Mechanisms Of Host Defense To Infection Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 broad categories of pathogens/microbes?

A
EC bacteria
IC bacteria
Fungi
Viruses
Parasites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 2 extreme patterns of pathology related to EC bacteria?

A

Toxicity (endo and exo-toxins)

Tissue invasion

[most EC bacteria are a combination of these two patterns]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Immunity to extracellular bacteria that produce a single toxin may require only what branch of immunity?

A

Antibodies - to neutralize the toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Immunity to extracellular bacteria that are invasive tissue requires what branch of immunity?

A

Cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most extracellular organisms fall between the 2 pathological extremes, some local invasiveness assisted by local toxicity, and enzymes that degrade the ___________ _________. Both humoral and cell-mediated responses are needed

A

Extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Innate mechanisms to extracellular pathogens includes bacterial _______ recognition by molecules present in serum and by receptors on cells.

Activation of ______ complement pathway with consequent release of C3a and C5a.

Triggers of cytokine/chemokine release and ______ cell degranulation.

Increased blood flow in local capillary networks; increased adhesion of cells and ______ to endothelial cells

A

PAMP

Alternative

Mast

Fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the adaptive immune responses to extracellular bacteria?

A

Ab production (neutralize and eliminate microbes and toxins)

Activation of CD4 T cells (produce cytokines that stimulate B cells, macrophages, and inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Extracellular bacteria may be phagocytosed rather slowly, what process increases the rate of phagocytosis?

A

Opsonization

[using complement fragments or other opsonins]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_______ immunity is the major effector branch in fighting extracellular bacteria

A

Humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Antibodies block attachment of bacteria to host cell membranes, and may trigger ______-mediated damage to some bacteria.

Abs directly block bacterial surface _______ proteins

They also opsonize the bacteria via ____ and _____ receptors for phagocytosis

They block bacterial factors that interfere with normal chemotaxis or phagocytosis. They neutralize toxins and spreading factors that facilitate invasion

A

Complement

Transport

Fc; C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Humoral immunity is the major effector branch against extracellular bacteria because the Ags are ______, they have a ___ conformation, and they are ____-linear

A

Soluble

3D

Non

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the consequences of excessive release of cytokines in the host response against EC bacteria?

A

Diffuse intravascular coagulation with consequent defective clotting; changes in vascular permeability, loss of fluid into tissues, fall in BP, circulatory collapse, hemorrhagic necrosis (in the gut)

[occurs with gram negative LPS –> endotoxic shock]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the consequence of the TNF and IL-1 host response to EC bacteria?

A

Endothelial expression of adhesion molecules and tissue thromboplastin –> promotes adhesion of circulating cells and deposition of fibrin

Platelet activating factor enhances these effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

________ EC bacteria can induce shock by massive release of cytokines mediated by superantigens in what is called a “cytokine storm”

A

Gram +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can shock be blocked in experimental models?

A

Addition of neutralizing antibodies to TNF, and antibodies to tissue thromboplastin

Or inhibitors of PAF or nitric oxide production

[note that these are not useful clinically]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

EC bacteria and fungi can evade phagocyte killing by the following:

Secretion of repellents or toxins that inhibit _______

Capsules or outer coats that inhibit _____ by phagocyte

Phagocytosed, but release factors that block killing mechanism. May inhibit _____ pump so pH does not fall.

Secretion of _____ which breaks down hydrogen peroxide

A

Chemotaxis

Attachment

Proton

Catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

EC bacteria and fungi can evade phagocyte killing by the following:

Organisms like M. leprae have highly resistant outer coats, it surrounds itself with a _______ _______, which scavenges free radicals.

Mycobacteria also release lipoarabinomannan, which blocks the ability of _________ to respond to activating effects of IFN-y.

Cells infected with Salmonella enterica, M. tuberculosis, or Chlamydia trachomatis have impaired _______-_______ function

A

Phenolic glycolipid

Macrophages

Antigen-presenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

EC bacteria and fungi can evade phagocyte killing by the following:

Several organisms like Listeria and Shigella can escape the ______ and multiply in the ________

The organism may also kill the phagocyte via either ______ (staphylococci) or induction of _________ (Yersinia p.)

A

Phagosome; cytoplasm

Necrosis; apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How would an outer capsule on a bacteria evade complement (5 main ways)?

A

Outer surface is configured so that complement receptors on phagocytes cannot obtain access to fixed C3b

Surface structures can be expressed that divert attachment of MAC from cell membrane

Membrane-bound enzyme can degrade fixed complement

Outer membrane can resist insertion of MAC

Secretion of decoy proteins that cause complement to be deposited on them instead of bacterium itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What extracellular bacterium was used as an example that uses several strategies to avoid damaging effects of antibodies, first by failing to evoke a large Ab response, then by secreting IgA proteases, then secreting blebs that deplete local Abs?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae uses several strategies to avoid damaging effects of Ab:

First, fails to evoke a large Ab response, and Ab that does form tends to ______ the function of damaging Abs.

Second, it secretes an ____ _______ to destroy antibody

Third, _____ of the membrane are released, and these appear to adsorb and deplete local Ab levels

It also has 3 strategies to alter its antigenic composition.

A

Block

IgA protease

Blebs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aside from its methods for avoiding damaging effects of Ab, Neisseria gonorrhoeae uses 3 strategies to alter its antigenic composition:

  1. LPS may be _________, so that it more closely resembles mammalian oligosaccharides and promotes rapid removal of ___________.
  2. It can undergo ________ _______, so that it expresses an alternative set of surface molecules.
  3. The gene encoding ____, the subunits of the _____, undergoes homologous recombination to generate variants.
A

Sialylated; complement

Phase variation

Pilin; pilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What cells and cytokines of the innate immune system limit the growth and spread of intracellular bacteria?

A

Phagocytes
NK cells
IL-12 and IFN-y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which branch of adaptive immunity is responsible for intracellular bacteria?

A

Cell-mediated

[T cells activate phagocytes via CD40L and IFN-y to eliminate the microbes]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Intracellular bacteria are:

_________-dependent antigens

_________ protein peptides

Recognized by ______

A

T cell

Linear

HLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normally, cytokines inhibit intracellular bacterial growth.

With a ______ knockout, you would have REDUCED ability to control growth and cells die by day 60.

With a _____ knockout, you would by INCAPABLE of controlling bacterial growth, your cells would die by day 35.

A

IL-12

IFN-y

[IFN-y is most critical]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why is cell-mediated immunity the major effector branch against intracellular bacteria?

A

Because when IC bacteria are phagocytosed by macrophages, they may survive in phagosomes and escape into cytoplasm

Elimination of those bacteria requires adaptive immunity via CD4 and CD8 T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do CD4 T cells act as effector cells against intracellular bacteria?

A

They respond to class II MHC-associated peptide Ags derived from intravesicular bacteria, then produce IFN-y –> activates macrophages to destroy microbes in phagosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do CD8 T cells act as effector cells against intracellular bacteria?

A

Respond to class I associated peptides derived from cytosolic antigens and kill the infected cells directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

By what process can dendritic cells ingest virally infected cells and display Ag to CTLs AND Ths?

A

Cross-presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some mechanisms by which IC bacteria and fungi evade phagocyte killing?

A

Release of factors that block killing mechanisms

Inhibition of lysosome fusion with phagosome

Inhibition of proton pump, so pH does not fall

Resistant outer coats with phenolic glycolipid, which scavenges free radicals

Mycobacteria release lipoarabinomannan that blocks ability of macrophages to respond to activating effects of IFN -y

Impairment of Ag-presenting function

32
Q

Consequences of host responses to intracellular bacteria:

________ formation due to collection of macrophages

Activated macrophages fuse to form __________ giant cells that may or may not contain ________ center

Individual _____ influence outcomes

A

Granuloma

Multinucleated; necrotic

Genetics

33
Q

Are the following mechanisms of evasion of EC or IC bacteria?

Antigenic variation
Inhibition of complement activation
Scavenging of reactive oxygen intermediates

A

Extracellular

34
Q

Are the following mechanisms of evasion of EC or IC bacteria?

Inhibition of phagolysosome fusion
Inactivation of ROS and NO species
Disruption of phagosome membrane

A

Intracellullar

35
Q

Viruses are ________ intracellular pathogens that use host cellular machinery to ________

A

Obligate; replicate

36
Q

What is a latent viral infection?

A

Viral DNA persists in host cells; goal is control not eradication

37
Q

What is a lytic viral infection?

A

Cells infected by viru are lysed, complicated by budding and virion spreading

38
Q

What branch of innate immunity prevents viral infection?

A

Type I IFNs

39
Q

What branch of innate immunity eliminates virally infected cells?

A

NK cells

40
Q

What branch of adaptive immunity blocks viral infection during the extracellular stage? What is a requirement for this?

A

Antibodies; must have had previous infection

41
Q

What branch of adaptive immunity is responsible for killing virally infected cells?

A

CTLs

42
Q

______ protect against viral infections and promote cell-mediated immunity. They inhibit viral replication in infected and uninfected cells by increasing class ____ HLA, promoting _____ development, and promoting lymphocyte migration and sequestering in _____ _______

A

IFNs; I; Th1; Lymph nodes

43
Q

In a typical acute viral response, _____ and ______are detected in the blood stream and locally infected tissues.

CTLs are activated in LNs or _______, followed by appearance of neutralizing Abs in serum.

Activated T cells are _____ by the second to third week.

T and B cell _______ is established.

A

NK; IFN

Spleen

Absent

Memory

44
Q

How would antibody alone respond to free virus?

A

Blocks binding, entry, and/or uncoating of virus

45
Q

How would antibody + complement respond to free virus?

A

Damage to viral envelope, blockade of virus receptor

46
Q

How would antibody + complement respond to virus-infected cells?

A

Lysis of infected cell, opsonization of coated virus or infected cell for phagocytosis

47
Q

How would antibody bound to infected cells kill virus-infected cells?

A

ADCC by NK cells, macrophages, and neutrophils

48
Q

What might a consequence of host responses be in persistent viral infections like HCV?

A

Circulating immune complexes

49
Q

How might viral infections provoke autoimmunity?

A

Cytolytic mechanism may expose “hidden” self-Ags: epitope spreading

Molecular mimicry (s. Pyogenes)

50
Q

______ can cause tissue damage in the setting of non-cytopathic viruses by infiltrating tissue

A

CTLs

51
Q

Viruses have the following potential mechanisms for evasion of host defenses:

________: meaning that they may not cause active infection for months to years

___________ variation: mutation of regions normally targeted by Abs and T cells

________ analogs like vIL-10, vIL-6, vCCL3

_________ binding protein analogs

A

Latency

Antigenic

Cytokine

Complement

52
Q

How might viruses inhibit antigen processing by class I HLAs?

A

Block peptide uptake into ER

Prevent assembly and migration of peptide:HLA

Encode their own homolog

53
Q

How might viruses inhibit antigen processing by class II HLAs?

A

Blocking transcription

Premature targeting for degradation

54
Q

Why is treating fungi difficult?

A

No approved vaccines, and antifungal drugs often have severe side effects

55
Q

Describe the cell wall of fungi

A

Rigid cell wall made up of complex polysaccharides

56
Q

In what 2 forms can fungi exist in humans?

A

Yeasts = single cells

Hyphae = long, slender branches

57
Q

Fungi are highly immunogenic to what cell types?

A

Bs and Ts

58
Q

T/F: Fungi are often pathogenic

A

False; very few are pathogenic

59
Q

Who is at greatest risk of fungal infection?

A

Immunocompromised

60
Q

What aspects of innate immunity are important in fungal infection?

A

Neutrophils
Macrophages
Defensins

61
Q

What aspects of adaptive immunity are important for fungal infection?

A

Th1 activation of macrophages

IFN-y and IL-12 production

62
Q

What is the major effector branch in fighting fungal infections?

A

Cell-mediated

63
Q

What pathogen has greater morbidity and mortality than any other?

A

Parasites

64
Q

Most parasites have _______ life cycles with ______ Stages

A

Complex; intermediate

65
Q

What are the 2 types of parasites?

A

Protozoan

Metazoan

[immunity differs between the 2]

66
Q

Areas with endemic parasitic infections require repeated _______

A

Chemotherapy

67
Q

What are innate effector mechanisms to protozoan parasitic infections?

A

Phagocytosis (neutrophils, macrophages, DCs)

68
Q

What are 2 innate effector mechanisms to helminthic parasitic infections?

A

Phagocytes secrete microbial substances to kill organisms to be internalized

Alternative complement pathway

69
Q

What are adaptive effector mechanisms to protozoan parasitic infections?

A

Th1 activation of macrophages

Specific Ab protection

70
Q

What are adaptive effector mechanisms to helminthic parasitic infections?

A

Th2 class switch to IgE (IL-4, 5)

IgE binding to outer cuticle, mast cell degranulation

IL-5 recruits Eos for degranulation

ADCC

71
Q

Which is more toxic to helminthes, eosinophils or mast cell degranulation?

A

Eosinophils

72
Q

What is the most important immune response against parasites that live in the blood stream, like african trypanosomes and malarial parasites?

A

Antibodies

These can damage parasites directly, enhance their clearance by opsonizing them, activating complement, and blocking their entry into host cells

73
Q

What are some consequences of host responses to parasitic infections?

A

Chronic infections

Immunosuppression

Granulomas and fibrosis that physically block circulation, lymph, portals to organs, and obstruct GI

Formation of circulating complexes

Cytokine overload (mast cell and Eo mediators)

Molecular mimicry

74
Q

Parasitic evasion of phagocytosis:

Parasites actively enter the cell into a membrane-bound ________. Lysosomes do not fuse with this.

Survival of parasite depends on stage of ________

Parasites multiple within the phagosome and resist digestion by the presence of a surface ________.

A

Vacuole

Development

Protease

75
Q

Can parasites undergo antigenic variation?

A

Yes, parasites can change their surface Ags during their life cycle in the host

76
Q

What are the 2 forms of antigenic variation utilized by parasites?

A

Stage specific (mature vs. infective)

Continuous (programmed expression of genes encoding major surface Ags)