Mechanisms of Disease I: Cell growth and cell differentiation Flashcards

1
Q

Define hyperplasia

A

increase in cell numbers (hyperplasia (most common) – cell division

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2
Q

Define hypertrophy

A

increase in cell size (hypertrophy – more proteins, more membranes, elevated levels of protein synthesis. Such as the heart)

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3
Q

What do hyperplasia and hypertrophy depend on?

A

Depends on the integration of intra- and extracellular signals (checks on cellular physiology, growth and inhibitory factors, cell adhesion etc.)

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4
Q

What is differentiation?

A

Differentiation: exit from the cell cycle, known as post-mitotic cells. It involves a program of cell type-specific gene expression. The cell morphology and function changes.

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5
Q

What are the cell cycle phases?

A

• G1 is growth phase 1, S is synthesis (where DNA is replicated), M is for mitosis
o Progression controlled at three key checkpoints (restriction points)

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6
Q

What is programmed cell death called?

A

• Loss of cells by programmed cell death (apoptosis)
o A coordinated program of cell dismantling ending in phagocytosis. Distinct from necrosis
o Occurs during normal development (e.g. separation of the digits, involution, immune and nervous system development)
o And in response to DNA damage and viral infection

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7
Q

Is there anything in common between cell growth and differentiation?

A
  • Yes – the mechanisms governing them
  • Cell growth and differentiation are both governed by the integration of multiple signals:
  • Depends on integration of intra- and extracellular signals (checks on cellular physiology, growth and inhibitory factors, cell adhesion etc.)
  • These signals converge on the promoters of key genes – these promoters act as “co-incidence detectors.” These then determine if the gene is expressed and how much expression.
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8
Q

What are Growth factors, cytokines and interleukins?

A

Proteins that:
• Stimulate proliferation (called mitogens) and maintain survival
o Usually named after originally identified target e.g. EGF, FGF, Interleukins (IL2 & IL4), NGF
o But see also PDGF (platelet-derived GF) and IGF1 (Insulin-like GF – the main effector of pituitary growth hormone)
• Stimulate differentiation and inhibit proliferation e.g. TGF Beta (transforming growth factor)
• Induce apoptosis e.g. TNFα and other members of the TNF family (tumour necrosis factor)

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9
Q

briefly explain how extracellular signals work

What are the three broad classes of extracellular

A

Ligand – receptor – intracellular cascade
Three broad classes:
1. Paracrine: produced locally to stimulate proliferation of a different cell type that has the appropriate cell surface receptor
2. Autocrine: produced by a cell that also expresses the appropriate cell surface receptor
3. Endocrine: like conventional hormones, released systemically for distant effects

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10
Q

Describe cell population growth

A

• When you add growth factor, the cells will respond and enter the cell cycle and start to divide
• If the PDGF is no longer available, there is a plateau until they receive more PDGF
o If the cells receive TGF Beta, they will stop dividing
• TNF Alpha will lead to the cells committing suicide and the number of cells going down
• So, we can influence cell number according to what factors we add

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11
Q

What are the phases of the cell cycle?

A

• M is mitosis. This is the separation of the chromosomes and the physical separation of the cell into 2 daughter cells
o After the M phase, one of the daughter cells undergoes interphase. The cell grows using nutrients to create more cytoskeleton etc.
• Synthesis is when DNA replication takes place  two copies of the genomic DNA
• In the growth phases the cells get ready, so they have everything that is required for mitosis
• Quiescent Cells are cells that are arrested in the G0 phase
o These cells can re-enter the cell cycle if we add mitogens and will start proliferating
o Some quiescent cells may start to differentiate. E.g. they could become gut cells. This is called terminal differentiation. Some cells undergo apoptosis and die
• After cell division, the cells have two copies of each chromosome so that is 2N
o After the S phase, there is more duplication, so it is 4N

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12
Q

What does Fluorescence activated cell sorter (FACS) analysis. show us?

A

• In G1 phase 2N- diploid state, in M phase 4N state as chromosome has been duplicated.
• Take cells and label the DNA with dye.
• The dye is read by a laser and the laser tells us how intense the cells are in each phase.
o We can see in what stage cells are in.
• This graph shows the difference between a slow and fast rate of proliferation.
o In the high rate of proliferation, there are a lot more cells that are in the S phase

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13
Q

Describe the principles of DNA replication

A
  • DNA is replicated semiconservatively (daughter cells inherit one parental and one new strand)
  • New DNA is synthesised in the 5’ to 3’ direction from deoxynucleotide triphosphate precursors at a replication fork by a multienzyme complex (a replication machine)
  • Fidelity is determined by base pairing (A=T, G≡C) and presence of a proof-reading enzyme in DNA polymerase
  • Synthesis of the new DNA strand uses an RNA primer and occurs continuously on the leading strand and discontinuously on the trailing strand (giving rise to Okazaki fragments, which are ligated together after removal of the RNA primer)
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14
Q

What do the different stains show?

A
  • Stain in blue is for DNA
  • Stain in red is for gamma tubulin which is required to form the microtubules that will bind to the centrioles and chromosomes
  • Stain in green is for CHEK2 which is a cell cycle checkpoint protein
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15
Q

What are the phases of mitosis?

A

• Prophase (1)
• Nucleus becomes less definite
• Microtubular spindle apparatus assembles
• Centrioles (yellow) migrate to poles
• This is due to the overlap in the green and the red
• Prometaphase
o Nuclear membrane breaks down
o Kinetochores attach to spindle in nuclear region
• Metaphase (2)
o Chromosomes (blue) align in equatorial plane
• Anaphase (3)
o Chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles
• Telophase (4)
o Daughter nuclei form
• Cytokinesis
o Division of cytoplasm
o Chromosomes decondense

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16
Q

What drugs affect the S-phase of the cell cycle:
5-Fluorouracil
Bromodeoxyuridine
Tamoxifen

A
  • 5-Fluorouracil (an analogue of thymidine blocks thymidylate synthesis). So, DNA can’t make 2 copies (duplicate), so arrested in s phase of cell cycle.
  • Bromodeoxyuridine (another analogue that may be incorporated into DNA and detected by antibodies to identify cells that have passed through the S-phase).
  • Tamoxifen is an antagonist of oestrogen, stops cell growth.
  • We know that breast cells need oestrogen to work so we can use it to decrease proliferation in ER-positive breast cancer cells
17
Q

What drugs affect the M-phase of the cell cycle:
Colchicine
Vinca alkaloids
Paclitaxel

A
  • Colchicine (stabilises free tubulin, preventing microtubule polymerisation and arresting cells in mitosis – used in karyotype analysis), so chromosomes cannot separate , arrest at M phase.
  • Vinca alkaloids (similar action to colchicine)
  • Paclitaxel (Taxol, stabilises microtubules, preventing de-polymerisation)

5-Fluorouracil, paclitaxel, the vinca alkaloids and tamoxifen are used in treatment of cancer. The idea is to stop cancer cells dividing.

18
Q

Whatis the purpose of checkpoints within the cell cycle?

A

Controls (involving specific protein kinases and phosphatases) ensure the strict alternation of mitosis and DNA replication.

19
Q

What are protein kinases?

A

Protein kinase – regulates by phosphates do the opposite job) add phosphate groups to substrates.

20
Q

What are the cell cycle checkpoints?

A

On image

21
Q

What does Cyclin-dependent kinase activity control?

A

Cell cycle progression

o Cell cycle is controlled by CDK.
o To be active, it needs to form a complex with Cyclin.
o The complex recognises substrate proteins and is then phosphorylated.

22
Q

How is Cyclin-CDK Activity regulated?

A
  • Cyclical synthesis (gene expression) and destruction (by proteasome).
  • Post translational modification by phosphorylation – depending on modification site may result in activation, inhibition or destruction
  • Dephosphorylation
  • Binding of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors
23
Q

What is the retinoblastoma protein?

A

The retinoblastoma protein is a key substrate of G1 and G1/S cyclin-dependent kinases

  • The RB is a key substrate of G1 and G¬1/S cyclin-dependent kinases
  • RB in cells that are in g0/g1 adds TF E2F.
  • E2F regulates many genes that enter s phase , e.g. DNA Pol
24
Q

What are the 2 types of Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors?

A

o Two families of CKIs:
1) CDK Inhibitory Protein/Kinase Inhibitory Protein (CIP/KIP) family (now called CDKN1)
– Expression of members of this family stimulated weakly by TGF and strongly by DNA damage (involving TP53)
 TP 53 Tumour Suppression gene, activates expression of kinase inhibitors
– Inhibit all other CDK-cyclin complexes (late G1, G2 and M)
– Are gradually sequestered by G1 CDKs thus allowing activation of later CDKs
2) Inhibitor of Kinase 4 family (INK4) (now called CDKN2)
– Expression stimulated by TGF
– Specifically inhibit G1 CDKs (e.g. CDK4 the kinase activated by growth factors

25
Q

How do growth factors induce cyclin expression?

A
  • A growth factor binds to its receptors and activates signal transducers
  • There are effects in the nucleus and different waves of transcription factor will be activated
  • Cell from G0,
  • Cells receive GF, receptors on cell recognise GF they bind, activate intracellular pathways, leads to affect in nucleus regulates expression of P21/Cyclin
26
Q

What does DNA damage at checkpoints trigger?

What 3 things could happen?

A

DNA damage detected at checkpoints triggers cell cycle arrest or apoptosis

On image

27
Q

What is TP53 and how does it act?

A

• Intact DNA molecule has a mutation
o The damage is detected by kinases
o These kinases activate CHEK2  TP53 is a substrate for CHEK2
• P53 is expressed in cells however is the protein is not functional as it is quickly degraded by the proteasome.
• In response to DNA damage, kinases phosphorylate P53.
o When it is phosphorylated, it cannot be degraded and it now stabilised and active.
o It will now go and bind the promoters of transcription factors and will help to express genes that are required for DNA repair.
 If a cell cannot be repaired, P53 will trigger apoptosis which gets rids of cells that are deleterious for the whole organism.