Med surg Flashcards

1
Q

Glucose

A

70-110
High: 3 P’s polydipsia, poluria, polyphagia
low: confusion, irritability, diaphoresis
sympatheic response. if no tx for either then tragectory is seizure, coma, death

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2
Q

NA+

A

135-145 mEq/LHigh or Low sodium = confusion (change in neuro status) - affected by fluid balance

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3
Q

K+

A

3.5-5 mEq/LHigh or low dysrhythmia
High: diarrhea, cramping - acidotic states
Low: constipation, leg cramps - alkalotic states

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4
Q

Ca+

A

8.5-10.5
High: constipation, slowed reflexes, kidney stones
Low: tetany, increased reflexes, Chvosteks & trousseau, diarrhea

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5
Q

BUN

A

10-20 mg/dL
affected fluid balance and diet (protein intake - if eat a lot of protein then high if little protein intake then low.) Kidney function but not specific
10-20 is therapeutic drug range for dilantin (phenytoin and theophylline)

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6
Q

Creatinine

A

0.5-1.5 mg/dLSpecific to kidney function (based on muscle mass)
(Level is the same for therapeutic range digoxin and lithium)

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7
Q

WBC

A

5-10K mm3
if extremely low then sepsis (overwhelming will see immature bands or blasts - mature cells have died in the war). High = infection
Very high= leukemia
filgrastim increases WBC

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8
Q

Platelets

A

150-450K
High: clotting (anticoagulants, antiplatelets, hydration, therapeutic phlebotomy)
Low: bleeding (oprelvekin synthetic colony stimulating factor, soft toothbrush, electric razor, fall precautions)

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9
Q

Hgb

A

> 10 g/dL (10-15)
Low: anemia (sob, lethargic, pallor), pace activities
can give CSF epogen to increase H&H

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10
Q

HCT

A

35% or > up 48%
Low: anemia - see above
High: clotting
affected by fluid balance

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11
Q

Bilirubin

A

<1

High: jaundice, icterus, abdominal pain, clay stools, brown urine, increased risk of bleeding

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12
Q

MRI

A

Pre:
Make sure there is no metal in the client e.g. welders may have fragments in their eyes and not know it, older pace-makers, rods, etc. Also, are they claustrophobic? May need a benzo before the procedure. If MRA, check for allergies to shellfish or iodine. Hold glucophage the day of the procedure and hold for 48 hours after the procedure

Post:
It depends if it’s just a MRI (don’t need to do anything); a MRA (angiography which requires dye) need to increase fluids to flush out the dye or can cause renal dysfunction

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13
Q

CT with contrast

A

Pre:
check for allergies for shellfish or iodine. Hold glucophage the day of the procedure and 48 hours after

Post:
Hold glucophage 48hrs after the procedure. Increase hydration to excrete dye

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14
Q

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

A

Pre:
No lCNS stimulants or depressants before EEG e.g. no coffee/tea, chocolate, hold the client’s seizure meds (which would depress CNS). May sleep deprive them to increase likelihood of seizure

Post:
Nothing really post procedure

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15
Q

Arterial Blood Gas

A

Pre:
Allen’s test, check bleeding profile (PT/INR, PTT, Liver function) what meds are they on anticoagulants, antiplatelets or any bleeding disorders

Post:
Hold pressure for 5 minutes or even longer if on meds that cause bleeding.

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16
Q

Endoscopy

A

Pre:
NPO 4-6 hours before to prevent aspiration

Post:
Gag reflex before anything PO

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17
Q

Cardiac Catheterization

A

Pre:
NPO 4-6 hours prior, check allergies shellfish, iodine, consent. Do not shave site, we only trim it

Post:
HOB less 30 degrees. Depends on closure device, maintain pressure, check site q15 minutes and distant pulses, bp/hr for internal bleeding. Hydration to remove dye from body,

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18
Q

Thoracentesis

A

Pre:remain still, assess their lungs, vital signs prior, consent, bleeding time, meds that may increase risk of bleeding

Post: CXR immediately after, assessment of lungs, vital signs immediately, could cause a pneumothorax

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19
Q

Nasal Cannula

A

0.5-6L, tissue damage around ears and nares, humidify if 3-4L or higher

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20
Q

Simple Face Mask

A

Cannot have less than 5-6 Liters or the client will rebreath their C02 and will have respiratory acidosis and have to be intubated

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21
Q

100% Nonrebreather

A

fill the reservoir bag with oxygen first before applying to client or will rebreath c02 and become acidotic

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22
Q

Respiratory

A

Complications:
atelectasis (collapsed alveoli), pneumonia

Interventions:TCDB q2h, ISE 10x hour while awake, pickle or accapella (blow into to loosen secretions), ambulate or at least sit up in chair, chest physiotherapy, hydration to thin secretions

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23
Q

Cardiac

A

Complications:
DVT, PE, orthostatic hypotension

Interventions:
ambulation, heparin sq or lovenox, sequentials, TEDS, fluids, change positions slowly

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24
Q

GI

A

Complications:
ileus, constipation, N/V

Interventions:
Ambulation, nasogastric tube if vomiting or ileus - NPO until bowel sounds return

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25
Q

GU

A

Complications:urinary retention, stones if they stay in bed too long, Catheter associated UTI (CAUTI)

Interventions:
Get them OOB - Gravity, lots of fluids,

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26
Q

Integumentary

A

Complications:pressure ulcers, dehiscence, eviscerate, wound infection

Interventions:
Turn q2hs, ambulate, use binder, splint when coughing, sterile dressing changes.

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27
Q

State 2 differences between an ileostomy and colostomy?

A

a. Consistency: Ileostomy= watery, continuous output. Colostomy= more formed- not continuous
b. Location: ileocecal (right lower quadrant - ileostomy); colostomy ascending, transverse, descending can irrigate colostomy but not ileostomy.

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28
Q

How often should an ostomy pouch/wafer be changed?

A

? 7-10 days or prn if there is a leak. Bag emptied? 2/3rd full

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29
Q

A client calls the clinic stating they have not had any output from their ileostomy for 2hrs. What is the best response by the nurse? State at least 2 things the nurse should tell the client.

A

a. hot liquids, knee chest, ambulate, change the wafer, warm shower, massage around it - if nothing needs to be seen = blockage

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30
Q

State 3 reasons a nurse would clamp a chest tube?

A

a. Looking for leaks (intermittently), changing the drainage container, or getting ready to remove it.

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31
Q

Equipment/Lines/Tubes required to administer

A

TPN:
filtered tubing, central line

Tubing feeding:
tubing set, formula, NGT, GT, JT

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32
Q

Nursing considerations (need to knows to prevent harm)

A

TPN:
daily labs, 2 nurses, monitor infection, check glucose levels, must change tubing q24hrs. Run out of TPN? dextrose 10-20% at same rate to prevent hypoglycemia, Monitor fluid balance

Tube feedings:
NGT placement CXR before using. 
check blood glucose q6h
check residuals q4h
change the set q24h
make sure enough free water 
Head of the bed 30 degrees or higher to prevent aspiration
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33
Q

State 3 factors that increase a client’s risk for falls

A

Age, medication, previous fall, uses equipment to ambulate (cane, walker), lines

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34
Q

How are crutches measured?

A

2-3 fingerbreadths below axillary

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35
Q

A client is being discharged home after hip surgery, what “hip precaution” teaching will you provide?

A

do not cross legs, do not bend over 90 degrees, chair height (upside down stop light), raised toilet seat. chairs with arms

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36
Q

What do nurses need to know about traction e.g. bucks or cervical

A

continuous never release, never change weights

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37
Q

State 2 nursing considerations when communicating with a client who is hearing impaired

A

quiet environment, face them, lighting, hearing aids in if they have them, set aside enough time to speak with client

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38
Q

A nurse is discharging home a client with a visual deficit. State 3 home safety interventions:

A

no chairs with wheels, no extension cords, or small animals, good lighting, no scatter rugs, paint edges of stairs bright colors

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39
Q

What can be delegated to an LPN

A

Anything the nurse cannot EAT (Evaluate, assess or teach), only have stable patients, chronic conditions.

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40
Q

State 3 nursing ethical principles:

A

autonomy,
veracity (telling truth),
fidelity (doing what you say you will do, keep your word), beneficence (doing good); nonmaleficence (not doing harm)

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41
Q

A client has a nasogastric tube for decompression.

A

. The nurse will set the suction gauge at 40-60 mmHg

What is the gold standard for NTG placement? CXR

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42
Q

A client is at risk for aspiration (difficulty swallowing) what should the nurse instruct the CNA to do when feeding the client?

A

90 degrees, chin tuck, no straws, speech and swallow

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43
Q

Metoprolol

A

beta blocker

blocks beta 1 receptor on the heart to slow Heart rate
heart rate and decrease blood pressure (blocks sympathetic response)

<60 & BP (SBP<90)
People with respiratory disorders because it affects beta 2 receptors causing bronchoconstriction
Diabetics - check blood glucose more frequently - masks hypoglycemia
change positions slowly, do not stop abruptly, do not overheat yourself

44
Q

Accupril

A

Ace inhibitor -pril

interferes with the Renin-Angiotensin - Aldosterone system

Check BP and Potassium levels (could be high because hold onto K+); Umbrella BP protocols ; S/E: hacking cough; Adverse reaction : angioedema

45
Q

Warfarin

A

anticoagulant

interferes with clotting cascade
careful with NSAIDS increased risk of bleeding. Antidote: Vitamin K or Aquamephyton, Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP).
Teaching: Do not drastically change your diet; soft toothbrush, electric razor, no contact sports, report excessive bleeding or bruising.
Lab: PT/INR if A-fib 2-3, if mechanical valve 2.5-3.5 or 4

46
Q

Digoxin

A

Cardiac glycoside
or positive inotrope (increases contractility), negative chronotropic (decreases heart rate)

increases ventricular contractility to improve cardiac output
Therapeutic range: 0.5-1.5 (if near 2 then patient will have symptoms of toxicity) visual disturbances green/yellow halos, N/V
Check at the bedside: Apical pulse for 1 minute if <60 hold
Also check potassium - if low can cause toxicity.
How do you determine effectiveness? clearer lungs, decreased edema, no SOB or improved breathing, energy.

47
Q

Furosemide

A

loop diuretic

increase urine output and potassium (waster)

Check BP, Potassium, fluid balance
check weights (daily), effective if ease of breathing, clearer lungs, decreased edema, lowered BP monitor urine output.
48
Q

Aspirin

A

antiplatelet, antipyretic, NSAID

Anti-platelet - makes them less sticky - effects the platelet for the life of the platelet which is 10 days
No one under 18 or Reye syndrome (liver failure)
Take with food - gastric distress and ulcers
Toxicity: tinnitus - ringing in the ears

49
Q

Phenytoin

A

anti-seizure/
anti-epileptic

seizure threshold - increase to prevent seizures

Therapeutic range: 10-20
Causes birth defects
Decreases effectiveness of oral contraceptives - use barrier
Gingival hyperplasia, good oral care
pink urine is normal, Tube feedings hold 1 hour before and after
If given IV no dextrose or it will crystallize

50
Q

Dexamethasone

A

steroids (-asone or one)

antiinflammatory

Do not stop abruptly or cause an adrenal crisis. Must taper the drug.
Long term: Moon Face, truncal obesity, thin extremities, buffalo hump, cataracts, osteoporosis, hirsutism, weight gain, fluid retention
As soon as take the medication - early signs: hyperglycemia, risk for infection, slow wound healing.

51
Q

Cardizem

A

calcium channel blocker

ion influx
At bedside check: Heart Rate & Blood Pressure, prolong QT interval on ECG
Umbrella for drugs that lower BP

52
Q

Simvastatin

A

anti cholesterol medications

works directly on the liver to slow production of cholesterol

Given night because the liver is more active at night.
LFT before starting medication and monitor LFTs
Adverse reaction: rhabdomyolysis
Do not ingest grapefruit juice.
Report abdominal pain, jaundice, icterus, dark urine, clay stools
Monitor cholesterol: Total = <200
HDL>60
LDL<100

53
Q

Lorazepam

A

benzodiazepine

works on CNS

antidote: flumazenil or romazicon
monitor respiratory rate
safety precautions
highly addictive
tolerance and withdrawal
54
Q

Morphine sulfate

A

Opioid pain medication

CNS
Antidote: naloxone/narcan
monitor Respirations hold if <12
tolerance/dependence

55
Q

What is the maximum score on the Glasgow Coma Scale

A

15 (lowest is 3)

56
Q

Which nerve is affected in Bell’s Palsy?

A

CN VII (know all CN and how they are tested)

57
Q

What is Cushing’s triad?

A

(ICP) widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respirations

58
Q

Where is a ventriculostomy drain leveled to?

A

forman monroe, tragus of the ear

59
Q

Which eye disorder has a loss of central vision?

A

cerebellum (C for coordination);

frontal (Be Expressive - personality , expressive aphasia - Brocas);

temporal (hearing, receptive aphasia, wernickes);

parietal is sensation; occipital is vision

60
Q

State 2 interventions you would do if clear drainage was observed draining from the nares of a client with a basilar skull fracture? (state 2)

A
  1. halo test; mustache dressing. High risk for CNS infection = nuchal rigidity
61
Q

What are the cardinal signs of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

TRAPI

Tremors, rigidity, akinesia (bradykinesia slow movement), Postural instability

62
Q

How is autonomic dysreflexia treated? Who is at risk?

A

T6 spinal injury or above, high bp caused by a stimulus below the injury usually bladder distention or constipation or tight clothing. Sit them up, look for the problem. If SBP >170 give BP medication.

63
Q

State 2 things a nurse needs to know about traction (Gardner wells or Bucks)

A
  1. continuous traction

2. Do not change weights

64
Q

State 2 vasopressors.

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine, vasopressin
vasodilators: Nitroglycerin, nitroprusside

65
Q

Where is the phlebostatic axis located?

A

right atrium (4th ICS mid axillary)

66
Q

V tach pic

A

What is it?___VTach___________________Treatment: __Check for pulse if have one then cardiovert; if pulseless treat as VFib - defibrillate ASAP, CPR until defibrillator is obtained.

67
Q

SVT pic

A

What is it? _SVT__Treatment: vagal maneuvers (stimulate parasympathetic system) bear down, cough, blow through a straw, put face in ice water; doctor can carotid massage; adenosine 6, 12, 12 = 30 mg rapid iv push followed 20 mL of saline

68
Q

What are signs and symptoms of pericarditis?

A

friction rub, pain relieved if leaning forward, and NSAIDS

69
Q

Which type of valve replacement requires life-long anticoagulants?

A

mechanical (biological do not, but need to get a new biological every 8-10 years whereas mechanical is for life).

70
Q

How does a venous ulcer differ from an arterial ulcer?

A

In arterial disease there is not enough blood, blood is warm and it carries all the nutrients. So decreased blood flow to lower extremities will not have edema, will be cool (lack of the warm blood), scarce hair and thick toenails because lack of nutrients, wounds are deep and edges are well circumscribed, weak pulses
Venous insufficiency is just the opposite, no problem getting to the feet but blood pools in the feet due to incompetent valves make it difficult for the blood to return to the right side of the heart so edema, warm feet, good pulses, toenails are fine and hair is not patchy. Wounds are shallow with irregular borders

71
Q

What medication(s) would you use to lower systemic vascular resistance?

A

vasodilators, antihypertensives

72
Q

Interpret the following ABG:

pH 7.20, pC02 32, Hc03 18, Pa02 70

A

Metabolic Acidosis, partial compensation, hypoxemia

73
Q

What would cause a low pressure alarm on a ventilator?

A

disconnected, pneumothorax, leak, tracheostomy cuff is down.

High pressure alarm: stiff non compliant lungs, increased secretions in tube, biting the tube, kink in the tube

74
Q

What is the cardinal sign of ARDs?

A

refractory hypoxemia needs mechanical ventilation and high PEEP

75
Q

Bronchitis

A

Cause:
smoking, pollution

s&s:
Blue bloater
increased H&H d/t constant release of erythropoietin
eventually right-sided HF (Cor Pulmonale)
02 sats 88-91%

test/tx:
pulmonary function tests 
inhalers (beta 2 agonists - terol; anticholinergics - tropium; and inhaled steroids - cort or asone)
mucolytics
low dose steroids
low oxygen via NC

education:
stop smoking
teach about medications: what order to take inhalers,
do not stop steroids abruptly (if they are taking them)
Pursed lip breathing (helps keep alveoli open longer for better gas exchange)

76
Q

Emphysema

A

cause:
smoking, pollution or genetic (do not have alpha 1 antitrypsin)

s/sx:
Pink puffer - able to oxygenate themselves but using accessory muscles
02 sats 88-91%

test/tx:
Pulmonary function tests
inhalers (same as bronchitis above)
low dose steroids
low oxygen via NC

education:
Same as above for Bronchitis
Also, diaphragmatic breathing (largest muscle- less 02 use when using diaphragm instead of accessory muscle to breath)

77
Q

Asthma

A

cause:
allergens
genetic

s/sx:
allergens
genetic

test/tx:
Peak flow meter
Green is good
yellow need to change med regime
red take rescue inhaler and call 911

education:
take medications as prescribed, how to use the peak flow meter, should be used everyday, try to avoid triggers

78
Q

Tuberculosis

A

cause:
underdeveloped populations, crowded living conditions, immunocompromised

s/sx:
Night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis

tests/tx:
Positive sputum culture Acid Fast Bacilli,
CXR

education:
Must wear surgical mask when out in public or around people, take meds as prescribed (ethambutol, INH, Rifampin or Streptomycin) after 3 negative sputum cultures then they can stop taking the meds

79
Q

Pneumothorax

A

cause:
Tall thin young males are at high risk for spontaneous pneumothorax, pple with COPD have blebs on their lungs puts them at risk, a client on a ventilator that has noncompliant lungs or trauma

s/sx:
absent or dim lung sounds (if small); tracheal shift to the unaffected side if large

treatment/test
Chest tube needs to be placed to restore negative pressure and re-expansion of the lung

education:Pain control with PCA, about chest tube - when ambulating etc.
TCDB (pulmonary toileting)

80
Q

Hyperglycemia

A

treatment:

insulin

81
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

treatment:
15’s (15 grams of simple carbohydrate, recheck blood glucose in 15 min, another 15 grams of simple carbs if not in range but if in range then 7.5 g of complex carbohydrate so blood sugar does not plummet)

if confused or not conscious then give glucagon sq or IM or Dextrose 50% IVP if they have an IV - never give PO if not fully conscious - will aspirate

82
Q

Rapid (Lispro, Aspartate) (-logs)

A

onset:
5-15min

Peak:
{1.5 (1-2)

83
Q

Regular Insulin (-lin)

A

onset:
30 mins

peak: 3 hrs (2-4)

84
Q

NPH

A

onset:
60 mins

peak:
6 hrs (4-8 hrs)
85
Q

Long acting

A

onset:
60 mins

peak:
no peak
basal rate

86
Q

State the 2 differences between HHNKS and DKA:

A

a. __Hyperglycemia hyperosmotic nonketotic syndrome - no acidosis, no ketones - type II diabetics (Blood glucose 600-1000)
b. DKA acidosis, ketones, Type I 400-600

87
Q

What labs would the nurse expect for a client admitted with adrenal crisis?

A
adrenal cortex (think of the hormones aldosterone, cortisol and sex hormones): 
aldosterone:  holds onto NA & water gets rid of potassium - so what if no aldosterone? 
	get rid of NA+ and water and hold onto K+= hyponatremia, hypotension, hyperkalemia

Cortisol: if present have increase in glucose; if don’t have cortisol = hypoglycemia

Adrenal crisis= hyperkalemia, hyponatremic, hypotension, hypoglycemic

88
Q

What are the complications (emergency) of hypothyroid and hyperthyroid?

A

a. Hypothyroid emergency/complication: myxedema coma - give synthroid (thyroid hormone)
b. Hyperthyroid emergency/complication: thyroid storm - treat symptoms High BP, High temperature-

89
Q

Using the rule of nines and Parkland formula calculate fluid resuscitation for first 8 hours:
Burns to the face, entire right arm, entire chest and abdomen, entire right leg and groin. Client weighs 68kg

A
face:  4.5,
 right arm: 9,
 chest and abdomen: 18, 
entire right leg:18,
 groin: 1=  50.5 x 4mL x 68= 13,736/2 = 6868 first 8hrs (has to be infused within 8hrs of the when the burn occurred e.g. if burned at 1000, then it must be infused by 1800) then the rest over the next 16 hours
6868/8= 858.5
90
Q

Hepatitis

A
Know ABC
Immunoglobulins
vaccinations
body fluids
contaminated water/feces
liver dysfunction

treatment:
immunoglobulin
vaccinations

91
Q

Cholecystitis

A

female, fair fat, forty and fertile
right up quad/shoulder/back pain after fatty/spicy meal, N/V

treatment:
diet, cholecystectomy

92
Q

Acute Pancreatitis

A

alcoholism or stone is lodged in common bile duct, smoke
acute abdominal pain, n/v , increased lipase and amylase

treatment:
rest the stomach, nasogastric tube, stop drinking and smoking
or removal of the stone

93
Q

Compare and contrast Glomerulonephritis and Nephrotic Syndrome - how are they similar and how are they different?

A

strep infection undetected/not treated - damaged kidneys, more permeable losing large cells albumin and red blood cells. Low albumin look like pillsbury dough boy (edema) frothy coca cola urine (frothy album and coca cola is red blood cells) ; red blood cells anemic. - treat glomerulonephritis antibiotic, go slow with replacing albumin.

If glomerulonephritis is not treated properly then they will develop nephrotic syndrome - irreversible chronic renal failure - go ahead and replace albumin.

94
Q

What are the 3 phases of acute renal failure?

A

1) anuric/oliguric,
2) diuresis
3) recovery

95
Q

What are 3 types (causes) of acute renal failure?

A

pre-renal (volume);
intrarenal (drugs aminoglycoside);
post-renal (enlarged prostate or stone)

96
Q

Hemodialysis

A

3 days a week for few hours

complications:
hypotension

disequilibrium syndrome (too fast removal of BUN) slow the rate

use heparin= so risk of bleeding

97
Q

Peritoneal Dialysis

A

several exchanges a day
with dwell times

complications:
peritonitis
fluid overload

98
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
symmetrical joint destruction/deformities 
swan neck, boutonniere
Rheumatoid factor (RF), ANA (antinuclear antigen)
stiff when joints not used e.g. waking up in the morning - feel better with movement
treatment:
DMARDs
Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs 
plaquenil
steroids
methotrexate
99
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

unilateral
wear and tear

pain occurs with use of the joints

treatment:
steroids
surgery
OTC: chondroitin

100
Q

Gout

A

build up of uric acid in the small joints can be in fingers and toes
(usually great toe)
very painful inflamed
Exacerbated by dehydration

treatment:
prophylactic use of
Probenecid (helps excrete (pee) out the uric acid)
Allopurinol (decreases the production of uric acid

Colchicine for acute episodes
Indomethacin

101
Q

Heparin 20,000 units/500 mL D5W to infuse at 800 units/hr IV. What rate will you program into the pump?

A

800units x 500/20,000=

Answer: ________20_____________

102
Q

Dopamine 5 mcg/kg/min has been ordered. Available is Dopamine 2 grams/250 mL. The patient weighs 150lbs. How many mL/hr will you program the pump to deliver? (REMEMBER DO NOT PUT IN THE LABEL ONLY THE NUMBER AND ROUND TO THE HUNDREDTH FOR THIS PROBLEM)

A

5 x 68.18kg x 60min x 250mL/2,000,000mcg=

Answer: ________2.56 mL/hr______________

103
Q

Cardizem drip 100mg/150mL. Order titrate 10-20mg/hr to keep HR <100. Infusing is 18mL/hr. How many mg/hr is this patient receiving?

A

100mg: 150mL :: Xmg: 18mL= 150X= 1800 = 1800/150= X
Answer: _____12 mg/hr_______________

104
Q

A 1 liter fluid challenge of normal saline has been ordered for your patient in acute renal failure to infuse over 1 hour and 15 minutes.

A

1000mL/1.25hr=
Answer: ____800mL/hr_________________

No pump is available. How many gtts/min will you deliver using a 10gtt/mL tubing set.
1000mL x 10gtt factor/75minutes =

105
Q
Intake
3 Tbsp (15mL x 3= 45mL)of soup
2 tsp (5ml x 2= 10mL) of creamer
4 oz (30mL x 4= 120mL) of jello
0.5 liters of water (500mL)
IVPB 100mL

Intake: _______________

A

Output
Urine output 1.2L (1200)
8 oz of emesis (30 x 8=240)
0.25L of nasogastric contents (250ml)

Answer: Fluid Balance is __(state number value)_________________ then circle one of these (+/-)

Take total intake and subtract total output to get balance:

Output: __________________