 options.

A

false

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24
Q

what is casuistry?

A

looking at previous cases and comparing it to current cases for ethical decisions (bottom-up)

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25
clinical ethics involve medical issues that arise at the ___
bedside
26
clinical ethics battles 2 questions, what are they?
what can we do vs what should we do
27
what is the difference btw casuistry and virtues approach to ethics in in patient care?
casuistry approach uses bottoms-up reasoning relying on previous similar cases while virtues approach focuses on the kind of person a provider should be for his/her patient
28
What are the 4 approaches to clinical ethics?
principle approach, casuistry, fletcher's clinical virtues, and ethics of caring
29
what does professional ethics focus on?
the clinician and his/her professional integrity
30
professionalism demands placing the interest of __ above those of the ___
patients; physicians
31
A process whereby clinicians and patients interact to select an appropriate course of care is known as?
informed care
32
informed consent puts the decision making process on just the patient. T or F?
F, it is a shared decision making among patient and medical team
33
what are the threshold elements of informed consent guidelines?
capacity and voluntariness
34
what are the information elements of informed consent guidelines?
disclosure, recommendation, and understanding
35
what are the consent elements of informed consent guidelines?
decision and authorization
36
what are the standards for disclosure?
professional standard, reasonable patient standard, and individual patient standard
37
what standard for disclosure is concerned with what other reasonable physicians would disclose?
professional standard
38
is the signed consent form a legal proof that a patient has given consent?
no, not without a consent discussion documented in the medical record.
39
what are the exceptions to informed consent?
lack of decision-making capacity, emergencies, therapeutic privilege, and waiver
40
___ refers to limits on the dissemination of information disclosed by a person within the doctor-patient relationship
confidentiality
41
what are the reasons for confidentiality?
respect, patient benefit, aids doctor-patient relationship, and prevents stigmatization/discrimination
42
what is the uniform federal standard for patient privacy?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA, est. 1996)
43
Does HIPAA allow for greater or lesser patient access to record to confirm/correct
greater
44
what are the exceptions to confidentiality?
Infectious disease, impaired drivers, injuries caused by weapons or crimes, child/elder abuse, psychiatric patients, and domestic violence.
45
what best characterizes informed consent?
shared decision making
46
when is confidentiality overridden to protect third party?
to prevent harm to third party
47
what is the most common thread that runs through the reasons for overriding confidentiality?
nonmaleficence
48
what are the reasons for deception or nondisclosure?
avoid harm to patients with a history of suicidal attempts; request by patient for nondisclosure
49
clinically, a person's decision-making capacity is based on the individual ___, the requirement of the ___, and the ___ of the decision
abilities; task; consequences
50
___ is a legal term denoting a court order that a person is unable to take care of him/her self
incompetence
51
how can you determine if a patient is delusional or not?
a delusional patient rarely have a reasoning behind choices
52
what factors let you know that a patient has the capacity to make decisions?
understanding, consequences, and reasoning
53
What steps do you take when a decision-capable patient refuses treatment?
tactfully ask why, validate the patient, and give the patient a choice
54
From most to least important, what are the standards for decisions when patients lack decision-making capacity?
advance directives, substituted judgments, and best interest
55
advanced directives of patients lacking decision making capacity appoint a ___ while substituted judgement is made by ___
proxy; surrogate
56
who has the strongest ethical and legal claim to make decisions for incapacitated patients?
proxy
57
geneva conventions has how many treaties and how many protocols?
4 treaties; 3 protocols
58
what is the purpose of the geneva conventions?
protect the victims of war
59
who proposed a relief agency for humanitarian aid and won the first nobel prize?
henry durant
60
EPW are ___ and CI are ___
enemy soldiers; civilian insurgents and criminals
61
retained persons are captured personnel with ___ and ___ skills
medical and chaplain
62
what type of detainee is not entitled to the protections of the Geneva conventions?
enemy combatants
63
EPWs and retained medical personnel are given the same medical care as US personnel. T or F?
T
64
medical personnel are protected from attack under the geneva convention only when ___
exclusively engaged
65
what is the narrow definition of futility?
when treatment is ineffective in producing a desired physiological effect
66
what is the broad definition of futility?
when treatment is effective for a desirable physiological effect but lacks any benefit
67
the doctrine of double effect ensures that the ___ to ___ ratio is proportionate
benefit; risk
68
what is the percent rate of the effectiveness of CPR in hospitals?
15%
69
what is the diff btw active voluntary euthanasia and voluntary suicide?
active voluntary euthanasia: physician administers lethal chemical; voluntary suicide: the patient administers the lethal chemical
70
persistent/permanent vegetative state features no ___ function but preserved ___ function
cortical; brainstem
71
a vegetative state is deemed persistent after ___ month(s)
1
72
a vegetative state is deemed irreversible/permanent after ___ month(s) from a non-traumatic (anoxia) brain damage and ___ month(s) after a traumatic injury
3;12
73
minimally conscious state is characterized by ___ awareness
some
74
what conditions of the uniform determination of death act must be fulfilled for a patient to be declared dead?
irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory functions; irreversible cessation of all functions of the brain stem
75
which physicians should brain death be discussed with?
physicians not on the organ donor team
76
when should organ transplantation be discussed with family of brain death patient?
after the declaration of death
77
the karen quinlan case helped established the right to ___
decline treatment
78
the U.S. supreme court ruling on the Nancy Cruzan case ensured that ____
no one may refuse treatment for another person w/o clear and convincing evidence of their wishes