med surg - idk if some of these are even right

Question 1

A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation exhibits a rise in her baseline systolic blood pressure of 32mmHg, a weight gain of 4 kgs since last week and difficulty removing rings she normally wears. This is suggestive of

a) Gestational hypertension
b) Pre eclampsia
c) Eclampsia
d) Elevated liver enzymes

Question 2

The primary pathophysiologic basis for the clinical manifestations of pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH) is

a) Fluid retention related to excessive salt intake
b) Ineffective excretion of fluid by the kidneys
c) Cardiac decompensation
d) Ineffective dilation of the vascular network to accomodate the expanding blood volume of pregnancy

Question 3

Which measure would be least effective in relieving the signs and symptoms of mild pre eclampsia
a) Low salt diet
b) Period of bed rest
c) Balanced diet with protein
d) Relaxation techniques

Question 4

A woman with severe pre eclampsia is being monitored for assessment findings indicative of cerebral oedema and venospasm. Which of the following would you not expect to find
a) Hypotonic deep tendon reflexes
b) Headache
c) Vision changes including blurring and spots before the eyes
d) Insomnia

Question 5

Newly expectant parents, ask the nurse how they can prepare their 3yr old preschool daughter for the new baby. All of the following would be useful except
a) Tell the child about the pregnancy as soon as mother begins to look pregnant
b) Arrange for a few sleep overs with the person who will care for the child at the time of the birth
baby
d) Introduce their child to preschool as soon as possible

Question 6

Which of the following represents a positive change of pregnancy
a) Morning sickness
b) Quickening
c) Positive pregnancy test
d) Foetal heartbeat auscultated with Doppler

Question 7

Which of the following statements can be used as a guideline for planning diets during pregnancy?
a) An increase of 300 calories per day beginning in the first trimester
b) A ten percent increase in protein above daily requirements
c) Iron supplementation is recommended for women whose diets are lacking in iron
d) the requirement for folic acid in increased by 50%

Question 8

Which of the following represents a recommended weight gain during pregnancy?
a) 6-11 kgs
b) 11-16 kgs
c) 13-18 kgs
d) 18-20 kgs

Question 9

During a subsequent visit, Mary states she has begun to feel foetal movement. Foetal movement is usually felt by the pregnant woman when the foetus is approximately
a) 12 weeks gestation
b) 16 weeks gestation
c) 22 weeks gestation
d) 26 weeks gestation

Question 10

Tui k is 22 years old and has missed two of her regular menstrual periods. Her doctor confirms she is pregnant. This is her first pregnancy. Tui can expect to experience all the following signs in the early stages of her pregnancy except
a) Chadwick‟s sign
b) Goodells sign
c) Humans sign
d) Frequency of micturition

Question 11

During Tui’s sixth week of pregnancy she experienced a small episode of vaginal bleeding. You should suspect
a) Placenta previa
b) Urinary tract infection
c) Threatened abortion
d) Abruption placenta

Question 12

Tui asks for advice on diet. Which of the following is the best approach
a) Give her a list of the five basic food groups and tell her to include them in her daily intake
b) Tell her to increase her caloric intake so she gains about 12 kg during the pregnancy
????
d) Take a diet history, analyse it and say what foods she must now omit

Question 13

Anaphylactic shock in a hospitalised patient is most likely to occur as a result of

a) A bee sting

b) Blood loss due to trauma

c) A medication hypersensitivity

d) A food allergy

Answer 13

c) A medication hypersensitivity

Question 14

Uncontrolled severe post-partum haemorrhage is most likely to result in

a) Anaphylactic shock

b) Stillbirth

c) Cardiogenic shock

d) Hypovolaemic shock

Answer 14

d) Hypovolaemic shock

Question 15

Neonatal jaundice is monitored and treated because of the risk of damage to the neonate’s

a) Brain

b) Liver

c) Kidneys

d) Eyesight

Answer 15

a) Brain

Question 16

Which of the following are progestin-only preparations?

a) The contraceptive injection (Depo-Provera)

b) The mini pill

c) Mirena (an IUD)

d) All of the above

Answer 16

d) All of the above

Question 17

A new-born baby with a diabetic mother is most likely to

a) Be microsomic

b) Become hypoglycaemic

c) Be born with Type 1 diabetes

d) Develop hypobilirubinaemia

Answer 17

b) Become hypoglycaemic

Question 17

A couple already have one child with cystic fibrosis, an autosomal recessive disorder. What is the probability that their next child will not have cystic fibrosis?

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 75%

d) 100%

Answer 17

c) 75%

Question 18

A baby born to a Hepatitis B positive mother is recommended to receive

a) Hep B immunoglobulin

b) Hep B immunisation

c) A and B above

d) Infant formula

Answer 18

c) A and B above

Question 19

Pregnant women should not handle cat litter because of the risk of

a) listeriosis

b) Strep B

c) Chlamydia

d) Toxoplasmosis

Answer 19

d) Toxoplasmosis

Question 20

The risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease is decreased by an increase in:

a) HDL levels in the bloodstream.

b) Saturated fat in the diet.

c) Total cholesterol level in the bloodstream.

d) LDL levels in the bloodstream.

Answer 20

a) HDL levels in the bloodstream.

Question 21

A drug often given as premedication to reduce anxiety before endoscopy and to cause amnesia afterwards is:

a) Nitrous oxide

b) Midazolam

c) Fentanyl

d) Paracetamol

Answer 21

b) Midazolam

Question 22

Which of the following drugs is NOT a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)?

a) Naproxen

b) Diclofenac

c) Ibuprofen

d) Tramadol

Answer 22

d) Tramadol

Question 23

Naloxone (trade name Narcan) is a:

a) Non-narcotic analgesic

b) Narcotic antagonist

c) Muscle relaxant

d) Narcotic agonist

Answer 23

b) Narcotic antagonist

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT likely to happen in anaphylactic shock?

a) Increase in blood pressure

b) Vasodilation

c) Laryngeal oedema

d) Bronchoconstriction

Answer 24

a) Increase in blood pressure

Question 25

Primary hypercholesterolemia is a result of:

a) Diabetes mellitus

b) Obesity

c) Hypertension

d) Inherited genes

Answer 25

d) Inherited genes

Question 26

Atherosclerosis increases the risk of all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Stroke

b) Diabetes mellitus

c) Peripheral vascular disease

d) Angina

Answer 26

b) Diabetes mellitus

Question 27

Excessive vomiting is most likely to cause

a) Lactic acidosis

b) Metabolic alkalosis

c) Respiratory alkalosis

d) Metabolic acidosis

Answer 27

b) Metabolic alkalosis

Question 28

Chemotherapy with cytotoxic drugs:

a) Causes an increase in the number of white blood cells.

b) Is never used systemically because the drugs are too toxic.

c) Often involves the use of several different drugs at the same time.

d) Stimulates cell division in the bone marrow.

Answer 28

c) Often involves the use of several different drugs at the same time.

Question 28

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a) Aspirin has been linked to Reye’s Syndrome in children.

b) Paracetamol overdose can cause fatal liver damage.

c) Overuse of NSAIDs can cause a fatal GI bleed.

d) Paracetamol has analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.

Answer 28

d) Paracetamol has analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.

Question 29

Which of the following statements about tumours is TRUE?

a) Malignant tumours of epithelial tissues are called carcinomas.

b) Secondary tumours in the liver occur when liver cells become cancerous.

c) Metastasis is when cancer cells invade healthy tissue around the tumour site.

d) Malignant tumours are usually surrounded by a capsule.

Answer 29

a) Malignant tumours of epithelial tissues are called carcinomas.

Question 30

In spinal anaesthesia, the anaesthetic is administered into the

a) Epidural space

b) Spinal cord

c) Subarachnoid space

d) Pudendal nerve

Answer 30

c) Subarachnoid space

Question 31

The mode of action of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is they

a) Bind to opioid receptors in the central nervous system

b) Inhibit the prostaglandin-producing COX enzyme

c) Bind to H1 histamine receptors in peripheral tissues

d) Inhibit acetylcholinesterase in neuromuscular junctions

Answer 31

b) Inhibit the prostaglandin-producing COX enzyme

Question 32

The arterial blood pressure that a ventricle must overcome in order to eject blood is the

a) Afterload

b) Venous return

c) Preload

d) Stroke volume

Answer 32

a) Afterload

Question 33

Immunisation against Covid-19 is an example of

a) Artificially-acquired active immunity

b) Artificially-acquired passive immunity

c) Naturally-acquired active immunity

d) Naturally-acquired passive immunity

Answer 33

a) Artificially-acquired active immunity

Question 33

Which of the following would cause stroke volume to increase?

a) Decreased blood volume

b) Decreased preload

c) Haemorrhage

d) Increased venous return

Answer 33

d) Increased venous return

Question 34

Untreated rheumatic fever is dangerous because of the damage it can cause to the:

a) Brain

b) Joints

c) Liver

d) Heart

Answer 34

d) Heart

Question 35

With reference to antibiotic sensitivity testing, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a) One common test used is the disc diffusion method where the antibiotics are placed on discs on an agar plate covered with the pathogen.

b) Antibiotic sensitivity testing measures the sensitivity of the patient to particular antibiotics.

c) These tests usually take 2-3 days and it is often necessary to start antibiotic treatment before the results come back.

d) Antibiotic resistance is what bacteria have when they are no longer sensitive to a particular antibiotic.

Answer 35

b) Antibiotic sensitivity testing measures the sensitivity of the patient to particular antibiotics.