Med Surg Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What does ADPIE stand for?

A

Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

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2
Q

What do you do during the assessment phase?

A

Gather info, review history

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3
Q

Most communication takes place in the____ stage

A

assessment

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4
Q

What do you do during the diagnosis phase?

A

identify problem list

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5
Q

What do you do during the planning phase?

A

develop goals, desired outcomes

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6
Q

What do you do during the implementation phase?

A

perform nursing actions

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7
Q

What do you do during the evaluation phase?

A

determine whether goals were achieved

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8
Q

Therapeutic communication

A

face to face process of interacting that focuses on advancing the physical and emotional well being of a patient

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9
Q

Nurses use therapeutic communication to provide_____ and _____ to patients

A

support and information

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10
Q

Examples of personal factors that can impede accurate communication

A

emotional and social support, cultural and language difference, lifestyle differences, cognitive factors

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11
Q

Examples of environmental factors that can impede accurate communication

A

physical factors and societal factors

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12
Q

Examples of symmetrical relationships

A

equal:friends and colleagues

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13
Q

Examples of complementary relationships

A

unequal: difference in status and power such as between a nurse and patient or teach and student

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14
Q

Communication is __% verbal and __% nonverbal

A

10%, 90%
about how you say it not what you say

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15
Q

Verbal Language

A

represents public self
can be straight forward comments or can be used to distort, conceal, deny or distinguish true feelings

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16
Q

Verbal communication is

A

language

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17
Q

Nonverbal communication is

A

body language

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18
Q

Nonverbal communication

A

covers wide range of human activities from body movements to responses to messages of others

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19
Q

Double messages

A

are conflicting messages or mixed messages

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20
Q

Types of nonverbal communication

A

facial expressions, touch, eye contact, posture, gait, gestures, general physical appearance, mode of dressing and grooming, sounds and silence, electronic communication

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21
Q

Effective communication skills include

A

appropriate, sensitive use of silence
active listening
clarifying techniques, paraphrasing(restating and reflection of feelings)
exploring
projective questions(what if)
presupposition questions(assumed to be true, left unstated)

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22
Q

Everything you hear is ___ by the patients filters and your own filters

A

modified

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23
Q

Active listening principles strengthens the patients ability to use____ to solve problems

A

critical thinking

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24
Q

Undivided attention is when the nurse communicates patient is

A

not alone

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25
Q

Problematic areas for the nurse when interpreting specific verbal and nonverbal messages of the patient include

A

communication
use of eye contact
perception of touch
cultural filters

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26
Q

Therapeutic communication techniques

A

using silence
summarizing
offering self
giving recognition
accepting
voicing doubt

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27
Q

Non therapeutic communication

A

Asking excessive questions
disapproving
asking why questions
minimizing feelings

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28
Q

Aims of patient education

A

maintaining and promoting health
preventing illness
restoring health
facilitating cooping

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29
Q

Cognitive learning domain

A

storing and recalling of new knowledge in the brain

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30
Q

Psychomotor learning domain

A

learning a physical skill

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31
Q

Affective learning domain

A

changing attitudes, values, and feelings

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32
Q

Which action is an example of cognitive learning?
A. A patient demonstrates how to change his wound
dressing.
B. A new mother follows instructions for caring for the
umbilical cord.
C. A patient describes how to portion food to maintain
within a prescribed calorie range.
D. A patient expresses renewed confidence following a
teaching session on caring for her mother at home.

A

C. A patient describes how to portion food to maintain
within a prescribed calorie range.

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33
Q

Factors affecting patient learning

A

age and developmental level
family support networks
financial resources
cultural influences
language deficits
health literacy level

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34
Q

What does ISBARR stands for

A

Identify/info
Situation
Background
Assessment
Recommendation
Read back of orders/response

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35
Q

What happens during the situation part of ISBARR

A

vital signs obtained, stress concerns

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36
Q

What happens during the background part of ISBARR

A

check mental status, skin observation

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37
Q

What happens during change of shift/hand off reports

A

-basic identifying info about each patient(name, room #, bed designation, diagnosis, attending and consulting physicians
-current appraisal of each patients health status
-current orders
-abnormal occurrences during change
-any unfilled orders that need to be continued
-patient and family questions and concerns
-reports on transfers and discharge

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38
Q

What are the 4 p’s

A

pain, position, potty, and proximity

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39
Q

Traditional knowledge

A

passed down from generation to generation

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40
Q

Authoritative knowledge

A

comes from expert, accepted as truth based on persons perceived expertise

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41
Q

Scientific knowledge

A

obtained through scientific method of research

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42
Q

T/F
Traditional and authoritative knowledge are
practical to implement, but are often based on subjective
data, limiting their usefulness in a wide variety of settings.

A

true

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43
Q

Types of nursing knowledge

A

science
philosophy
process

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44
Q

Science nursing knowledge

A

knowledge in and out of nursing

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45
Q

Philosophy nursing knowledge

A

study of wisdom, fundamental knowledge and process used to constrict life

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46
Q

Process nursing knowledge

A

conceptual frameworks and theories

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47
Q

Influences on nursing knowledge

A

historical
societal

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48
Q

Culture

A

shared beliefs system, values and behavioral expectations that provide social structure for daily living
Define roles and interactions with others and in families and communities

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49
Q

True or false.
Culture includes the beliefs, habits, likes and dislikes, and customs and rituals learned from one’s family.

A

true

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50
Q

Subculture

A

Large group of people who are members of a
larger cultural group

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51
Q

Example of subculture

A

nursing is the subculture of healthcare

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52
Q

Groups in society are

A

dominant group
minority group

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53
Q

Dominant group

A

-usuallty the largest group
Group has the most authority to control values and
sanctions of society

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54
Q

Minority group

A

smaller group
A physical or cultural characteristic identifies the people
as different from dominant group.

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55
Q

Cultural assimilation (acculturation)

A

Minorities living within a dominant group lose the characteristics that made them different.
Values replaced by those of dominant culture

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56
Q

Culture shock

A

The feelings a person experiences when placed in a different culture
May result in psychological discomfort or disturbances

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57
Q

Which of the following occurs when members of a minority group, living with a dominant group,
begins to blend in and lose the characteristics that
made them distinct?
A. Cultural imposition
B. Cultural conflict
C. Cultural assimilation (acculturation)
D. Cultural shock

A

Cultural Assimilation

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58
Q

Ethnicity

A

Sense of identification with a collective cultural group
shared identity, bond or kinship people feel with their country of birth or place of ancestral origin. Largely
based on group’s common heritage

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59
Q

Race

A

Typically based on specific characteristics
Skin pigmentation, body stature, facial features, hair
texture

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60
Q

Stereotyping

A

The assumption that all members of a culture or ethnic group act alike

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61
Q

Stereotypes are ___ and ___ beliefs about people

A

preconceived and untested

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62
Q

Negative stereotypes are

A

racism, sexism, ageism

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63
Q

Cultural imposition

A

Belief that everyone should conform to the majority belief
system

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64
Q

Cultural blindness

A

Ignores differences and proceeds as if they did not exist

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65
Q

Culture conflict

A

People become aware of differences and feel threatened.
Response—ridiculing beliefs and traditions of others to make themselves feel more secure

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66
Q

Ethnocentrism

A

Belief that one’s ideas, beliefs, and practice are the best or superior, or are most preferred to those
of others

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67
Q

Which term describes what occurs when a nurse believes that one’s own ideas, beliefs, and
practices are the best or superior to those of colleagues and patients?

A

Ethnocentrism

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68
Q

Cultural Influences on Health Care

A

Physiologic variations
Reactions to pain
Mental health
Gender roles
Language and communication Orientation to space and time(sitting too close/too far from patient
Family support
Socioeconomic factors
food and nutrition

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69
Q

Be sensitive to nonverbal signals of discomfort such as

A

holding or applying pressure to the painful area or avoiding activities that intensify the pain.

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70
Q

T/F
The health care system is a culture of its own, with nursing being its largest subculture.

A

true

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71
Q

Religious beliefs may prohibit the presence of males, including husbands, in the delivery room.
This may be observed among

A

devout Hindus and Orthodox Jews

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72
Q

Traditional Western medicine uses medication administration as a method of

A

treatment

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73
Q

Encourage caregivers to participate in spiritual behaviors or practices such as____to enhance spiritual well-being when appropriate.

A

prayer, attending religious services

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74
Q

Orthodox Jews maintain a Kosher diet which excludes

A

seafood

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75
Q

Buddhist belief to not move deceased patient until

A

cold

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76
Q

The Islamic religion does not prefer the use of health care
professionals of the___unless it is difficult to locate one of the same gender.

A

opposite gender

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77
Q

____woman usually bathed and cared for by family members
post-op and/or while hospitalized

A

Chinese

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78
Q

What are the elements of cultural competence

A

Developing self-awareness
Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of a patient’s culture
Accepting and respecting cultural differences
Not assuming that the health care provider’s beliefs and values are the same as the client’s
Resisting judgmental attitudes such as “different is not as good”
Being open to and comfortable with cultural encounters
Accepting responsibility for one’s own cultural competency

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79
Q

Who may refuse breathing exercises and performing own hygienic care

A

Chinese women

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80
Q

A nurse is conducting an intake interview with a client. Which should the nurse do to best facilitate
therapeutic communication with this client?
A. Talk about expectations.
B. Use probing questions.
C. Ask direct questions.
D. Listen attentively

A

D. Listen attentively

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81
Q

A client’s son has just died. The client states, “I can’t believe that I have lost my son. Can you
believe it?” Which is the nurse’s best response?
A. Touch the client’s hand and say, “I am very sorry.”
B. Leave the room and allow the client to grieve in private.
C. Encourage a family member to stay and provide support.
D. Assume a serious facial expression and say, “I can’t believe it either.”

A

A. Touch the client’s hand and say, “I am very sorry.”

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82
Q

A nurse identifies that a usually talkative client is withdrawn. Which is the nurse’s best response?
A. “What is bothering you?”
B. “You are very quiet today.”
C. “Tell me what you’re upset about.”
D. “Why are you so withdrawn today?”

A

B. “You are very quiet today.”

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83
Q

A client is being discharged to a nursing home. While preparing the discharge summary, the client
says, “I feel that nobody cares about me.” Which is the nurse’s best response?
A. “You feel as if nobody cares.”
B. “We all are concerned about you.”
C. “It’s hard to be angry at your family.”
D. “Your family doesn’t have the skills to care for you

A

A. “You feel as if nobody cares.”

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84
Q

A client tells the nurse, “The doctor just told me I have cancer” and then begins to cry. Which is the
best response by the nurse?
A. “Try to focus on something else.”
B. “Sometimes it helps to talk about it.”
C. “Deep breathing may help you regain control.”
D. “Tears are good because it gets it out of your system.”

A

B. “Sometimes it helps to talk about it.”

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85
Q

. A client has a history of verbally aggressive behavior. One afternoon the client starts to shout at
another client in the lounge. Which are appropriate responses by the nurse? Select all that apply.
A. ____ “Stop what you are doing.”
B. ____ “Let’s go talk in your room.”
C. ____ “Sit down until you are calm.”
D. ____ “Come with me for a walk in the hall.”
E. ____ “Do not raise your voice in a hospital.”

A

B. ____ “Let’s go talk in your room.”
D. ____ “Come with me for a walk in the hall.”

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86
Q

A nurse is collecting data for an admission nursing history. Which question by the nurse is best to
open the discussion?
A. “What brought you to the hospital?”
B. “Would it help to discuss your feelings?”
C. “Do you want to talk about your concerns?”
D. “Would you like to talk about why you are here?”

A

A. “What brought you to the hospital?”

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87
Q

A nurse is using military time when entering information into a patient’s clinical record. Which
number in military time should the nurse enter to document a wound irrigation that was
implemented at 9 p.m.?
A. 0900
B. 1900
C. 2100
D. 2300

A

C. 2100

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88
Q

A nurse is caring for a confused patient with a diagnosis of dementia of the Alzheimer’s type. Which
should the nurse say when assisting the patient to eat?
A. “Please eat your meat.”
B. “It’s important that you eat.”
C. “What would you like to eat?”
D. “If you don’t eat, you can’t have dessert.”

A

A. “Please eat your meat.”

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89
Q

A mother whose young daughter has died of leukemia is crying and is unable to talk about her
feelings. Which is the best response by the nurse?
A. “Everyone will remember her because she was so cute. She was one of our favorites.”
B. “As hard as this is, it is probably for the best because she was in a lot of pain.”
C. “She put up the good fight but now she is out of pain and in heaven.”
D. “It must be hard to deal with such a precious loss.”

A

D. “It must be hard to deal with such a precious loss.”

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90
Q

A patient states, “My wife is going to be very upset that my prostate surgery probably is going to
leave me impotent.” Which is the best response by the nurse?
A. “I’m sure your wife will be willing to make this sacrifice in exchange for your well-being.”
B. “The surgeons are getting great results with nerve-sparing surgery today.”
C. “Your wife may not put as much emphasis on sex as you think.”
D. “Let’s talk about how you feel about this surgery.”

A

D. “Let’s talk about how you feel about this surgery.”

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91
Q

Which should a nurse never do when documenting information on a patient’s electronic medical
record? Select all that apply.
A. _____ Leave the patient’s medical record open on the computer screen when entering the patient’s
room to administer a medication.
B. _____ Share information verbally about a patient with another nurse who is also caring for the
patient.
C. _____ Document nursing care administered to a patient immediately after it is completed.
D. _____Give a personal access code to another member of the health-care team.
E. _____Document exact quotes of a patient’s subjective information.

A

A. _____ Leave the patient’s medical record open on the computer screen when entering the patient’s
D. _____Give a personal access code to another member of the health-care team.

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92
Q

A client is admitted to the hospital with multiple health problems. Which nursing intervention is
least effective in meeting the client’s psychosocial needs?
A. Addressing the client by name
B. Assisting the client with meals
C. Identifying achievement of client goals
D. Explaining care before it is to be given to the client

A

B. Assisting the client with meals

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93
Q

Examples of Nursing Diagnosis associated with Nutrition

A

-Impaired swallowing
-Dysfunctional Gastrointestinal Motility
-Imbalanced Nutrition:Less Than Body Requirements
- Impaired Oral Mucous Membrane
-Nausea

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94
Q

Autonomy

A

self sufficiency-competent

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95
Q

In safety, if you see something, you _____ _____

A

say something
not a solo efforts-works as a team

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96
Q

Beneficence

A

kind and true

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97
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

no harm

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98
Q

Justice

A

honest and fair

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99
Q

A go kit for yourself and family is used for

A

shelter in place or evacuation-circumstance specific

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100
Q

Individual readiness

A

General disaster readiness for
individual healthcare workers and their family and significant others is essential for a readied workforce
and critical to the national preparedness goal

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101
Q

What is the acronym we use for fire safety?

A

RACE

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102
Q

R is race stands for

A

rescue anyone in immediate danger

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103
Q

The A in RACE stands for

A

activate fire code system and notify
appropriate personnel

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104
Q

The C in RACE stands for

A

confine fire by closing doors and windows

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105
Q

The E in RACE stands for

A

evacuate patients and persons to a safe area

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106
Q

Institution policy usually identifies plans for

A

vertical, horizontal or both

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107
Q

Critical policy points include

A

-planned rendezvous locations
-accountability of personnel and patients

108
Q

Types of hazards include

A

CBRNE
-Chemical
-Biological(includes infection)
-Radiation(includes nuclear)
-Natural(includes flood, fire, wind)
-Explosives

109
Q

Alpha particles

A

do not penetrate deep enough to penetrate dead layers of intact skin and can be shielded using a thin layer of clothing or paper

110
Q

How to get rid of external contamination

A

remove clothing and shower with soap and water

111
Q

How to get rid of internal contamination

A

-incorporated in body
need medicine to help excrete it

112
Q

Beta particles

A

can penetrate human skin to the germinal layer
– standard PPE provides some protection against most beta participle’s

113
Q

Gamma particles

A

can penetrate into human tissue. Dense materials (lead, concrete) needed for shielding. PPE provides little shielding from gamma radiation but will prevent contamination of the skin by these materials. Gamma radiation frequently accompanies the emission of alpha and beta radiation.

114
Q

How do you remove external contamination

A

removing clothing by rolling OUTSIDE to INSIDE to contain it

115
Q

Internal contamination can occur by

A

-inhalation
-ingestion
-absorption(skin, mucous membrane)
-injected

116
Q

Internal contamination half-life can be reduced by administering

A

-Prussian blue
–DTPA (Diethylenediamine Penta-Acetate)

117
Q

Exposed radiological patients are

A

not contaminated
ex-laying on the beach, having an X-ray

118
Q

What are the 4 phases of emergency management phases

A

-Prevention
-Preparedness
-Response
-Recovery

119
Q

Prevention phase

A

(occurs before)/Mitigation (occurs before and then during and after to reduce new identified risks)
- Identify what can cause a fire, create Emergency Operation Plan (All Hazard Policy)

120
Q

Preparedness phase

A

(occurs before)
-Education, training such as learning to use a fire extinguisher (PASS – Pull Pin, Aim, Squeeze trigger, Sweep)

121
Q

Response phase

A

(occurs during) –
-Fire Alarming for incident - Evacuate floor

122
Q

Recovery phase

A

(occurs after) –
-Return to pre-incident operations – wellbeing, basics needs(food, water, shelter), emotional needs

123
Q

Examples of internal disaster

A

fire

124
Q

Examples of external disaster

A

hurricane, tornado

125
Q

Examples of medical countermeasures

A

-biological products of vaccines, blood products, antibodies
-drugs
-Devices(PPE, face masks, gloves, respirators)

126
Q

Examples of administrative measures

A

Policy and procedures – requiring the use of isolation categories

127
Q

Examples of environmental countermeasures

A

Negative pressure room, anterooms, HEPA filters

128
Q

What is the best precaution to control infection

A

hand hygiene

129
Q

Hierarchy of infection control practices(from top to bottom)

A

-elimination(physically remove hazard)
-substitution(replace hazard)
-engineering controls(isolate people from hazard)
-administrative control(change way people work)
-PPE(protects workers)

130
Q

PPE has

A

expiration dates
-recommended to only use NIOSH approved equipment

131
Q

What are the steps of donning?

A
  1. Gown
  2. Mask or respirator
  3. Goggles or face shield
  4. Gloves
132
Q

What are the steps of removing donning?

A

1.Gloves
2. Goggles or face shield
3.Gown
4. Mask or respirator
5. Wash hands

133
Q

For contact precautions, you need

A

gloves and a gown at minimal

134
Q

For droplet precautions, you need

A

a mask

135
Q

For airborne precautions, you need

A

particular respirator

136
Q

Example of enteric contact

A

C. diff

137
Q

For enteric contact, you need

A

gloves upon entering room
Must use soap and water for at least 20 seconds

138
Q

For airborne, you wear a N95 respirator which

A

filters airborne droplet nuclei particles that are 0.3 microns or larger, fit tested annually.

139
Q

Level A of PPE

A

selected when the greatest level of skin, respiratory and eye protection is required

140
Q

Level B of PPE

A

Usually first responder, includes the highest level of respiratory protection, SCBA but with a lesser chemical resistant skin protection than LEVEL A.
-Breathing apparatus, air source tank

141
Q

Level C of PPE

A

The concentration and types of airborne substances is known and the criteria for using air purifying respirators are met

142
Q

Level D of PPE

A

-work clothing
-Basic splash and respiratory protection

143
Q

When using a fire extinguisher, the first step in PASS is:

A

Pull the pin

144
Q

A building’s fire alarm system function that provides the earliest warning of a fire is
A. Sprinklers
B. Employees
C. Smoke detectors
D. Public address system

A

C. Smoke Detecters

145
Q

Which of the following statements are true: (select all the apply)
A. Elevators can be used to evacuate a building on fire.
B. The most likely route for evacuation of patients is down stairwells.
C. Sprinklers are activated automatically by heat.
D. The risk of fire is higher when construction activity is present.

A

B. The most likely route for evacuation of patients is down stairwells.
C. Sprinklers are activated automatically by heat.
D. The risk of fire is higher when construction activity is present.

146
Q

There is a fire is a microwave oven. You activate the alarm, ask another staff member to call
security and you locate the nearest fire extinguisher. Which of the following steps is
incorrect:
A. Pull the pin with the fire extinguisher upright
B. Aim at the base of the flames
C. Squeeze the lever while sweeping the nozzle slowly back and forth
D. Replace the fire extinguisher in its original position when the fire is safely out

A

D. Replace the fire extinguisher in its original position when the fire is safely out

147
Q

The purpose of closing doors during a fire is to
A. Contain
B. Rescue
C. Alarm
D. Evacuate

A

A.Contain

148
Q

If a fire alarm is sounded, the fire/smoke zone doors as part of a building fire alarm system
will:
A. Close automatically
B. Should be propped open to facilitate lateral evacuation
C. Will remain open until someone closes them
D. Will remain in their usual position

A

A. Close automatically

149
Q
  1. A lateral evacuation of a patient care area involves:
    A. Closing all patient care and other doors on the unit
    B. Evacuating the patient through the smoke/fire to a safe zone
    C. Conducting a head count of all patients and staff in the safe zone
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

150
Q

The fire alarms sound on a patient care unit. You begin closing doors. A visitor asks nervously
what is going on. You respond:
A. The hospital has frequent fire drills and closing all doors is a part of our fire action plan
B. There is a fire close by and we should prepare to evacuate
C. I’m not sure what is going on!

A

B. There is a fire close by and we should prepare to evacuate

151
Q

A visitor decides to break the rules by having a quick cigarette in the bathroom. He
accidentally drops the cigarette into the trashcan and a fire ignites. Which of the following
statements are true: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.
A. Patients in the room should be removed from the room
B. Visitors should be removed from the room
C. Occupants of adjacent rooms may need to be moved as a precautionary measure.
D. There is no need to activate a pull station since the fire can be easily extinguished.

A

A. Patients in the room should be removed from the room
B. Visitors should be removed from the room
C. Occupants of adjacent rooms may need to be moved as a precautionary measure.

152
Q

Sprinklers are activated when:
A. There is smoke in an area during a fire
B. Someone activates a pull station during a fire
C. Heat from a fire activates a sprinkler

A

C. Heat from a fire activates a sprinkler

153
Q

When rescuing patients from hospital wing to wing (same level, different buildings), you first
evacuate patients:
A. Horizontally
B. Vertically
C. North
D. South

A

B. Vertically

154
Q

When rescuing patients from hospital wing to wing (same level, different buildings), you first
evacuate patients:
A. Horizontally
B. Vertically
C. North
D. South

A

B. Vertically

155
Q

When rescuing patient from a hospital wing with no connecting building you will evacuate
patients
Horizontally
Vertically
North
South

A

Horizontally

156
Q

A nurse’s priority during a fire is to: (Select all that apply)
A. Patient evacuation
B. Accountability of patients and staff
C. Using the fire extinguisher to put the fire out.

A

A. Patient evacuation
B. Accountability of patients and staff

157
Q

Donning, don the equipment, identify by 1-2-3-4-5 the correct order of PPE, according to the
CDC.
Gown
Eye protection
Hand hygiene
Gloves
Respiratory protection (mask)

A

Gown 2
Eye protection 4
Hand hygiene 1
Gloves 5
Respiratory protection (mask) 3

158
Q

Disease type examples that require an N95

A
  1. TB
  2. Small pox
  3. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
  4. Varicella -zoster
159
Q

Disease/illness types that require a surgical mask

A

RSV) – Respiratory syncytial, influenza, pertussis,

160
Q

Examples of contact isolation

A

impetigo, diphtheria, herpes, enteroviral illness, major abscesses, rotavirus. scabies, Cliff, Hep A, staph, pediculosis, escherichia coli, shigella, viral conjunctivitis,

161
Q

Examples of droplet isolation

A

pneumonia, sepsis, meningitis, parvovirus B19, rubella, plague, influenza, strep A, mumps, pertussis,

162
Q

Examples of airborne isolation

A

SARS, TB, small pox, measles, varicella,

163
Q

ostomy

A

small/large bowel is brought to outside of the skin(surface)and is attached the abdomen and then will be removed

164
Q

T/F you want your patient to void first when obtaining a stool collection

A

True

165
Q

Tell whether the following statement is true or false.
When collecting stool using the technique “timed specimen,” the nurse should consider the
first stool passed by the patient as the start of the collection period.

A

True

166
Q

Colonoscopy enters through

A

the anus, upon through the colon

167
Q

Which of the following direct visualization tests uses a long, flexible, fiberoptic–lighted
scope to visualize the rectum, colon, and distal small bowel?
A. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Colonoscopy
C. Sigmoidoscopy
D. UGI series

A

B. colonoscopy

168
Q

Enema

A

bag of fluid that is hung that is entered in anus

169
Q

Types of enemas

A

Cleansing
Retention
Oil-retention: lubricate the stool and intestinal mucosa, easing defecation
Carminative: help expel flatus from the rectum
Medicated: provide medications absorbed through the rectal mucosa
Anthelmintic: destroy intestinal parasites

170
Q

Commonly used enema solutions

A

tap water(hypotonic distends intestine, softens stool), normal saline(isotonic) distends intestine, soften stool(Castile) soap, hypertonic, oil(lubricates)

171
Q

Which enema would be used for a patient with intestinal parasites?
A. Oil-retention enema
B. Carminative enema
C. Nutritive enema
D. Anthelmintic enema

A

D. Anthelmintic enema

172
Q

Nasogastric tube

A

Inserted to decompress or drain the stomach of fluid or unwanted stomach contents
Used to allow the gastrointestinal tract to rest before or after abdominal surgery to promote
healing
Inserted to monitor gastrointestinal bleeding

173
Q

Bowel training programs consist of

A

Manipulate factors within the patient’s control.
-Food and fluid intake, exercise, and time for defecation
-Eliminate a soft, formed stool at regular intervals without laxatives.
-When achieved, continue to offer assistance with toileting at the successful time.

174
Q

T/F Ostomy should always be pink or red and moist/shiny

A

True

175
Q

Locations of ostomies

A

-Sigmoid colostomy
-Descending colostomy
-Transverse colostomy
-Ascending colostomy
-Ileostomy

176
Q

Ileostomy has liquid where a colosctomy has

A

formed stool

177
Q

Illeostomy is spouted at least____ from skin

A

2cm

178
Q

Colostomy is at the

A

mucosa level with the skin

179
Q

Size of stoma should stabilize within

A

6-8 weeks

180
Q

An enterostomal tube may be placed through an opening created into the___ or _____

A

stomach(gastrostomy) or into the jejunum(jejunostomy)

181
Q

What is the preferred site for a patient who are comatose

A

gastronomy

182
Q

What is the preferred site for a patient who are comatose

A

gastronomy

183
Q

What kind of feeding do you give someone with a functioning GI tract

A

enteral feeding
parental for non functioning

184
Q

Short term intervention if gut is not functioning

A

use peripheral without venous access for short time (less than 2 week) or as a bridge to a
central line
Long term use- subclavian vein or peripherially inserted centrl cathether (PICC Line) (more
inF&E lesson)

185
Q

Decompression of GI tract is used to

A

give the bowel a rest-vacuum out stomach contents

186
Q

How do you measure for placement for a tube feeding

A

from the nose to the earlobe to the diploid

187
Q

when inserting an NG placement, instructor the patient to

A

put their chin down to their chest

188
Q

Initial confirmation for checking tube placement

A

X ray of CO2 monitor

189
Q

CO2 detector on the tube end will remain what color if in the stomach(no CO2)

A

Purple
yellow if its in the lungs

190
Q

Gastric pH of stomach

A

5-6

191
Q

short term for enteral feeding is how many weeks

A

4 or less weeks
NG tube or micro bore

192
Q

Raise bed how many degrees if using intermittent feedings

A

30-45 degrees

193
Q

Dumping syndrome

A

feeding too quickly and entering small intestine too fast causing nausea, weakness sweating and diarrhea

194
Q

When do you use parenteral feeding

A

when gut needs to heal or is not functioning

195
Q

How long do you use a parenteral feeding

A

less than 2 weeks

196
Q

Severity

A

low acuity, pt is less complexed and more stable

197
Q

High acuity

A

more complexed, less stable

198
Q

Homeostasis

A

A relative stable equilibrium is the state between interdependent elements,
especially as maintained by physiological processes in the human body.

199
Q

allostasis

A

the process by which the body responds to stressors in order to regain homeostasis.

200
Q

When a system is maintaining balance, it is in state of

A

homeostasis

201
Q

When a system is out of balance, it is in

A

allostasis

202
Q

Top players to receive oxygen

A

heart, brain, head lungs
stomach and kidneys are lower

203
Q

What are the critical value for a nurse to know for BP?

A

less than 120/80 is normal, 120-139
/80-89 is prehypertensive and 140/90 is considered hypertensive.

204
Q

hypotensive

A

systolic at 90-115 is considered hypotensive but can be a normal
finding in an athlete. So you need to assess other factors to determine if it is a pathological low
BP.

205
Q

Primary

A

promotion of health

206
Q

Secondary care

A

screening for early diagnosis and treatment

207
Q

Tertiary care

A

treatment for restoration and rehabilitation

208
Q

BP measures____ while acuity is _____

A

tissue perfusion, how sick is sick

209
Q

Bedside tilt factors

A

-systolic of +/- 20
-diastolic+/- 10
-HR increase by 20

210
Q

Positive tilt factors

A

-decrease in systolic by 20
-decrease in diastolic by 10
-HR increases by 20

211
Q

Delegation

A

the process for a nurse to direct another person to
perform nursing tasks and activities.

212
Q

Rules of Delegation

A

-Right Circumstances
-Right Task
-Right Person
-Right Direction and Communication
e. Right Supervision and Evaluation

213
Q

Delegation requires nursing judgement decision that are always

A

outcome focused and includes prioritization

214
Q

Hypoxia

A

inadequate amount of oxygen
available to cells.

215
Q

Hypercapnia is

A

CO2 retention

216
Q

When hypoxia occurs the body tends to

A

hyperventilate to bring in more air (oxygen) and
more CO2 is expelled

217
Q

General Adaptation syndrome

A

emerges when patient is sick, response to stress
3 stages- alarm reaction, resistance and exhaustion

218
Q

Temp

A

status of environment cellular function or organ and tissue

219
Q

Heart rate

A

circulatory ability, tissue perfusion

220
Q

Respiration

A

O2/CO2 of gas exchange, stability within body, ability to support tissue perfusion of homeostasis

221
Q

BP

A

circulation of tissue perfusion

222
Q

Vital signs

A

major indicator of problem, can depend on institution

223
Q

Standing orders

A

orders set preapporved

224
Q

1st level of delegation

A

vitals, airway breathing, circulation

225
Q

2nd level of delegation

A

acute, mental status change, elimination problems

226
Q

3rd level of delegation

A

more long term

227
Q

chemoreceptors

A

specialized cells capable of detecting O2, CO2 and hydrogen concentration changes

228
Q

where are the central chemoreceptors located?

A

in the brain stem medulla

229
Q

central chemoreceptors

A

normal respiratory drive, stimulated by increase in CO2, ventilatory drive and rids body of CO2

230
Q

where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located?

A

in carotid/aortic bodies

231
Q

peripheral chemoreceptors

A

stimulated by decrease in PO2, account for increased ventilation resulting from hypoxemia, monitor in arterial blood

232
Q

normal breathing

A

rids body of CO2 + brings in O2, increases CO2 value, the most potent + PRIMARY stimulus to brain, stimulates ventilation

233
Q

volume

A

big/small breath flow (ease of breath)

234
Q

pressure

A

force of breath

235
Q

inhale

A

diaphragm contracts

236
Q

exhale

A

diaphragm relaxes

237
Q

airway resistance

A

opposition ventilation, when airway narrows resistance increases and flow decreases

238
Q

lung compliance

A

flexible, stretch lungs

239
Q

lung elasticity

A

lung tissue expands inhalance and recoils expiration

240
Q

surfactant

A

reduce surface tension and keeps alveoli open

241
Q

oxygenation

A

delivers O2 saturated blood to tissues

242
Q

ventilation

A

exchanges gases, removal of CO2 from body

243
Q

Hypoxia

A

Inadequate amount of O2, leads to hyperventilation

244
Q

Hypercapnia

A

CO2 retention, occurs when CO2 is not diffused fro blood

245
Q

PAO2

A

O2 in alveoli

246
Q

FIO2

A

fraction inspired O2

247
Q

respiratory quotient

A

valued on diet and metabolic state

248
Q

PEEP stands for

A

Positive End Expiratory Pressure

249
Q

recruits airflow to aid gas exchange

A

PEEP

250
Q

Interventions to improve perfusion

A

Positioning height of bed, adequate hydration, lip breathing, chest PT, deep breathing exercises, diaphragmatic breathing

251
Q

BLS airway

A

Oropharyngeal, nasal trumpet, head tilt chin lift, jaw thrust

252
Q

meds inhaled directly into lungs

A

nebulizers, metered doses and dry powder inhalers

253
Q

BVM

A

use 1 hand, 2 can be too large, match bagging rate

254
Q

Oropharyngeal airway

A

measure center mouth/jaw to earlobe

255
Q

oxygen airways

A

jaw thrust, head tilt chin lift

256
Q

SPO2

A

% of saturated hemoglobin compared to total amount of hemoglobin in blood (goal-95%)

257
Q

ETCO2

A

immediate evaluation of CO2 elimination

258
Q

normal ETCO2

A

35-45

259
Q

hypoxemia levels

A

PAO2 < 60, SAO2 < 90

260
Q

O2 toxicity

A

decreases surfactant (affects alveoli fn), pulmonary edema

261
Q

COPD pathophysiology

A

resp. system becomes insensitive to normal fluctuations of CO2

262
Q

example of high flow delivery

A

nasal cannula

263
Q

nasal cannula

A

delivers heated humidified O2

264
Q

noninvasive ventilation

A

applies pressure to support upper airway, decreased work of breathing, increased lung compliance, improved pulmonary ventilation

265
Q

perfusion

A

blood flow to lungs

266
Q

BiPAP

A

works on “natural” airway pressure changes

267
Q

CPAP

A

provides continuous pressure on airways at all times so “small” airways don’t collapse and airway pressure is maintained (allows for gas exchange)