Med History Exam

Question 1

What are the objectives of a medical interview?

Answer 1

Gather info about illness
Establish rapport
Instruct and educate
Support and Direct treatment

Question 2

What are the 5 good clinician traits?

Answer 2

Objective
Precise
Sensitive
Specific
Reliable

Question 3

What is striving to remove one’s own values, personal beliefs, prejudices, and preconceptions from the observation during the patient interview?

Answer 3

Objectivity

Question 4

Of, or relating to the distribution of observations around the mean in known as what?

Answer 4

Precision

Question 5

Precise is found around the mean, but accuracy is clustered around what?

Answer 5

Intended goal

Question 6

Of, or relating to the characteristic of a test to accurately identify, or “pick up” real cases of the disease in question is known as?

Answer 6

Sensitivity

Question 7

Of, or relating to the characteristic of a test to accurately identify non-cases. Thus, ruling out disease refers to what?

Answer 7

Specificity

Question 8

The characteristic of a test, finding, or procedure that allows observers to obtain the same result refers to?

Answer 8

Reliable

Question 9

What are the 3 key characteristics related to Therapeutic Core Qualities?

Answer 9

Respect
Genuineness
Empathy

Question 10

What is the ability to understand the patients experiences and feelings accurately?

Answer 10

Empathy

Question 11

What is the ability to be yourself in a relationship despite your professional role?

Answer 11

Genuineness

Question 12

What is the ability to accept the patient as he or she is despite your personal preferences?

Answer 12

Respect

Question 13

What are the levels of responding?

Answer 13

Ignoring
Minimizing
Interchangeable
Additive

Question 14

What is xerostomia?

Answer 14

Dry mouth

Question 15

What is borborygmi?

Answer 15

Rumbling in the stomach

Question 16

What is dysphasia?

Answer 16

Difficulty speaking

Question 17

What is dysphagia?

Answer 17

Difficulty swallowing

Question 18

What is typically added to a medical word to indicate number, measurement, position, direction, negative, and color?

Answer 18

Prefixes

Question 19

Where should an interpreter be in relation to the patient and provider in needed?

Answer 19

Seated next to the provider, facing the patient

prevents interviewing interpreter and not the patient

Question 20

The Chief Complaint MUST answer what?

Answer 20

Mandatory: primary complaint and duration

Optional: age and sex

Question 21

What is the thorough elaboration of the chief complaint?

Answer 21

History of Present Illness (HPI)

Question 22

What type of questions provide a sketch of the patients problem?

Answer 22

Non-directive questions

Open-ended

Question 23

What type of questions fill in the details about the sketch and are generally more specific questions?

Answer 23

Directive questions

(Closed-ended) yes or no

Question 24

What are the 7 characteristics of a major symptom?

Answer 24

Onset
Location
Duration

Character (Quality, Severity)
Alleviating/Aggravating factors
Radiation
Timing (triggers, frequency)

OLD CART

Question 25

What are the 2 techniques for clarifying complaints?

Answer 25

Summarization | Confrontation

Question 26

When taking a Past Medical History what pneumonic do you use?

Answer 26

``` A - Allergies H - Hospitalizations I - Immunizations S - Surgeries S - Screening Procedures (paps, colon) T - Trauma or major illness O - Oral Meds R - Reproductive History (females) Y - Youth/Childhood illness ``` "A HISSTORY"

Question 27

When asking about allergies what should you ask?

Answer 27

Food allergies Environmental allergies What kind of reaction - Hives - GI intolerance/sensitivity - Anaphylaxis (DON'T MISS THIS!!)

Question 28

How should you record hospitalizations when taking a history?

Answer 28

Most recent working back in time

Question 29

When recording oral medications you MUST include what?

Answer 29

Dose Route Reason

Question 30

What is the pneumonic to help gather a Social History?

Answer 30

``` F - Family/Food L - Lifestyle A - Abuses of substances M - Martial or relationship E - Employment S - Support System ``` "FLAMES"

Question 31

What pneumonic is used for substance abuse?

Answer 31

C - Cut down? A - Annoyance when asked G - Guilty about it E - "Eye-Opener" in the morning

Question 32

If you have a ROS that is positive, it must be included where?

Answer 32

Assessment portion

Question 33

What is the single factor that is most indicative of whether a symptom goes into the Subjective or Review of Systems?

Answer 33

Diagnosis

Question 34

How many recommendations are required at every encounter and documented on every note?

Answer 34

Minimum of 2

Question 35

What does SOAP-P stand for?

Answer 35

Subjective Objective Assessment Plan Prevention

Question 36

Your plan for your proposed “Plan” in your SOAP notes should be written in what order?

Answer 36

``` Additional lab or diagnostic studies Consults to specialty providers Therapeutics: pharm - non-pharm Patient education Disposition/Follow-up ``` “ACT PD”

Question 37

Drug schedule 1 has high potential for abuse with no accepted use. What are some examples?

Answer 37

``` Heroin LSD Ecstasy Meth Peyote ```

Question 38

Class 2 drugs have high potential for abuse and can also be considered dangerous. What are some examples?

Answer 38

``` Vicodin Cocaine Methadone Oxycodone Adderall Ritalin ```

Question 39

Class 3 drugs have a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. What are some examples?

Answer 39

Codeine Anabolic Steroids Testosterone Ketamine

Question 40

Class 4 drugs have low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence. What are some examples?

Answer 40

``` Xanax Soma Valium Ativan Ambien Tramadol ```

Question 41

Class 5 drugs have lower potential for abuse than class 4 and consist of preparations containing limited quantities. What are some examples?

Answer 41

Robitussin Lomotil Lyrica