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medic final semester 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Where are the EKG wires placed?

A

V1: 4th intercostal right of sternum
V2: 4th intercostal left of sternum
V3: midway between V2 and V4
V4: 5th intercostal midclavicular
V5: 5th intercostal anterior axillary
V6: 5th intercostal midaxillary

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2
Q

What is the normal duration for each waveform?

A

P wave: 0.06 - 0.1 seconds
QRS interval: 0.36 - 0.44 seconds
PR interval: 0.12 - 0.2 seconds
QT waveform: 0.06 - 0.1 seconds

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3
Q

What do small and large boxes represent on an EKG?

A

Small box: 0.04 seconds
Large box: 0.2 seconds

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4
Q

What is absolute refractory?

A

Cells can’t respond to signals; outside is negative, inside is positive, 1st stage of refraction

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5
Q

What is relative refraction?

A

Positive & negative on both sides, 2nd stage of refractor.

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6
Q

What do sodium pumps do?

A

Potassium goes in, sodium comes out.

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7
Q

What does the P wave represent?

A

Depolarization of the atrium.

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8
Q

What does the PR segment represent?

A

Electrical conduction (AV → bundle of His → SA).

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9
Q

What does the PR interval represent?

A

Depolarization of the atrium (SA → Bachmann’s → AV).

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10
Q

What does the QRS complex represent?

A

Depolarization of ventricles, repolarization of atrium.

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11
Q

What does the T wave represent?

A

Repolarization of ventricles.

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12
Q

What does the ST segment represent?

A

Absolute refractory period.

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13
Q

What does the QT interval represent?

A

Depolarization and repolarization of ventricles.

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14
Q

What does Phase I of CO2 waveforms represent?

A

Inhalation.

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15
Q

What does Phase 2 of CO2 waveforms represent?

A

Exhaled CO2 from alveoli.

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16
Q

What does Phase 3 of CO2 waveforms represent?

A

Sensor detects overall exhaled CO2 (35-45).

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17
Q

What are the stages of hypoxia?

A

Indifferent stage: sea level 310,000F+, pulse ox 90-98%, night vision.

Compensatory stage: 10,000 - 15,000F+, pulse ox 80-89%, drowsy, poor judgement, impaired coordination, blurred vision.

Critical stage: 22,000+F+, pulse ox 60-65%, confused, dizzy, loss of consciousness.

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18
Q

What are goblet cells responsible for?

A

Excessive mucus in airway.

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19
Q

When should a patient be intubated?

A

When they are unable to maintain a clear airway, risk of aspiration, cannot breathe adequately on their own, or a compromised airway due to injury, trauma, or loss of consciousness (which can lead to respiratory failure).

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20
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

Air outside of the lungs, treated with supplemental O2.

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21
Q

What is spontaneous pneumothorax?

A

Common in COPD/emphysema, treated with supplemental O2.

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22
Q

What is an open pneumothorax?

A

A sucking chest wound treated with an occlusive dressing.

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23
Q

What is a simple pneumothorax?

A

Air trapped in one part of the lungs, treated with supplemental O2.

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24
Q

What is tension pneumothorax?

A

Puts pressure on the heart, treated with needle decompression.

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25
What is respiratory distress?
Difficulty breathing but can maintain adequate gas exchange, rapid breathing, shortness of breath, and accessory muscle use.
26
What is respiratory failure?
Cannot maintain adequate gas exchange, leading to increased CO2, can be acute or chronic.
27
What is respiratory arrest?
Breathing completely stops and can lead to cardiac arrest.
28
How to manage airway problems?
Head positioning, suctioning, airway adjuncts (OPA/NPA), endotracheal intubation for critical situations.
29
How to perform intubation?
Use paralytic and sedative medications (succinylcholine and ketamine), pre-oxygenate (at least 98% SpO2), position head, open airway, insert laryngoscope, insert tube through vocal cords into trachea, remove piece inside of tube, inflate, ensure correct placement, ventilate with EtCO2 reading, secure tube.
30
What are the components of the respiratory system?
Oral cavity, larynx, right mainstem bronchus, bronchus, nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea, left mainstem bronchus, left lung, diaphragm.
31
What are complications of CPAP?
Congestion, runny nose, dry mouth, nosebleeds, skin irritation, overinflation of the stomach, pneumothorax, hypoperfusion.
32
What are complications of Bvm?
Hypo/hyperventilation, air in stomach, lung overstretching/over-pressurization, aspiration, air embolism.
33
What is the formula for calculating certain fluid volume over specific time?
rate= volume x Time.
34
What is the formula for a medication by injection/mouth?
Desired dose x Quantity on hand / Dose on hand.
35
What is the formula for continuous IV infusion?
Desired dose x IV bag x Tubing / Dose on hand.
36
What is the formula for continuous IV infusion weight-based?
Desired dose x Bag x Tubing x kg / Dose on hand.
37
What are the normal CO2, pH, and HCO3 levels?
CO2: 35-45, pH: 7.35 - 7.45, HCO3: 22-26.
38
What conditions cause respiratory acidosis?
COPD, asthma, lung tissue disease, diseases affecting nerves and muscles, obesity, sleep apnea, CNS depression, brain injury, substance abuse.
39
What conditions cause metabolic acidosis?
Kidney disease, untreated diabetes, low bicarbonate, blood poisoning, low oxygen from shock/heart failure, seizures.
40
What is the pH level for acidosis?
Less than 7.35.
41
What is the pH level for alkalosis?
More than 7.45.
42
What is pharmacokinetics?
Pharmacokinetics: the movement of the drug into, through, and out of the body.
43
What is the sympathetic nervous system responsible for?
Fight or flight response: increases heart rate, blood pressure, dilates pupils, constricts blood vessels, decreases digestion, and affects eyesight.
44
What is efficacy?
Efficacy: the maximum response that can be achieved with a drug.
45
What part of medication names tells you the drug category?
Prefix: helps distinguish a drug from others in the same class. Suffix: subclassifies the drug.
46
What are hydrostatic and osmotic functions?
Hydrostatic: forces fluid out of the vessels into surrounding tissue, affecting venous return to the heart and causing edema. Osmotic: forces fluid in tissues into the vessels, bringing nutrients into the cells and balancing fluid levels.
47
What are the types of IV solutions and their functions?
Hypotonic: fluid moves from blood vessels into cells, used to treat dehydration & hypernatremia (e.g., D5W). Isotonic: no movement of water, used to treat dehydration caused by vomiting, diarrhea, & hemorrhaging (e.g., normal saline, lactated ringers). Colloid: large molecules that stay in blood vessels, used to treat blood loss & low blood pressure (e.g., albumin).
48
What do the kidneys release to increase blood pressure?
Renin: an enzyme that produces hormones to increase blood pressure by constricting blood vessels and retaining sodium.
49
What resources are used to make medications?
Animals, plants, humans, minerals, and synthetic/engineered sources.
50
What is the schedule 1?
Schedule 1: highest abuse, illegal drugs (e.g., weed) ## Footnote Example: weed
51
What is Schedule II?
High risk for physical and psychological dependence ## Footnote Example: fentanyl
52
What is Schedule III?
May cause physical dependence, more likely to cause psychological dependence
53
What is Schedule V?
Least likely to be abused ## Footnote Example: codeine
54
What are the 3 types of negligence?
1. Duty to act: You have been called to help 2. Breach of duty: Failed to act / out of scope of practice 3. Causation: What caused the injury/event
55
What is gross negligence?
Standard of care is ignored
56
What is an intentional tort?
An act to purposely harm a person
57
What is contributory negligence?
Patient is at fault
58
What needs to be done for condition changes?
Reassess vitals, airway, breathing, circulation, and create a plan
59
What does DNR stand for?
Do not resuscitate in event of cardiac arrest
60
Is it a paramedic's duty to protect those at risk?
Yes
61
What are the different parts of documentation?
Patient information, vital signs, chief complaint, pertinent negatives & positives, history, assessment, treatment, narrative, transport, head to toe assessment
62
What are the effects of starting an IV?
Pain, discomfort, bruising at insertion site, phlebitis, extravasation, infection, fluid overload, headache, shortness of breath, swelling, nausea, vomiting, allergic reaction
63
What percentage of the body is water?
60%
64
What does asprin inhibit?
Platelet aggregation
65
What are the causes of poor perfusion?
Smoking, diabetes, age, genetics, infections.
66
What is parenchyma?
Parenchyma refers to the functional tissue of an organ.
67
What is the blood flow pathway through the heart?
Superior/inferior vena cava → right atrium → tricuspid valve → right ventricle → pulmonary valve → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → bicuspid (mitral) valve → left ventricle → aortic valve → aorta → body.
68
What are the layers of blood vessels?
Tunica intima: inner layer made of elastic tissue and endothelial cells. ## Footnote Tunica media: middle layer made of smooth muscle tissue. ## Footnote Tunica adventitia: outer layer made of tough collagen fibers and elastin.
69
What is the mitral valve also known as?
The left atrioventricular valve.
70
What is the electrical conduction pathway of the heart?
SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → left & right bundle branches → Purkinje fibers.
71
What are the types of consent?
Informed: fully informing the patient of treatments & actions done. ## Footnote Implied: patient cannot give consent, but needs treatment. ## Footnote Expressed: patient tells you/gives you consent.
72
What is the difference between assault and battery?
Assault is the threat of harm, while battery is the actual physical harm inflicted.
73
What is defamation?
Defamation is written or spoken false information to harm reputation.
74
What is false imprisonment?
False imprisonment is taking someone against their will.
75
What is the point of maximum impulse in the heart?
The apex (bottom) of the heart.
76
What is the SA node?
The SA node is the pacemaker located at the top of the right atrium, generating electrical impulses.
77
What is the function of the AV node?
The AV node is specialized tissue between the atria and ventricles that slows down electrical impulses to allow the atria to finish contracting.
78
What is the bundle of His?
The bundle of His consists of specialized fibers that carry electrical impulses into the ventricles and splits into left and right bundle branches.
79
What are Purkinje fibers?
Purkinje fibers distribute electrical impulses to all areas of the ventricles.
80
What is sinusitis?
Inflammation of the sinus, treated with amoxicillin.
81
What is pharyngitis?
Inflammation of the pharynx, assess airway & give fluids if needed.
82
What is tonsillitis?
Inflammation of the tonsils, assess airway & give fluids if needed.
83
What is epiglottitis?
Inflammation of the epiglottis, 100% O2 via NAB, racemic epinephrine.
84
What is croup?
A viral infection, treated with humidified O2 and racemic epinephrine.
85
What is a closed line fracture?
A closed fracture, treated with stabilization.
86
What is a tracheostomy?
A surgical hole that may need suctioning.
87
what is the polarized phase?
Polarized: inside is negative & contains potassium, sodium on outside
88
What is the depolarized state?
Depolarized: sodium rushes in, making inside positive, calcium slowly goes in, potassium comes out
89
What is the repolarized state?
Repolarized: potassium comes out, giving inside a negative charge
90
what does the left anterior descending artery do?
Left anterior descending artery: supplies front side of left ventricle
91
what does the left circumference artery do?
Left circumflex artery: supplies left atrium & posterior left ventricle
92
what does the right coronary artery do?
Right coronary artery: supplies right atrium & right ventricle
93
what does the right posterior descending artery do?
Right posterior descending artery: supplies apex (bottom)
94
what is the role of calcium?
Calcium: makes blood vessels dilate & constrict, assists with muscle contraction, nerve impulse transmission, & hormone secretion
95
what is the role of potassium?
Potassium: assists with heart, nerve & muscle function, moves nutrients into cell & gets rid of waste
96
what is the role of sodium?
Sodium: controls fluid levels, aids in nerve & muscle function & regulates cell potential

Medic (1 decks)

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