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Medical Ethics > Medical Ethics > Flashcards

Medical Ethics Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

morality is the conduct or behavior of a individual/group which reveals ___ or assumptions about ___ and evil

A

values; good

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2
Q

what is the difference btw ethics and morality?

A

ethics is the formal study of right and wrong while morality is the value placed upon good and evil

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3
Q

ethics is what we ___ to do, morality is what we ___ to do

A

ought; choose

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4
Q

What type of decision making does consequentialism use?

A

the ends justify the means

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5
Q

What is deontological ethical theory?

A

making decisions based upon absolute right and wrong

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6
Q

___ and ___ are branches under teleological ethical theory.

A

consequentialism and virtue ethics

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7
Q

___ considers “desirable” character traits to measure good or bad. Good character is essential

A

virtue ethics

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8
Q

is virtue ethics a character or principle based theory?

A

character

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9
Q

virtue ethics focuses more on ___ and less on ___

A

individual focus; society rules

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10
Q

aristotle’s golden mean is found in which ethical theory?

A

virtue ethics

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11
Q

deontology is derived from the Greek word “deon” meaning?

A

duty or obligation

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12
Q

Which philosopher is known for deontology?

A

Immanuel Kant

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13
Q

___ reflects our deep seated intuition that there is an inherent dignity in each individual which must be respected, and the idea that certain courses of action must ____ be pursued, regardless of expected consequences to the many.

A

Kantian ethics; never

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14
Q

utilitarianism focuses on the greatest good for the ___ number

A

greatest

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15
Q

which medical ethical code was created to address informed consent and absence of coercion?

A

nuremberg code

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16
Q

which case in the United States created the patient’s right to privacy?

A

Roe vs Wade

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17
Q

what are the principles of biomedical ethics?

A

respect for autonomy, nonmaleficence, beneficence, and justice (JANB)

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18
Q

the principles of biomedical ethics are also known as?

A

principalism

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19
Q

which principle of biomedical ethics supports individual capacity to choose?

A

autonomy

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20
Q

we ought to act in ways that do not cause needless harm, risk or injury to others is an example of which principle of biomedical ethics?

A

nonmaleficence

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21
Q

Which biomedical ethics principle ask the question, what is in the patient’s best interest?

A

beneficence

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22
Q

which biomedical ethics principle is about giving a person what he or she is due?

A

justice

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23
Q

principalist generates a ___ negative because it is only limited to 4 options.

A

false

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24
Q

what is casuistry?

A

looking at previous cases and comparing it to current cases for ethical decisions (bottom-up)

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25
Q

clinical ethics involve medical issues that arise at the ___

A

bedside

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26
Q

clinical ethics battles 2 questions, what are they?

A

what can we do vs what should we do

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27
Q

what is the difference btw casuistry and virtues approach to ethics in in patient care?

A

casuistry approach uses bottoms-up reasoning relying on previous similar cases while virtues approach focuses on the kind of person a provider should be for his/her patient

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28
Q

What are the 4 approaches to clinical ethics?

A

principle approach, casuistry, fletcher’s clinical virtues, and ethics of caring

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29
Q

what does professional ethics focus on?

A

the clinician and his/her professional integrity

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30
Q

professionalism demands placing the interest of __ above those of the ___

A

patients; physicians

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31
Q

A process whereby clinicians and patients interact to select an appropriate course of care is known as?

A

informed care

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32
Q

informed consent puts the decision making process on just the patient. T or F?

A

F, it is a shared decision making among patient and medical team

33
Q

what are the threshold elements of informed consent guidelines?

A

capacity and voluntariness

34
Q

what are the information elements of informed consent guidelines?

A

disclosure, recommendation, and understanding

35
Q

what are the consent elements of informed consent guidelines?

A

decision and authorization

36
Q

what are the standards for disclosure?

A

professional standard, reasonable patient standard, and individual patient standard

37
Q

what standard for disclosure is concerned with what other reasonable physicians would disclose?

A

professional standard

38
Q

is the signed consent form a legal proof that a patient has given consent?

A

no, not without a consent discussion documented in the medical record.

39
Q

what are the exceptions to informed consent?

A

lack of decision-making capacity, emergencies, therapeutic privilege, and waiver

40
Q

___ refers to limits on the dissemination of information disclosed by a person within the doctor-patient relationship

A

confidentiality

41
Q

what are the reasons for confidentiality?

A

respect, patient benefit, aids doctor-patient relationship, and prevents stigmatization/discrimination

42
Q

what is the uniform federal standard for patient privacy?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA, est. 1996)

43
Q

Does HIPAA allow for greater or lesser patient access to record to confirm/correct

A

greater

44
Q

what are the exceptions to confidentiality?

A

Infectious disease, impaired drivers, injuries caused by weapons or crimes, child/elder abuse, psychiatric patients, and domestic violence.

45
Q

what best characterizes informed consent?

A

shared decision making

46
Q

when is confidentiality overridden to protect third party?

A

to prevent harm to third party

47
Q

what is the most common thread that runs through the reasons for overriding confidentiality?

A

nonmaleficence

48
Q

what are the reasons for deception or nondisclosure?

A

avoid harm to patients with a history of suicidal attempts; request by patient for nondisclosure

49
Q

clinically, a person’s decision-making capacity is based on the individual ___, the requirement of the ___, and the ___ of the decision

A

abilities; task; consequences

50
Q

___ is a legal term denoting a court order that a person is unable to take care of him/her self

A

incompetence

51
Q

how can you determine if a patient is delusional or not?

A

a delusional patient rarely have a reasoning behind choices

52
Q

what factors let you know that a patient has the capacity to make decisions?

A

understanding, consequences, and reasoning

53
Q

What steps do you take when a decision-capable patient refuses treatment?

A

tactfully ask why, validate the patient, and give the patient a choice

54
Q

From most to least important, what are the standards for decisions when patients lack decision-making capacity?

A

advance directives, substituted judgments, and best interest

55
Q

advanced directives of patients lacking decision making capacity appoint a ___ while substituted judgement is made by ___

A

proxy; surrogate

56
Q

who has the strongest ethical and legal claim to make decisions for incapacitated patients?

A

proxy

57
Q

geneva conventions has how many treaties and how many protocols?

A

4 treaties; 3 protocols

58
Q

what is the purpose of the geneva conventions?

A

protect the victims of war

59
Q

who proposed a relief agency for humanitarian aid and won the first nobel prize?

A

henry durant

60
Q

EPW are ___ and CI are ___

A

enemy soldiers; civilian insurgents and criminals

61
Q

retained persons are captured personnel with ___ and ___ skills

A

medical and chaplain

62
Q

what type of detainee is not entitled to the protections of the Geneva conventions?

A

enemy combatants

63
Q

EPWs and retained medical personnel are given the same medical care as US personnel. T or F?

A

T

64
Q

medical personnel are protected from attack under the geneva convention only when ___

A

exclusively engaged

65
Q

what is the narrow definition of futility?

A

when treatment is ineffective in producing a desired physiological effect

66
Q

what is the broad definition of futility?

A

when treatment is effective for a desirable physiological effect but lacks any benefit

67
Q

the doctrine of double effect ensures that the ___ to ___ ratio is proportionate

A

benefit; risk

68
Q

what is the percent rate of the effectiveness of CPR in hospitals?

A

15%

69
Q

what is the diff btw active voluntary euthanasia and voluntary suicide?

A

active voluntary euthanasia: physician administers lethal chemical; voluntary suicide: the patient administers the lethal chemical

70
Q

persistent/permanent vegetative state features no ___ function but preserved ___ function

A

cortical; brainstem

71
Q

a vegetative state is deemed persistent after ___ month(s)

A

1

72
Q

a vegetative state is deemed irreversible/permanent after ___ month(s) from a non-traumatic (anoxia) brain damage and ___ month(s) after a traumatic injury

A

3;12

73
Q

minimally conscious state is characterized by ___ awareness

A

some

74
Q

what conditions of the uniform determination of death act must be fulfilled for a patient to be declared dead?

A

irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory functions; irreversible cessation of all functions of the brain stem

75
Q

which physicians should brain death be discussed with?

A

physicians not on the organ donor team

76
Q

when should organ transplantation be discussed with family of brain death patient?

A

after the declaration of death

77
Q

the karen quinlan case helped established the right to ___

A

decline treatment

78
Q

the U.S. supreme court ruling on the Nancy Cruzan case ensured that ____

A

no one may refuse treatment for another person w/o clear and convincing evidence of their wishes

Medical Ethics (1 decks)

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