med Surg test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is gas exchange

A

the process in which o2 and. co2 is exchange in the body
o2 is transported from the lungs to the blood
co2 is transported from the blood to the lungs

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2
Q

what is oxygenation

A

the process where oxygen is getting to the body

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3
Q

hypoxia means

A

a decrease in o2 in the cellular tissues

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4
Q

hypoxemia mean

A

A decrease in o2 in the blood

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5
Q

what does ventilation means

A

the movement of air in the atmosphere to the alveoli

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6
Q

diffusion

A

the process of o2 and co2 moves to an area of higher concentration to a lower concentration

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7
Q

perfusion

A

blood flow to the tissues and organs

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8
Q

shunting

A

in adequate ventilation and adequate perfusion
-pulmonary embolisms

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9
Q

what is atelectasis

A

the collapse of the alveoli
-leads to pnemonia
-hold onto fluid

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10
Q

what are the causes of atelectasis

A
  1. obtructive
  2. in adequate activation of surfactant
    3.compression
    - not meeting o2 needs
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11
Q

what are the risk factors for atelectasis

A
  1. pre-op pts who are immobile, abdominal dissension
  2. anestia greater than 4 hrs
    chronic lung disease
    lung cancer
    morbid obesity
    smoking
    plural effusions
    Ng tube placements
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12
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of atelectasis

A

dyspnea
coughs
fever
leukocytes
diminished breathe sounds
sputum production

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13
Q

the use of accessory muscles often happen because of

A

significant respiratory distress

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14
Q

as the nurse what type of mangement should be done for atelectasis?

A
  1. use the incentive spirometry
  2. turns
  3. mobilization
  4. nebulazier and bronchidlators
    5.CPT
  5. splinting when coughing
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15
Q

what is the goal for the pt using an incentive spirometer? what are the risk if the person is below the goal

A

1000-1500
risk for pneumonia or atelectasis

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16
Q

as a nurse with o2 therapy what mangement practice should be meet? what are some safety tips?

A
  • monitoring for decrease in o2
    -mointer skin integrity
  • asses need for o2
    do not use protrolleum items
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16
Q

what does a endotracheal tube? how long should it be used for?

A

ideal for short term use < 10 day
-sereves as a temporary airway

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17
Q

what gives you 100% fio2

A

trach
non rebreather mask
endo-tube

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18
Q

what does a tracheotomy ? how long should it be used for? what are some safety practice?

A
  • long term use >21 days
    -surgical opening made into the trachea for breathing
    -avoid showers, sprays, and powders
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19
Q

what is COPD

A
  • a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
    -NOT FULLY REVERSIBLE
    -air flow limitation is progressive
  • the pt is breathing in 02 but holding onto c02
    -this pt will have high levels of c02
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20
Q

what is the rule for chronic bronchitis

A

cough sputum for 3 months wishing 2 years in a row

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21
Q

what a the risk factors with copd

A

Smoking
- how many years?
- how many packs
packs* years =
environmental smoke( second hand smoke)
occupational dust and chemicals ( where you work the type of environment)
infections
APlhia 1 antitrpisin deficiency

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22
Q

what are the signs a symptoms of COPD

A

dysoena
use of assessor muscles
chronic coughs
sputum production

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23
Q

what is the criteria for COPD

A

FEV1 <80%
FEV1/FVC ration less than 70%

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24
Q

As a nurse what is the mangement of COPD

A

decreasing the smoking cessation
bronchodilators and MDI
-anticholingrics
-sympathomimetic
cortocsteriods
oxygen therapy
surgery

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25
Q

what does the assesment look like for COPD

A

are you having SOB, Cough secretions?
how do you breathe and what does the posture look like?
-promoting better eating habbits,excersie, preventing complications

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26
Q

what is asthma

A

AIR FLOW OBSTRUCTION
Acute inflammation
-airflow limitations
-inflatiomation
IGE mediated response to allergens

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27
Q

signs and symptoms of asthma?

A

coughs, WHEEZING

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28
Q

what are the bronchodilators drugs and actions

A
  1. Beta adrergic agonist - relives the bronchospasm
    - Salmetrol, Albutrol
  2. anticholingic- reduces the airway obstruction
    aid in secretion clearance
    -iprattropium
  3. methylxanthines -maintance
    -theophyline
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29
Q

Respiratory meds and actions

A

antihistamines- helps dry secretions
- DIPHENHYDRAMINE
- Loratadine
-cetrizine
GALUCOCORTOCOIDS- reduces inflammation
-Prednisone
-beclomethdsone
Mast cell stabilizers- helps treat inflammation
-cromoyln
ldukotrine modifiers- reduce inflammation
- montelukast

-

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30
Q

what is the normal lung compliance

A

0.1L/cm h20

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31
Q

what is tidal volume

A

volume of each breathe

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32
Q

minute ventilation

A

how much air is let out per min

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32
Q

vital capacity

A

MAX amount of air exhaled from the MAX air inhaled

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33
Q

residual volume

A

the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximum exhalation

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34
Q

what is OSA

A

a disorder that recurrent episodes of UPPER AIRWAY obstruction

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35
Q

OSA signs and symptoms

A

1.loud snoring
2.breathing cessation >10 secs
3. snort as the 02 drops
4. daytime sleepyness
5. insomnia

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36
Q

what does OSA result to

A

a decrease in 02 in the tissues and a increase in ca+
increased HR

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37
Q

risk factors for OSA

A

Males
Obesity around the neck
alterations in the upper airway

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38
Q

what are some education topic to teach to a OSA pt

A
  1. recommend the the flu and pneumonia vaccine
  2. quit smoing
  3. high protein,nutrient dense meals
  4. avoid sedative medications
  5. encourage frequent rest periods
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39
Q

bubbling in the seal chamber indicates

A

a leakage

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40
Q

what do nutrition do for the body

A

tissue maintenance/ development
physicsal activity
provides energy
growth
and organ function

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41
Q

what is digestion

A

the mechinal break down of enzymes

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41
Q

what is absorption

A

-occurs in the small instance
one state is transferred into another substance

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42
Q

Enternal nutrion

A

providing nutrient to the stomach via feeding tube

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42
Q

what are marconutrients

A

carbs
fats
protiens

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42
Q

what is elimination

A

the excretion of waster

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43
Q

what is a parental nutrion

A

providing nutrients to the body via iv

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43
Q

what are micronutrients

A

vitamens
minerals

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44
Q

what are the rules about diet orders

A
  1. ordered by the MD based of
    1pt condition
    procedure
    ability to swallow
45
Q

malnutrition risk factors

A

-hospilized pts
-medications
dental problems
illness
physical disability

46
Q

what is a a appetite stimulant

A

magase

46
Q

what are. the signs and symptoms of malnutrition

A
  • decrees in focus
  • decreases in the interest in food
  • poor wound healing
47
Q

what are enteral nutrition used for

A
  1. decompress the stomach
  2. provide feeding
  3. medications admisteration
48
Q

Gastrostomy/ jejunosostmy

A

-prefreed for prolong use
-regurgitation is less likely to happen
- don’t flush with an iv

49
Q

how to care for a nasogastric tube

A

keep head of bed elevated 30 degrees
asses residuals
monitor lung sound s
monitor skin

50
Q

what are the types of care needed of a gastrostmy and jejunosmy

A

cleanse with soap and water
monitor for dumping syndrome
flush tube with attest 30ML water
sit upright for an hour after eating

50
Q

parental nutrition is used for

A

pts who have minimal intake
inability to ingest food
prolonged nutrital needs

51
Q

what type of technique is used for parental nutrient

A

asepsis
change bag every 24 hours

52
Q

what is dysphasia risk factors

A

smoking
med
alcohol consumption
hiatal hernia
musculoskeletal diseases

53
Q

Obesity risk factors

A
  1. lack of physical activity
    2.unhealthy eating habbits
    3.stress
    4.gentics
  2. medications
53
Q

what are the manifestations of dysphagia

A

pain to swallow
hoarseness
regurgitation
heartburn
coughing
chocking

54
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of obesity

A

BMI greater than 30

55
Q

what are the risk factors of iron deficiency anemia

A

lack of energy
SOB
dizzy
light headed
chest pain
PICA
pallor

56
Q

what type of education does a pt with anemia need

A

increase iron intake

57
Q

types of iron supplements

A

PO- ferrous sulfate and ferrous gluconate
IV- iron sucrose
better absorbed on empty stomach and with vitamin c

57
Q

the labs for iron

A

Ferritin
men -224-336
women 11-301
transferrin
215-380
less than 215 is hemolytic
greater than 380- IDA

57
Q

what labs indicate malnutrition

A

albumin-3.5-5.4

58
Q

cellular regulation

A

control the series of events through the cell cycle

59
Q

cellular growth

A

an increase in the total mass of the cell

60
Q

secular reproduction

A

process in which cells duplicate

61
Q

what is a begin tumor

A

its non cancers
grows slowly and don’t speread

62
Q

what is a malignant tumor

A

rapid growth
moveable
cancerous

63
Q

what are the risk factors for solid tumors

A

espouser to viruses
exposure to sunlight, radiation, chemicals,
hormonal imbalance and immuncomprised

63
Q

what is a solid tumor

A

abnormal mass of tissue that usually does not contain a cyst
can be either benign or malignant

63
Q

what does solid tumors happen

A

error in DNA replication

64
Q

primary treatment

A

to remove as much as possible tissue

65
Q

what is diagnostic

A

sample to confirm diagnosis

66
Q

palliative care

A

when cure isn’t possible, improves comfort

67
Q

what does radiation therapy consist of

A

-used to interrupt cellular growth, relive symptoms

68
Q

BPH is

A

an abnormal mass of tissue that usable does not contain cyst or liquid
-obstrcuted urethra

69
Q

Bph risk factors

A

African Americans
smoking
alcohol
htn
diabetes

70
Q

what are the signs and symptoms

A

increased urniation
nocturia
urgency
straining
recurrent uti

71
Q

assessment for BPH

A

urinalysis
renal function test
bladder scan

72
Q

medication

A

aplha adrenfic blockers - relax the smooth muscle
-doxasoin ( cardura) tamsulosin ( flomax)
reductase inhibtors- interfere with the conversion of testorone
-finsateride(proscar)
saw palmetto-

73
Q

Gerd

A

back flow of the gastric or duodenal contents
due to the lower esophageal sphincter

73
Q

Gerd signs and symptoms

A

pyrosis
dyspepsia
regurgitation
hypersalvation
esiohagitis

73
Q

gerd risk factors

A

overweight
being pregnant
alcohol
weak muscle
hiatal hernia
smoking

74
Q

GERD Management

A

avoid coffee, tobacco, alcohol, milk, foods with peppermint, carbonated drinks
avoid drinking and eating 2hrs before bed
maintain normal body weight

75
Q

GERD MEDICATION

A

histamine 2 antagonist- reduce stomach acid
-famotide( Pepcid), Cimetide (tagamet)
bpi-inhibits the proton pumps
-prazole
antacids- neutralize the stomach acid
-carbonates

76
Q

what is the job of a endoscopy

A

asses for motility, abnormal, inflammations , or infections

77
Q

what is elimination

A

expulstion of waste matter from the body

78
Q

diarrhea

A

frequency of bowel movement and liquidity

79
Q

what is diarrhea patho, risk factors, and symptoms and assessments

A
  1. rapidly moved contents that hasnt be absorbed in timed
    2.antibitiocs, bowel disesese, food intolerance, go infection, hyperthyroidism, chrons
    3.water stool, impaired skin integrity around the rectum cramps and bloating
80
Q

diarrhea medications

A

antidiarrheals-slowing down the movement
-lopermide(Imodium)

81
Q

c-diff

A

bacteria that causes infection in the LARGE INSTINE
risk factor- antibiotic therapy, loss of gut flora, impaired immune system

82
Q

Cliff symptoms

A

increased WBC
water diarrhea 10-15day
fever

83
Q

stress incontince

A

pressure with laughing, sneezing, or lifting

83
Q

how can u treat c-difff

A

vancomycin
probiotics

84
Q

consitpation

A

decrease in the frequency of bowel sounds

85
Q

medications for consitpation

A

1.osmatic stimulants- pulls waters from surround tissue
-magnism
2. stimulant laxatives - increase muscle contraction
-bisccodyl
3. Gi stimulant -incresse the motility
-metoclopramide(reglan)
enemas

85
Q

consipation patho,risk,signs and symptoms

A
  1. slow movement
  2. frequent laxities,age, inaduqete food and fiber intake, medication
  3. straining, hard feces,
86
Q

overflow

A

loss of small amounts of urine due to obstruction

87
Q

urge

A

can’t stop urine flow long enough to reach the bathroom

88
Q

functional

A

mobility or environmental barriers

88
Q

spiral facture

A

a twist around the shaft bone

88
Q

reflex

A

due to cns impairment

88
Q

greenstick fracture

A

a fracture in which one bone is broken and the other is bent

89
Q

transit

A

re erasable incontince

90
Q

open fracture

A

invokes the skin and mucous membranes

90
Q

depressed fracture

A

a inward fragment

91
Q

commented

A

several fragments

92
Q

NSAIDS

A

ibuprofen and naproxen
fever and inflammation
blocks cox 1and 2
SE-stomach ulcers, indigestion

92
Q

what are salicylates meds for and drug

A

aspirin,bayer
fever and inflmation
inhibits cox 1and2
SE- bleeding, tinnitus

93
Q

osteoporosis

A

reduction in bone density and change bone structure
risk - white women
asian women
poor diet low ca+ and vitamin d
lack of excersie
greater than 2.5

93
Q

corticosteroids

A

prednisone
decrease inflmation and suppress immune system
SE- fluid retention, High BP, hyperglycemia

93
Q

cox 2 inhibitors

A

stimulant the inflammatory response
Celebrex
SE_ stomach pain

94
Q
A
94
Q
A
94
Q
A
95
Q
A
96
Q
A
96
Q
A
97
Q
A