Medical Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Types of pathogens?

A
  • opportunistic
  • primary pathogen
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2
Q

define Opportunistic

A

normally non-pathogenic but can cause disease when opportunity arises

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3
Q

define Primary pathogen

A

can cause disease in a host regardless of host immune or the resident microbiota

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4
Q

To be a successful pathogen, you must…

A

Gain entry to the host
Access nutrients from the host to multiply
Evade host defences
Escape and colonise new host environments

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5
Q

define virulence

A

the ability to cause disease.

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6
Q

what is an example of high virulence?

A

Highly virulent: Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • Just a few cells can establish an infection
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7
Q

what is an example of low virulence?

A

Lower virulence: Salmonella typhimurium

  • 1000+ cells must be ingested to establish infection
  • Infection results in a self-limiting gastroenteritis in humans.
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8
Q

define virulence factor

A

any aspect of a pathogenic microorganism that enables it to give rise to disease.

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9
Q

define virulence gene

A

gene in a pathogenic microorganism which is responsible for its ability to cause disease.

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10
Q

define virulence plasmid

A

bacterial plasmid that carries genes, e.g. toxin genes, that render its bacterial host pathogenic

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11
Q

Some bacterial pathogens are successful due to

A

secretion of toxins

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12
Q

Some bacterial pathogens are successful due to secretion of toxins – these include

A

Clostridium tetani which infects wounds from soil – it is slow growing but is virulent because of the release of a toxin.

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13
Q

Some pathogens succeed by dividing and

A

overwhelming the host by their invasiveness (e.g. S. pneumoniae which evades host defences by means of encapsulating its cell with a polysaccharide capsule).

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14
Q

Virulence factors can include

A

molecules that allow bacteria to avoid detection or factors that have an effect on the host allowing easier growth or access to nutrients

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15
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes produces

A

streptokinase

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16
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes produces streptokinase which dissolves

A

blood clots

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17
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes produces streptokinase which dissolves blood clots – enabling the bacteria to

A

bypass the clotting system which normally limits infection

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18
Q

Hyaluronidases that break down the extracellular matrix allowing

A

greater access to nutritents.

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19
Q

Some of the best characterised virulence factors are

A

toxins that act upon cells (e.g. Murine toxin in plague).

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20
Q

two kinds of immunity in your body:

A

innate
adaptive

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21
Q

what does innate immunity provide protection against?

A

Protection against infection by fixed, relatively non-specific defence mechanisms

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22
Q

innaate immunity is

A

non specific

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23
Q

innate immunity examples

A
  • Anatomical barriers (e.g. epithelium, mucus, tears, lysozyme)
  • Inflammatory response
  • Complement (works with adaptive immune response)
  • Leukocytes: white blood cells
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24
Q

the inflammatory response recruits

A

defence cells to the area

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25
Q

whats complement?

A

Cascade of proteins which destroy targeted cells

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26
Q

examples of leukocytes (white blood cells)?

A
  • natural killer cells, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils
  • macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, T helper cells
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27
Q

what is the adaptive immune response?

A

Selective response mounted by immune system in which specific antibodies/cytotoxic cells are produced against an antigen recognised as foreign to the body.

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28
Q

adaptive immune response results in

A

long-lived and specific immunity against the pathogen.

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29
Q

vaccinrd exploit

A

the adaptive immune response.

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30
Q

After phagocytosis defence cells present antigens from the pathogenic bacteria at

A

the cell surface in association with major histocompatibility complex proteins (MHC) class II

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31
Q

After phagocytosis defence cells present antigens from the pathogenic bacteria at the cell surface in association with major histocompatibility complex proteins (MHC) class II and migrate to

A

the lymph node where it will interact with cells directing the adaptive immune response.

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32
Q

Complement aids in

A

the removal of bacteria

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33
Q

Complement aids in the removal of bacteria. One pathway is

A

to form of membrane attack complexes in bacterial membranes, punching them open.

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34
Q

Complement aids in the removal of bacteria. One pathway is to form of membrane attack complexes in bacterial membranes, punching them open.

Additionally fragments …

A

… signal to immune cells and act as signals to macrophages to phagocytose bacteria

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35
Q

The complement system can be activated by either

A

the adaptive immune response (by associating with antibody/antigen complexes on the surface of bacteria or by the recognition of bacterial wall components.

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36
Q

Invasive pathogens are generally

A

encapsuklated

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37
Q

Bacteria with capsules are more likely to

A

evade detection because their PAMPs are hidden (cloaked).

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38
Q

Host macrophages recognise

A

PAMPS

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39
Q

what are pamps

A

pathogen associated molecular patterns

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40
Q

exampels of pamps

A

lipopolysaccharide and flagellin

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41
Q

Bacteria evade detection by:

A

1) Invisibility
2) Provide a moving target
3) Mimicry

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42
Q

whats invisibility of bacteria?

A

Mask potential PAMPs under a capsule.

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43
Q

describe the moving targets of bacteria?

A

have variable external components which change regularly. Many capsule components are unique to particular strains and consist of a multiplicity of different repeating sugar moieties

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44
Q

what is mimicry?

A

some bacteria (eg Group A Streptococcus) express glycoproteins that are identical to human cell glycoproteins (e.g. hyaluronan)

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45
Q

To invade or attack host cells, bacteria need to

A

attach to them.

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46
Q

Adhesion works via

A

recognition between proteins either at the tips of pili or within the cell wall and glycoproteins or glycans on the host cell surface

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47
Q

define endotoxins

A

integral components of bacterial cells, usually only released during damage.

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48
Q

Lipid A is an

A

endotoxin: induces host fever and other responses.

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49
Q

a high dose of endotoxin initiates

A

septic shock

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50
Q

Endotoxins: integral components of bacterial cells, usually only released during damage.
Remember lipopolysaccharide?
Lipid A is an endotoxin: induces host fever and other responses.
High dose: initiates septic shock.

Triggers…

A

… cascade of cytokines which damage host tissues.

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51
Q

exotoxin secreted by

A

bacteria

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52
Q

exotoxins may be specific or

A

general

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53
Q

Diptheria is a

A

toxin-mediated infectious disease. AB toxin causes inhibition of protein synthesis.

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54
Q

Secretion systems of various types:

A

-Release enzymes
-Assist host cell invasion
-Some inject components into host cells, changing their responses.

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55
Q

Type III secretion systems rely on …

A

proteins similar to those forming the base of the flagellum – proteins are secreted through the pore via a ‘needle’ into a target cell

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56
Q

Type IV secretion systems are derived from

A

pilus proteins.

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57
Q

cholera is tradmitted by

A

vibrio cholerae

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58
Q

how is cholera transmitted

A

infection is transmitted via water contaminated by a sufferer or through shellfish

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59
Q

cholera causes

A

epidemics and has been responsible for many millions of deaths

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60
Q

whats the mode of action of Cholera toxin? [FULL]

A
  • The AB exotoxin binds to gut epithelial receptor (GM1)
  • Subunit A is internalised by endocytosis and activates G protein.
  • G protein activates adenylyl cyclase (AC). Converts ATP to cAMP (a signalling protein).
  • cAMP stimulates cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator pathway which makes the cell lose Cl- ions.
  • Osmotic diarrhoea.
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61
Q

in the cholera toxin - mode of action, what does the AB exotoxin bind to?

A

gut epithelial receptor (GM1)

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62
Q

in the cholera toxin - mode of action, subunit A is internalised by…

A

… endocytosis and activates G protein

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63
Q

G protein activates

A

adenylyl cyclase (AC)

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64
Q

G protein activates adenylyl cyclase (AC). Converts …

A

… ATP to cAMP (a signalling protein).

65
Q

cAMP stimulates …

A

… cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator pathway which makes the cell lose Cl- ions.

66
Q

whAT is the secretion of V. cholerae ?

A

harpoon-like type VI secretion System

67
Q

Adjacent cells –

A

punctured, toxic effector proteins delivered

68
Q

what are the clusters of Vibrio choleraegenomes ?

A

Aux clusters 1, 2, and 4

69
Q

Aux clusters 1, 2, and 4 share a

A

canonical hcp, vgrG, tap, effector, immunity gene organization

70
Q

what is Hcp ?

A

Hemolysin-coregulated protein hexamers

71
Q

Secreted VgrG proteins interact with …

A

… toxic proteins (called effectors) to aid in their delivery.

72
Q

what is vertical gene transfer?

A

from parent to offspring

goes down the generations

73
Q

what is horizontal gene transfer (HGT) ?

A
  • Acquisition of genes by one species from another species.
  • Can be called “lateral gene transfer”
  • Gene goes “sideways”
  • Common in bacteria (rare in eukaryotes)
74
Q

what are the three mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

A
  • Transformation
  • Conjugation
  • Transduction
75
Q

whats transformation ?

A

DNA enters bacterial cell

76
Q

whats conjugation?

A

bacterial equivalent of sex: conjugation tube forms between two cells and genetic material is exchanged.

77
Q

whats transduction ?

A

genets transferred by carriage as part of bacteriophage

78
Q

what are Pathogenicity islands?

A

Many virulence genes in compact distinct genomic (islands) (10-200kbp)

79
Q

how are pathogenicity islands aquired?

A

Acquired by HGT

80
Q

pathogenicity islands have a different G+C% content than

A

bacterial chromosome

81
Q

many pathogens have which population structure?

A

Many pathogens have clonal population structure

1 clone may be responsible for widespread disease

82
Q

Examples of pathogenicity island contents…

A

Iron uptake systems
Adhesins
Pore-forming toxins
Superantigens
Secreted lipases and proteases
Proteins transported by type I, III, IV and I secretion systems
Antibiotic resistance

83
Q

Escherichia coli commensal bacterium, most strains..

A

… harmless

84
Q

what strain of e.coli is harmless?

A

Escherichia coli commensal bacterium

85
Q

Escherichia coli commensal bacterium assists with…

A

… food metabolism

86
Q

Some strains of Escherichia coli commensal bacterium have acquired…

A

… genes by horizontal gene transfer, transforming into pathogens

87
Q

Five categories of diarrheagenic E. coli recognised by

A

serotyping

88
Q

Many virulence factors are derived from

A

bacteriophages, plasmids or transposons.

89
Q

what are transposons?

A

DNA sequences that possess the property of inserting themselves elsewhere on the chromosomes by a process called transposition.

90
Q

where do transposition occur?

A

Occur in prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes.

91
Q

the simplest bacterial insertion sequences carry only

A

gene necessary for their own transposition.

92
Q

Larger transposons carry

A

other genes, e.g. antibiotic resistance.

93
Q

what is Yersinia pestis ?

A

Gram-negative, facultative aerobe. Rod shaped, encapsulated.

94
Q

what family does Yersinia pestis belong to?

A

Family Enterobacteriaceae

95
Q

Yersinia pestis causes…

A

… Plague/the black death

96
Q

the black death killed?

A

Killed up to 40% of population.

97
Q

when was black death?

A

1347-1351 in Europe.

98
Q

the black death caused…

A

… bleeding under the skin and necrosis - hence “black death”.

99
Q

the plague caused infection in 3 forms…

A

1) Bubonic
2) Septicemic
3) Pneumonic

100
Q

bubonic plague effects?

A

infects lymph nodes causing them to swell into buboes. 70% mortality.

101
Q

Septicemic in the

A

blood stream

102
Q

Pneumonic: inhaled or reach lungs via

A

lymph or bloodstream

103
Q

Pneumonic: inhaled or reach lungs via lymph or bloodstream. Few symptoms before

A

large amounts of bloody sputum.

104
Q

pneumonic plague spreads from

A

person to person in the pneumonic stage

105
Q

how is plague treated?

A

Treatable by antibiotics, e.g. streptomycin or gentamicin injection. Prompt treatment: 5% mortality.

106
Q

Septicemic and pneumonic onset speed

A

so rapid that antibiotics are usually too late

107
Q

Fleas circumvent the

A

skin barrier

108
Q

Plasminogen activator function?

A

removes blood clots, allows infection to spread. Encoded on virulence plasmid.

109
Q

Adhesin (YadBC) encoded on

A

chromosome

110
Q

Type III secretion system for

A

Yop proteins

111
Q

type III seceretion syste, inkjected into

A

host cells.

112
Q

some Type III secretion system form…

A

… protein-lipoprotein complexes in cell wall to inhibit phagocytosis

113
Q

Virulent strains secrete

A

Murine toxin

114
Q

what is Murine toxin ?

A

a lethal respiratory inhibitor in mice, which also causes systemic shock and liver damage.

115
Q

Yop proteins secreted into …

A

… human target cells (e.g. macrophages) disrupt normal cellular activity and result in cell death

116
Q

Plague is still endemic in

A

some areas, especially drier regions

117
Q

plague is enzootic in

A

rodent populations

  • Intermediate host: fleas
  • Some rats carry chronic infections
118
Q

when was plague imported to the united states?

A

Imported to United states in 1900s.

119
Q

If rodent population crashes in urban setting, fleas can

A

switch hosts and transmit to humans.

120
Q

Plague control?

A
  • Good sanitary control
  • Control rodent populations in urban centres.
  • Monitoring and prompt response:
    • Treatment
    • Quarantine of exposed individuals
121
Q

Colonisations of commensal bacteria starts after

122
Q

Colonisations of commensal bacteria starts after birth and includes

A

the skin, oral cavity, upper respiratory tract and gastrointestinal tract.

123
Q

what do commensal nbacteria inhabit?

A

Inhabit mucosal and epidermal surfaces in humans, in the normal, non disease state

124
Q

Microbiome plays an important role in

A

defence against pathogens.

125
Q

what do microbiome act on?

A

Act on the host’s immune system to induce protective responses that prevent colonisation and invasion by pathogens

126
Q

the microbiome can directly …

A

… inhibit the growth of respiratory pathogens for example by producing antimicrobial products/signals and competing for nutrients and adhesion sites

127
Q

Microbiome refers to the

A

micro-organisms in a particular habitat

128
Q

how many microorganisms in the gut microbiota ?

A

Approximately 100 trillion micro-organisms (most of them bacteria, but also viruses, fungi, and protozoa) exist in the human gastrointestinal tract

129
Q

Microbiome can influence …

A

… host’s fitness, phenotype, and health.

130
Q

describe the Association between reduced diversity and disease.

A

Higher bacterial diversity = Indicator of Healthy Gut

Lower bacterial diversity = Reported in GI disease (IBD, Crohn’s)

131
Q

human commensal bacteria in the mouth?

A

Mouth – Streptococcal spp.

132
Q

human commensal bacteria in the stomach?

A

Gram +ve, Proteobacteria, Actinobacteria

133
Q

human commensal bacteria in the small intestine

A

small intestine – Fusiform anaerobes

134
Q

human commensal bacteria in the large intestine?

A

E. coli (facultative anaerobe), Clostridium, Bacteroides, Gram +ves, methanogens.

135
Q

what is C. diff ?

A

a capsule-shaped bacterium that causes inflammation of the colon - colitis

136
Q

what does c.diff produce?

A

produces two toxins - A and B

137
Q

C. difficile that causes diseases is found…

A

… in the feces

138
Q

spores can survive for

A

long periods in the environment (surfaces in a room)

139
Q

spores can survive for long periods in the environment (surfaces in a room) and be spread by …

A

… hands that touch conatimnated surfaces

140
Q

how is c. diff transmitted?

A

person to person fecal-orally

141
Q

is c.diff gram + or - ?

A

gram positive

142
Q

is c diff aerobic or anaerobic ?

143
Q

c diff is a commensal flora of

A

human intestines (2-5%)

144
Q

c diff still has

A

pathogenicity

145
Q

c. diff is extremely

A

antibiotic resistant

146
Q

the c. diff genome consists of..

A

… a circular chromosome and a circular plasmid

147
Q

c. diff is [..] forming

A

spore forming

148
Q

what does c. diff stand for?

A

Clostridioides difficile

149
Q

c diff is a bacterium whihc causes…

A

… an infection of th elarge intestine (colon)

150
Q

c. diff infections symptoms?

A

Symptoms can range from diarrhoea to life-threatening colon damage.

151
Q

illness frlom c diff typically after

A

use of antiboitoc medications

152
Q

Illness from C. difficile typically after use of antibiotic medications - which

A

remove the commensal bacteria which keep C. difficile in check.

153
Q

C.difficile can also secrete …

A

…proline-based cyclic dipeptides that can inhibit gut bacteria, including commensal Clostridium species, maintaining its dominance.

154
Q

who does c. diff commonly affect?

A

Commonly affects adults in hospital / long term care. Costly to health services.

155
Q

Certain medical conditions or procedures may

A

make you more susceptible to a C. difficile infection

156
Q

c diff sometimes cant be treated with

A

antibiotics

157
Q

c diff sometimes cant be treated with antibiotics - cases of people with…

A

… recurrent / refractory disease

158
Q

what is The Microbiome Treatment Centre (University of Birmingham) ?

A

First UK Medicines & Healthcare products Regulatory Agency licensed facility, providing FMT for clinical trials and for the treatment of patients with recurrent and refractory
Clostridium difficile infection.