Med Surg Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of the kidney’s in regulating the body’s fuid volume and and composition?

A

Regulates ECF volume and osmolality by excreting/retaining body fluids
Regulates electrolytes by selective retention of electrolytes or excretion of hydrogen ions
Regulates ECF by excretion or retention of hydrogen ions
Excretion of metabolic wastes or toxic substances

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2
Q

What is the role of the lungs in regulating the body’s fluid volume and composition?

A

They remove water (300mL daily)

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3
Q

What does the pituitary gland do to regulate the body’s fluid volume and composition?

A

Secrete AHD when dehydrated/during blood loss to increase reabsorption of water.

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4
Q

What does the adrenal cortex do to regulate the body’s fluid volume and composition?

A

Increases aldosterone to cause sodium and water retention, and potassium loss
Decreased aldosterone does the opposite

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5
Q

What do the parathyroid glands do to regulate the body’s fluid volume and composition?

A

Use parathyroid hormone to influence calcium and phosphate balance

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6
Q

What does the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system do to regulate the body’s fluid volume and composition?

A

Renin goes to the liver and converts a protein into angiotensin I, ACE converts that into angiotensin II, angiotensin II stimulates the the adrenal gland to produce aldosterone.

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7
Q

What does the hypothalamus do to regulate body fluid volume and composition?

A

During dehydration it secretes AHD to stimulate thirst, and for kidneys to increase water reabsorption.

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8
Q

What are the isotonic solutions we use?

A

0.9% NaCl (normal saline)
Lactated Ringer’s
5% Dextrose in Water

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9
Q

What is normal saline used for?

A

hypovolemia
shock
diabetic ketoacidosis
metabolic acidosis
hypercalcemia

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10
Q

What is LR used for?

A

hypovolemia
burns
fluid loss from diarrhea
acute blood loss
fluid loss from bile

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11
Q

What is D5W used for?

A

Hypernatremia
Fluid loss
dehydration

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12
Q

What are the hypotonic solutions?

A

0.45% NaCl (half strength saline)

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13
Q

What do we use half strength saline for?

A

hypertonic dehydration
Na+ or Cl- depletion
gastric fluid loss

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14
Q

What are the hypertonic solutions?

A

3% NaCl
5% NaCl

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15
Q

What are the hypertonic solutions used for?

A

Symptomatic hyponatremia

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16
Q

What lab values would you use to determine if someone is adequately hydrated?

A

BUN
Creatinine
Hematocrit
Urine Sodium
Urine Specific Gravity
Serum Osmolality
Urine Sodium

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17
Q

What does the BUN lab value show?

A

Measures the amount of urea in the bloodstream. Can vary with renal function, cellular breakdown, protein intake, and hydration status. Not an optimal gauge of kidney function.

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18
Q

What does the creatinine lab value show?

A

The breakdown product of muscle metabolism cleared from the bloodstream and excreted by the kidneys.
Accurate gauge of kidney function.
Does not vary with protein intake or hydration status

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19
Q

What does hematocrit measure?

A

The percentage of RBC in a volume of whole blood.
Decreased water increases the concentration of RBCs
Overhydrtion will decrease the RBC concentation
Anemia causes decreased hematocrit

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20
Q

What does the urine sodium lab value measure?

A

The level of sodium in the urine
As sodium intake increases, so does excretion
As fluid volume decreases, sodium is retained

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21
Q

What are risk factors for overhydration?

A

Age (disease)

  • Too much intake
  • Immobility
  • Corticosteroids (puffy after taking)
  • Burns (fluid shifts after burns-vascular damage)
  • Heart and kidney failure
  • Diet (sodium that comes mostly from packaged foods)
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22
Q

What are expected findings for overhydration?

A

Crackles lower lobes

  • HTN most of time
  • Polyuria (unless there is renal failure)
  • Edema
  • JVD, Ascites (fluid collects in the abdomen)
  • SOB, Cough
  • Weight gain (3 lbs in 24 hours, or 5 lbs in a week indicates fluid influence on weight)
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23
Q

What are lab tests for overhydration?

A

Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin due to dilution

  • Decreased osmolarity (amount of solutes in one volume of fluid)
  • Urine sodium and specific gravity decreased
  • CBC
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24
Q

What nursing care is performed for overhydration?

A

Daily weight

  • Strict I&O (fluid restriction 2 L per day)
  • Assess all s/s
  • Restrict sodium to 2 grams per day
  • Semi-Fowlers position
  • Diuretics (furosemide - pulls fluid and potassium DEHYDRATION/HYPOKALEMIA CONCERN)
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25
What are some complications of overhydration?
Pulmonary Edema (flash PE develops quickly) - SOB - Decreased O2 - Hear crackles (only posterior chest- lower lobes)
26
What are some risk factors of dehydration?
Low intake - Diabetes Insipidus (polyuria) - Diuretics - Excessive sweating/heat - GI loss - Medications/substance use - Hemorrhage - Third spacing (ICF moves into the ECF, the body doesn't want it there so it pushes it to the area around the cells)
27
What are expected findings for dehydration?
Hypotension - Tachycardia - Dry mucous membranes - Tented and dry skin - Oliguria, dark urine - Neurosymptoms - Orthostatic hypotension - Cool skin
28
What are common lab tests for dehydration?
- Elevated hematocrit and hemoglobin - Increased osmolarity - BUN- kidneys - Increased BUN= kidneys overwork due to less fluid
29
What nursing care is performed for dehydration?
Fluids (oral first then IV) - True Bolus- less than 30 min on straight tubing. Using isotonic fluid (normal saline). This expands the ECF. - Monitor I&O - Daily weights - Fall Risk - Change positions slowl
30
What are some complications of dehydration?
- Hypovolemic shock (tissues not getting what they need to survive)
31
What are 3 lab tests for kidney function?
BUN, Creatinine, GFR
32
True/False: Normal Saline is the only solution you can mix with blood products through IV
True
33
9% normal saline is similar to ____
plasma
34
Lactated Ringer Solution cannot be used in
kidney injury due to potassium which could cause hyperkalemia
35
5% dextrose in water should not be used solely for
fluid volume deficit because it dilutes electrolyte concentrations
36
In Fluid Volume Deficit, which 4 things should you assess
ADLs, Ambulation, Cognition, Gag reflex
37
Are electrolytes charged or uncharged?
Charged
38
What is the sodium range?
135-145
39
What is the potassium range?
3.5-5.0
40
What is the magnesium range?
1.3-2.1
41
What is the calcium range?
9.0-10.5
42
What is the chloride range?
98-106
43
What is the phosphorus range?
3.0- no max given
44
What does water follow?
Salt
45
What does sodium imbalance indicate?
water problem
46
Acute hyponatremia is the result of
fluid overload of a surgical patient
47
What are manifestations of hyponatremia
- Weakness - Lethargy - Confusion - Seizures - Headache - Anorexia, N&V - Muscle cramps, twitching - Hypotension - Tachycardia - Weight game, edema
48
Seizures are a big risk because of
aspiration and self harm
49
Interventions for hyponatremia
- Sodium replacemnt - Fluid restriction - Daily weight, I&O - Medication: conivaptan hydrochloride
50
Risk with hypertonic solutions
cerebral edema
51
What sodium labs should you check?
BMP or CMP
52
Do not correct sodium more then?
12 mEq every 24 hours
53
If you are close to overcorrecting sodium
Stop and do a neurological assessment
54
What are the manifestations of Hypernatremia?
Fever, swollen dry tongue, sticky mucous membranes, hallucinations, lethargic, restlessness, and irritable, seizures, tachycardia, hypertension, hyperreflexia/twitching, pulmonary edema.
55
Emphasized manifestations of hypernatremia
swollen dry tongue - hallucinations - lethargy - restlessness - irritable - seizures - pulmonary edema
56
interventions for hypernatremia
daily weights I & O seizure precautions iv infusion of hypotonic or isotonic fluid diuretics restrict sodium diet increased oral fluids intake
57
Emphasized interventions for hypernatremia
daily weights - I&O - Sodium Restrictions
58
Burns impact ________
vascular impermeability
59
Patients with hypernatremia that are on fluid and sodium restrictions are often?
Severely Thirsty
60
Key thing to watch out for potassium
heart effects
61
What are manifestations of hypokalemia
Muscle weakness, cramping - Fatigue - N&V - Irritability, confusion - decreased bowel motility - paresthesia - dysrhythmias - flat and/or inverted T waves
62
Interventions for hypokalemia
Monitor respiratory status - Fall precautions - Potassium replacement - Monitor EKG, I&O, arterial HCO3 and pH. - Client education - Dietary sources (greens, milk, juices, lean meat, potato skin) - Medications
63
Never give potassium IV bolus through a
straight line, must be with a pump
64
2 main causes of hypokalemia
GI loss and diuretic use
65
If there is a significant potassium issue, request an order for a
telemetry
66
Do not run IV potassium faster than
10 mEq/hr with a peripheral IV
67
If patent is not urinating (give/not give) potassium
No P, No K
68
IV potassium can cause a ___ sensation
burning
69
Manifestations of Hyperkalemia
Peaked T waves, ventricular dysrhythmias, muscle twitching and paresthesia (early), ascending muscle weakness (late), increased bowel motility
70
Key Manifestations of Hyperkalemia
Peaked T waves, Ventricular Dysrhythmias, Cardiac Ectopy
71
What is cardiac ectopy?
Extra abnormal heartbeats that begin in one of the two ventricles
72
Interventions for Hyperkalemia
Monitor ECG, Monitor Bowel Sounds, Initiate Dialysis Dietary restrictions, Administer medication
73
5 common Medications for Hyperkalemia
Kayexalate 50% glucose w/ insulin Calcium Gluconate Bicarbonate Loop Diuretics
74
What does kayexalate do?
Removes K+ via the gut
75
What does 50% glucose with insulin do?
Pulls glucose into the cell, and is given via IV
76
What does calcium Gluconate do?
Antagonizes the hyperkalemic action on the heart, but does not lower the potassium level
77
What does bicarbonate do for hyperkalemia?
It lowers potassium levels when mixed with insulin.
78
What does loop diuretics do for hyperkalemia?
Loop diuretics like furosemide lower the potassium level through excretion
79
In a Acidotic state, _______ is high.
Potassium
80
Manifestations of hypocalcemia
Tetany, cramps - Paresthesia - Dysrhythmias - Trosseau's sign - Chvostek's sign - Seizures - Hyperreflexia - Impaired clotting time
81
Interventions for hypocalcemia
Seizure precautions - IV calcium replacement - Daily calcium supplements - Vitamin D therapy - Monitor for orthostatic hypotension -Dietary increase and education
82
Calcium affects your ___ system
neuromuscular
83
Common diseases with hypocalcemia
Kidney and parathyroid (calcium regulation) disease
84
Calcium has an inverse relationship with
phosphorus
85
Calcium IV is best replaced through a
Central line as it helps to avoid vessel damage and helps with monitoring extravasation
86
Hypercalcemia is tied to what disease?
Malignant disease
87
Manifestations of Hypercalcemia
muscular weakness constipation anorexia n/v polyuria polydypsia hypoactive deep tendon reflexes lethargy
88
Interventions of for Hypercalcemia
Increase mobility, isotonic IVF, Dialysis, Cardiac Monitoring
89
Manifestations for hypomagnesemia
positive Troussea and Chovstek Sign increased tendon reflexes neuromuscular irritability mood changes anorexia vomiting elevated BP
90
Interventions for hypomagnesemia
Seizure precautions - Monitor swallowing - Dietary measures and education - Adminiter IV magnesium sulfate and PO magnesium salts (give PO first) - Monitor urine output - Monitor respirators
91
Magnesium acts like a
sedative
92
What drug works well with magnesium?
Calcium gluconate
93
Manfiestations for Hypermagnesemia
Hypotension - Drowsiness - Bradycardia - Bradypnea - Coma - Cardiac arrest - Hyporeflexia - N&V - Facial flushing
94
Interventions for hypermagnesemia
Mechanical ventilation - IV fluids: lactated Ringer's or NS - Administer IV calcium gluconate or loop diuretics - Monitor respirations and blood pressure - Monitor deep tendon reflexes
95
Magnesium should not be administered to clients with
renal failure
96
Monitor ____ with magnesium
DTR
97
Hypophosphetemia is rarely seen outside of
renal failure
98
What is the preoperative phase?
begins when the decision to proceed with surgical intervention is made and ends with the transfer of the patient onto the OR bed
99
What is the intraoperative phase?
begins when patient is transferred onto the OR beds and ends with admission to the PACU
100
What is the postoperative phase?
begins with the admission of the patient to the PACU and ends with a follow-up evaluation in the clinical setting or home.
101
What preoperitaive assessments are performed to identifty pertinent health and surigcal risk factors?
Assess joint mobility - Prescriptions and OTC meds - Activity and functional levels (including aerobic exercise) - Known allergies and sensitivities to drugs, foods, adhesives, and latex - Assess for OSA (obstructive sleep apnea) - Monitor for s/s of interpersonal violence, including intimate partner violence - Autologous blood donation or patient self donation may be needed
102
What can latex be found in?
foods like bananas and kiwi - hospital materials/equipment
103
What assessments are performed for OSA?
STOP-Bang (snoring, tired, observed, pressure, BMI, Age, Neck, Gender)
104
How do you perform a nutrition assessment?
Monitor for: - Obesity - Weight loss - Malnutrition - Specific nutrient deficiencies - Metabolic abnormalities - Effect of medications on nutrition
105
Nutritional deficiency should be corrected before surgery, why?
Adequate protein for tissue repair
106
Why do a fluid assessment? | For surgery
Confirm NPO - This helps prevent risk of aspiration
107
What are the negatives of NPO before surgery?
Stress on body - Loss of glycogen stores and lean muscle - Dehydration that leads to fluid and electrolyte imbalances
108
Why do a dentition assesment?
Dental caries, dentures, and partial plates are significant to CRNA because decayed teeth or dental prostheses may become dislodged during intubation and occlude the airway. - Mouth condition can lead to bodily post-op infections
109
What can alcohol consumption cause? | During surgery
Arrhythmias, infections, withdrawal - Med effectiveness reduction. - Malnutrition and other systemic problems or metabolic imbalances.
110
What happens if a person is intoxicated and requires surgery?
Postpone if needed, NG tube given
111
A nurse should ask a patient if they have drank alcohol in what time frame?
two drinks par day or more on a regular basis in the 2 weeks prior to surgery
112
When assessing respiratory status, educate them on what two things?
Breathing exercises and incentive spirometry use?
113
Patients who smoke are likely to experience what?
poor wound healing - higher chance of SSI - complications like VTE and pneumonia
114
Patients should be asked about ___ use in respiratory assessment
Tobaco
115
The ____ is an optimal visit time to advocate for smoking cessation
PAT (Pre-Assessment Test)
116
Patients with the highest risk of respiratory patients are what 3 kinds of patients?
Artificial implants such as grafts - Total joint replacements - Breast enhancement
117
Patients are assessed for what cardiac comorbidities? | for surgery
CHF - SOB union movement - Arrythmias
118
What 4 tests are checked in prep for cardiovascular
Chest x-ray - EKG - Vitals - BP
119
What hepatic disease is associated with high surgical mortality
Acute liver disease
120
What renal issues can cause surgery contraindications?
Acute nephritis - Acute renal insufficiency with oliguria or anuria - Other acute renal problems
121
Dysfunction of the endocrine system is associated with overproduction or underproduction of?
hormones
122
Patients who take corticosteroids are at risk for ___ and this must be reported to the ____/_____
adrenal insufficiency; CRNA/surgeon
123
Patients with uncontrolled thyroid disorders are at risk for ____ or ______
Patients with uncontrolled thyroid disorders are at risk for ____ or ______
124
Diabetic patients are at risk for both _____ and ____ during surgery
hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia
125
Hypoglycemia may develop during
anesthesia or post-op from inadequate carbohydrates or excessive admin of insulin
126
Hyperglycemia can trigger the risk of
SSI
127
Hyperglycemia may result from
the stress of surgery, which can trigger increased levels of catecholamine. - Other risks are acidosis and glucosuria.
128
Routine lab tests used to detect infection include
WBC and urinalysis
129
Dealing with immune system, it is important to identify and document?
any sensitivity to medications, solutions, adhesives, and past adverse reactions
130
Immunosuppresion is common with what 5 things
corticosteroid therapy, organ transplantation, radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and disorders affecting the immune system, such as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and leukemia.
131
A medication history is obtained because of
the possible interactions with medications that might be given during surgery and the effects of any of these medications on the patient's perioperative course
132
Aspirin, clopidogrel, and other medications that inhibit platelet aggregation should be prudently discontinued
7 to 10 days before surgery
133
Additional herbal medications may include
echinacea and licorice extract (Glycyrrhizic acid)
134
If the patient has doubts and has not had the opportunity to investigate alternative treatments...
a second opinion may be requested. No patient should be urged or coerced to give informed consent.
135
Refusing to undergo a surgical procedure is a person's
legal right and privilege
136
You must have consent for
sterilization, therapeutic abortion, disposal of severed body parts, organ donation, and blood product administration
137
Discussion with patients and their family members may be supplemented with
audiovisual materials
138
Asking patients to describe in their own words the surgery they are about to have promotes
nurses' understanding of patients' comprehension.
139
A completed, updated and signed _____ and _____ must be present prior to the patient entering the OR.
History and Physical
140
Not more than ___ days before the date of the scheduled surgery, each patient must have a comprehensive medical history and physical assessment.
30
141
The _____ _____ is required to update the form within ___ hours of scheduled surgery on all non-inpatient clients
primary provider; 24
142
The History and Physical consists of
the history of present illness; surgical, medical, social, and family histories; allergies; current medications; and plan of care
143
It is the ____ ______ responsibility to make sure the presence of these forms and all other supporting documentation (medication reconciliation, Power of Attorney form, etc.) are current and accurate in the preoperative area.
surgical team's
144
Preoperative education is initiated when and where?
as soon as possible beginning in the physician's office, in the clinic, or at the time of PAT when diagnostic tests are performed
145
Frequently, education sessions are combined with various preparation procedures to allow for an easy and timely flow of information. The ____ should guide the patient through the experience and allow ample time for questions
nurse
146
Overly detailed descriptions may increase ____ in some patients; therefore, the nurse should be sensitive to this, by watching and listening, and provide less detail based on the individual patient's needs.
anxiety
147
One goal of preoperative nursing care is to educate the patient how to promote _____ and _____ after anesthesia.
optimal lung expansion and resulting blood oxygenation
148
Teaching deep breathing, coughing, incentive spirometry
1. Sitting positions 2. Slow deep breath 3. Exhale slowly 4. Short breath 5. Cough deeply
149
If a thoracic or abdominal incision is anticipated, the nurse demonstrates how to
splint the incision to minimize pressure and control pain. The patient should put the palms of both hands together, interlacing the fingers snugly. Splinting or placing the hands across the incision site acts as an effective support when coughing.
150
The goal in promoting coughing is to
mobilize secretions so that they can be removed
151
If the patient does not cough effectively
atelectasis (collapse of the alveoli), pneumonia, or other lung complications may occur.
152
The goals of promoting mobility postoperatively
are to improve circulation, prevent venous stasis, and promote optimal respiratory function
153
Exercise of the extremities includes _____ and ______ (similar to bicycle riding while lying on the side) unless contraindicated by type of surgical procedure (e.g., hip replacement).
extension and flexion of the knee and hip joints
154
Performing extremity exercises
The great toe is pointed and rotated as though tracing a large circle (see Chart 14-5). The elbow and shoulder are also put through their range of motion. At first, the patient is assisted and reminded to perform these exercises. Later, the patient is encouraged to do them independently
155
A pain assessment should include differentiation between
acute and chronic pain
156
A ____ _____ ____ should be introduced and explained to the patient to promote more effective postoperative pain management.
pain intensity scale
157
Postoperatively, _____ are given to relieve pain and maintain comfort without suppressing respiratory function.
medications
158
The patient is instructed to take the medication _____ during the initial postoperative period for pain relief.
as frequently as prescribed
159
Types of pain meds given
patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), epidural catheter bolus or infusion, or patient-controlled epidural analgesia
160
_____, ______, _____, and _____ have been reported postoperatively in patients with increased preoperative anxiety
Tachycardia, arrhythmias, hypertension, and increased levels of pain
161
Examples of general cognitive coping strategies include:
Guided imagery - Distraction - Optimistic Self-Recitation - Music Therapy - Aromatherapy -Reiki
162
Preop education for ambulatory care consists of the same education previously mentioned, but adds what 2 things
Collaborative planning with patient and family for discharge - Follow-up home care
163
During the preoperative assessment of psychological factors and spiritual and cultural beliefs, the nurse assists the patient to identif
coping strategies that he or she has previously used to decrease fear
164
The nurse assesses for any patient specific needs that may affect the _____, ______, _____, ______experience. In some cultures, for example, people are stoic in regard to pain, whereas in others they are more expressive.
spiritual, emotional, or physical surgical
165
adults may be advised to fast for ___ hours after eating fatty food and ____ hours after ingesting milk products.
8;6
166
Healthy patients are allowed clear liquids up to ___ hours before an elective procedure.
2
167
Enemas are not commonly prescribed preoperatively unless the patient is undergoing _____ or ____ surgery
abdominal or pelvic
168
The goal for enemas is what two things
allow satisfactory visualization of the surgical site and to prevent trauma to intestine or contamination by fecal matter
169
The goal of preoperative skin preparation is to
decrease bacteria without injuring the skin.
170
At a minimum, preoperative bathing should consist of
a full-body wash using antimicrobial soap the night before the planned surger
171
Additional body cleansing with chlorhexidine wipes may occur in the preoperative area via the
nurse or patient under supervision of nurse
172
To ensure the correct site, the surgical site is typically marked by the _____ and ____ prior to the procedure.
patient and surgeon
173
Day of Preparation for patient
Confirm ID - Don't alter bracelets - Allergies, fall risk, extremely precautions - Code status - Denture or plate removal - Jewelry removal or warning of risks if not removed - Voiding
174
Urinary catheterization is performed in the
OR only as necessary
175
The use of preanesthetic medication may be used to help
patients remain calm and comfortable
176
Abx are given pre-op to reduce
SSI
177
Abx is prescribed
prior to patient arriving
178
Preoperative checklists contain critical elements that must be checked and verified
before the procedure. Must be easily accessed and verified by surgical team
179
Preoperative patient warming for a period of at least ___ minutes can be beneficial to prevent hypothermia development after anesthesia induction.
30
180
What is diffusion?
Process by which solutes move from an area of high concentration to lower concentration. Doesn't require energy
181
What is osmosis?
When fluid moves across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low solute, to an area of high solute. (Water will move to the area that has more particle)
182
What is active transport?
uses energy to move electrolytes from one region to another
183
184
What are the effects of aging on fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
Decreased muscle mass reduces serum creatinine Decreased renal function can cause slightly elevated serum creatinine Dehydration is more common because of decreased kidney mass.
185
What causes hyponatremia?
An imbalance of water rather than sodium
186
What causes hypernatremia?
fluid deprivation heatstroke nonfatal drowning in seawater
187
What causes hypocalcemia?
primary hypoparathyroidism surgical hypoparathyroidism Pancreatitis Acute kidney injury
188
What causes hypercalcemia?
Malignancies hyperparahyroidism
189
What causes hypomagnesemia?
Nasogastric suction diarrhea fistulas chronic alcohol abuse proton pump inhibitors
190
What causes hypermagnesemia?
Kidney injury untreated DKA Excessive use of antacids or laxatives
191
What causes hypophosphetemia?
Chronic diarrhea Crohn's disease celiac disease high intake of antacids
192
What are manifestations of hypophosphetemia?
Muscle weakness bone pain and tenderness confusion chest pain respiratory failure paresthesias
193
What are symptoms of hyperphosphatemia?
Tetany tachycardia anorexia nausea vomiting hyper reflexes
194
What causes hyperphosphatemia?
kidney injury excessive vitamin D intake DKA high phosphate intake
195
How is hyperphosphatemia treated?
laxatives and enemas reduced phosphate intake
196
What causes hypochloremia?
Addison's disease reduced chloride intake untreated DKA excessive sweating/vomiting diarrhea gastric suctioning/surgery
197
What are s/s of chloride deficit?
agitation irritability tremors cramps arrhythmias shallow respiraitons seizures
198
How do you treat chloremia deficit?
0.9% saline 0.45% saline discontinue diuretic
199
What causes chloride excess?
excessive administration of chloride relative to sdoium
200
What are s/s of chloride excess?
tachypnea weakness lethargy deep, rapid respirations diminished cognitive ability hypertension
201
How do you treat chloride excess?
administer hypotonic solutions Diuretics
202
What is the preoperative assessment?
Provides info regarding underlying conditions that may affect the patient's response to surgery techniques and anesthesia.
203
What are preoperative considerations for older patients?
Assess condition of skin provide cotton blanket for warmth (decreased subcutaneous fat) blood tests, BP, and EKG (poor circulation) nuero assessment (memory and cognition) respiratory asessment renal assessment
204
What are some preoperative considerations for bariatric pateints?
Delayed wound healing at incision site Difficult IV access hypoventilation risk shallow respirations when supine
205
What are some special considerations for paitents with disability?
need for assistive devices modification to preoperative education additional assistance with positioning or transferring Hearing impaired entitled by law to a sign interpreter Patient's needs must be identified in advance
206
What are some preoperative interventions that prevent infection and other complications?
Preoperative bathing using antimicrobial soap hair removal at surgical site cleansing enema or laxative (in event of abominal/pelvic surgery) avoid food and fluid to prevent aspiraiton
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What happens during immediate preoperative preperation?
patient is ID'd client removes clothes and valuables antibiotics and pre anesthetic are administered nurse checks preoperative checklist warm patient via blankets, forced air, or IV fluid tend to family needs
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What does the circulating nurse do?
Manages the OR protects patient's safety and health Verifies consent initiates time-out continually assess patient
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What does the scrub nurse do?
set up sterile equipment hands surgeon tools count all instruments after incision is closed
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What does the surgeon do?
Perform the surgical procedure
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What does the registered nurse frist assistant do?
practice under direct supervision of surgeon handle tissue suturing maintain hemostasis provide exposure
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What does the anesthesiologist/CRNA do?
selects anesthesia administers it intubates patient deals with the anesthesia
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What is general anesthesia?
Patient no arousable lose ability to maintain ventilatory function consists of 4 stages
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What is multimodla anesthesia?
Combination of nonopioid anaglesic agents and regional anesthesia techniques
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What is regional anesthesia?
Anesthestic agent is injected around nerves to that region is anesthetized The patient is conscious
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What is moderate sedation?
Reduces patient anxiwty and control pain during diagnostic procedures.
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What is local anesthesia?
injection of a solution agent into the tissue at the planned incision site
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What is included in a preoperative assessment?
current meds allergies health history surgical history activity and functional level
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What are some adverse effects of surgery and anesthesia?
agitation/disorientation allergic reation bleeding cardiac arrhythmia hypotension oversedation undersedation malignant hyperthermia thrombosis (more on page 419)
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What are the principles of surgical asepsis?
any people, tools, and the patient's own skin, are sterilized to free the area of ALL microorganisms
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Who is responsible for obtaining informed consent?
the surgeon (because they explain the benefits/risks of surgery) the nurse witnesses
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What are some major responsibilities of the nurse in the post anesthesia care unit?
Assess the patient maintain the airway monitor/return vitals to baseline relieve pain and anxiety control nausea/vomiting
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What are some common postanesthesia problems?
hypertension pain n/v
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What are some gerontologic considerations for PACU?
transferring and moving patient will be slower may recover from anesthesia slower more attention to keep warm maintain safe environemtn (fall risk) possible delirium and confusion (try to orient)
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Compare PACU care of an ambulatory surgery patient and a hospitalized surgery patient
Ambulatory Same day surgery go home same day
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What factors effect wound healing?
Age hemorrhage hypovolemia dressing too small/tight foreign bodies O2 deficit drainage build up hypothermia edema nutritional deficit immunosuppresed
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How do the lungs help maintain acid-base balance?
The lungs can either decrease or increase respirations to control the CO2 in the body
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What do the kidneys do to maintain acid-base balance
They excrete/retain hydrogen ions or bicarbonate ions (inverse relationship) to maintain balance
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How do the body's chemichal buffers maintain acid-base balance?
by removing or release hydrogen ions