ME Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

What is defined as a ‘small’ multiengine airplane?

A

A reciprocating or turbopropeller-powered airplane with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 12,500 pounds or less.

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2
Q

What does the term ‘light-twin’ refer to?

A

A small multiengine airplane with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 6,000 pounds or less.

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3
Q

What is the significance of one engine inoperative (OEI) flight for multiengine airplanes?

A

It emphasizes the significant difference between flying a multiengine and a single-engine airplane.

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4
Q

What is crucial for safe OEI flight in multiengine airplanes?

A

Knowledge, risk management strategies, and skills.

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5
Q

What is the final authority on the operation of a particular make and model airplane?

A

The airplane manufacturer.

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6
Q

What are the two types of airplanes discussed in terms of operation during an engine failure?

A

Multiengine and single-engine airplanes.

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7
Q

What is the impact of losing thrust from one engine in a multiengine airplane?

A

It affects both performance and control, leading to a loss of 50 percent of power and reduced climb performance by 80 to 90 percent.

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8
Q

What does the term ‘V’ speeds refer to?

A

Performance speeds that are critical for flight operations.

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9
Q

Define VR in the context of multiengine airplanes.

A

Rotation speed—speed at which back pressure is applied to rotate the airplane to a takeoff attitude.

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10
Q

What does VLOF stand for?

A

Lift-off speed—speed at which the airplane leaves the surface.

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11
Q

What is VX in aviation terms?

A

Best angle of climb speed—speed at which the airplane gains the greatest altitude for a given distance of forward travel.

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12
Q

What does VYSE represent?

A

Best rate of climb speed with OEI, marked with a blue radial line on most airspeed indicators.

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13
Q

What is the definition of VMC?

A

The calibrated airspeed at which it is possible to maintain control of the airplane after the sudden critical loss of thrust.

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14
Q

At what conditions are V-speeds typically presented?

A

Sea level, standard day conditions at maximum takeoff weight.

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15
Q

What is the difference between climb rate and climb gradient?

A

Climb rate is the altitude gain per unit of time, while climb gradient is the altitude gained per 100 feet of horizontal travel, expressed as a percentage.

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16
Q

What happens to climb performance after an engine failure?

A

There is a dramatic performance loss, particularly just after takeoff.

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17
Q

What is the certification basis for many multiengine airplanes?

A

The rules in effect during type certification.

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18
Q

What is the climb gradient requirement for a level 2 low speed airplane?

A

A climb gradient of at least 1.5 percent at a pressure altitude of 5,000 feet.

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19
Q

What is feathering in the context of multiengine airplanes?

A

The ability to stop engine rotation with the propeller blade streamlined to minimize drag from an inoperative engine.

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20
Q

What is the effect of a feathered propeller on parasite drag?

A

It minimizes parasite drag from the propeller.

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21
Q

What does the term ‘parasite drag’ refer to?

A

Drag that resists the airplane’s motion through the air, which can be affected by propeller blade angle.

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22
Q

What is the relationship between thrust horsepower and climb performance?

A

Climb performance is a function of thrust horsepower in excess of that required for level flight.

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23
Q

True or False: There is a requirement for a single-engine positive rate of climb at 5,000 feet for light-twins.

A

False.

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24
Q
A
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25
Q
A
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26
Q

What type of design do constant-speed propellers on single-engine airplanes typically have?

A

Non-feathering, oil-pressure-to-increase-pitch design.

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27
Q

In multiengine airplanes, what is the design of constant-speed propellers?

A

Full feathering, counterweighted, oil-pressure-to-decrease-pitch designs.

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28
Q

What keeps the constant-speed propellers on multiengine airplanes from feathering?

A

A constant supply of high-pressure engine oil.

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29
Q

What happens when there is a loss of oil pressure or a propeller governor failure?

A

The propellers can feather.

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30
Q

What are the aerodynamic forces acting on a windmilling propeller?

A

They tend to drive the blades to low pitch, high rpm.

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31
Q

What force generally drives the blades to high pitch and low rpm?

A

Centrifugal force from the counterweights.

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32
Q

What is required to feather the propeller?

A

The propeller control is brought fully aft to dump oil pressure from the governor.

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33
Q

What additional force is needed to completely feather the blades?

A

A spring or high-pressure air stored in the propeller dome.

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34
Q

What must be done to unfeather a propeller?

A

Rotate the engine to generate oil pressure.

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35
Q

What is an unfeathering accumulator?

A

A device that allows starting a feathered engine in-flight without using the electric starter.

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36
Q

What does the unfeathering accumulator store?

A

A small reserve of engine oil under pressure.

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37
Q

Why is feathering and starting a feathered reciprocating engine on the ground discouraged?

A

Due to excessive stress and vibrations generated.

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38
Q

What prevents propeller blades from feathering below approximately 800 rpm?

A

Centrifugally-operated lock pins in the pitch changing mechanism.

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39
Q

What is the purpose of a propeller synchronizer?

A

To eliminate the annoying ‘drumming’ or ‘beat’ of propellers with close but not identical rpm.

40
Q

What does a propeller synchrophaser do that a synchronizer does not?

A

It compares and adjusts the positions of the individual blades of the propellers.

41
Q

What is the main function of fuel crossfeed systems in multiengine airplanes?

A

To allow an engine to draw fuel from a tank located in the opposite wing.

42
Q

When is the crossfeed mode typically used?

A

As an emergency procedure to extend range and endurance in OEI flight.

43
Q

What is a combustion heater?

A

A small furnace that burns gasoline to produce heated air for comfort and defogging.

44
Q

What is the role of the flight director/autopilot system?

A

To integrate pitch, roll, heading, altitude, and navigation signals for flight control.

45
Q

What does the yaw damper do?

A

Moves the rudder in response to yaw rate or lateral Gs to reduce motion about the vertical axis.

46
Q

What is the purpose of alternator/generator paralleling circuitry?

A

To match the output of each engine’s alternator/generator for shared electrical load.

47
Q

What is a nose baggage compartment?

A

A common storage area on multiengine airplanes for carrying cargo.

48
Q

What is the risk associated with an improperly secured nose baggage compartment?

A

The door may open and contents may be drawn out into the propeller arc.

49
Q

What types of systems may anti-icing/deicing equipment consist of?

A

A combination of different systems classified as either anti-icing or deicing.

50
Q

What is an important preflight item regarding the compartment interior?

A

Inspection of the compartment interior to check for unexpected items like ballast or tools

More than one pilot has been surprised to find a supposedly empty compartment packed to capacity or loaded with ballast.

51
Q

What are the two classifications of anti-icing/deicing equipment?

A

Anti-icing and deicing

These classifications depend upon their function.

52
Q

What does anti-icing equipment do?

A

Prevents ice from forming on certain protected surfaces

Examples include heated pitot tubes and windshields with electrical resistance heating.

53
Q

Name an example of deicing equipment.

A

Pneumatic boots on wing and tail leading edges

Deicing equipment is used to remove ice that has already formed.

54
Q

What is the all-engine service ceiling for multiengine airplanes?

A

The highest altitude at which the airplane can maintain a steady rate of climb of 100 fpm with both engines operating

The airplane has reached its absolute ceiling when climb is no longer possible.

55
Q

What should be done with anti-icing equipment prior to flight into known or suspected icing conditions?

A

It should be actuated

This is in the absence of AFM/POH guidance to the contrary.

56
Q

What is the definition of accelerate-stop distance?

A

The runway length required to accelerate to a specified speed, experience an engine failure, and stop

Specified speeds can be either VR or VLOF, as determined by the manufacturer.

57
Q

What is meant by accelerate-go distance?

A

The horizontal distance required to continue the takeoff and climb to 50 feet after an engine failure

This is also specified at either VR or VLOF, as per the manufacturer.

58
Q

What is the climb gradient?

A

A slope expressed in altitude gain per 100 feet of horizontal distance, stated as a percentage

A 1.5 percent climb gradient indicates an altitude gain of one and one-half feet per 100 feet of horizontal travel.

59
Q

What factors affect climb gradient?

A

Wind

Climb gradient improves with a headwind and decreases with a tailwind.

60
Q

What is the single-engine service ceiling?

A

The altitude at which the multiengine airplane can no longer maintain a 50 fpm rate of climb with one engine inoperative

Its single-engine absolute ceiling is where climb is no longer possible.

61
Q

What is the purpose of a takeoff planning factor?

A

To ensure appropriate actions are taken in the event of an engine failure

This includes considering weight and balance, airplane performance, runway length, and more.

62
Q

True or False: The regulations require that the runway length be equal to or greater than the accelerate-stop distance.

A

False

Most AFM/POHs publish accelerate-stop distances only as advisory.

63
Q

What does zero fuel weight limit?

A

The maximum allowable weight of the airplane and payload with no usable fuel on board

This calculation is to limit load forces on the wing spars.

64
Q

Calculate the useful load if the maximum takeoff weight is 5,200 lbs and the basic empty weight is 3,200 lbs.

A

2,000 lbs

Useful load is the maximum combination of usable fuel, passengers, baggage, and cargo the airplane can carry.

65
Q

What is the difference between basic empty weight and licensed empty weight?

A

Basic empty weight includes full oil; licensed empty weight does not

This distinction is key in weight and balance calculations.

66
Q

What is a critical consideration for pilots regarding weight and balance in multiengine airplanes?

A

Address weight and balance prior to each flight

The complexity arises from multiple loading areas and configurations.

67
Q

What is the basic empty weight of the airplane?

68
Q

What is the useful load of the airplane?

69
Q

What does the useful load consist of?

A

Usable fuel, passengers, baggage, and cargo

70
Q

How is payload calculated?

A

Zero fuel weight - Basic empty weight

71
Q

What is the payload of the airplane?

72
Q

What is zero fuel weight?

A

The limiting weight if published

73
Q

Calculate the fuel capacity at maximum payload (1,200 lbs)

74
Q

What does the fuel capacity at maximum payload allow?

A

Usable fuel only

75
Q

What is the fuel capacity in gallons at maximum payload?

A

133.3 gallons

76
Q

What is the maximum usable fuel capacity of the airplane?

77
Q

What is the weight with maximum fuel?

78
Q

What is the payload allowed at maximum fuel capacity?

79
Q

What is ramp weight?

A

Weight in excess of maximum takeoff weight

80
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

Weight limitation for landing

81
Q

What should be ensured for landing at maximum landing weight?

A

Preflight planning of fuel burn

82
Q

True or False: An overweight landing inspection may be advisable.

83
Q

What affects the flight characteristics of a multiengine airplane?

A

Shifts of the center of gravity (CG)

84
Q

What happens at forward CG?

A

More stable with higher stalling speed and slower cruising speed

85
Q

What happens at aft CG?

A

Less stable with lower stalling speed and faster cruising speed

86
Q

What determines forward CG limits?

A

Certification by elevator/stabilator authority

87
Q

What determines aft CG limits?

A

Minimum acceptable longitudinal stability

88
Q

What should the pilot do to achieve a CG within the approved envelope?

A

Direct seating of passengers and placement of baggage

89
Q

What is a special weight and balance plotter?

A

A tool with movable parts for adjusting CG on a plotting board

90
Q

What should be done when ballast is added?

A

It should be securely tied down

91
Q

What is an important consideration during ground operations with multiengine airplanes?

A

Increased wingspan requiring greater vigilance

92
Q

What is a ground handling advantage of multiengine airplanes?

A

Differential power capability

93
Q

What should be avoided during sharp turns assisted by brakes?

A

Pivoting about a stationary inboard wheel

94
Q

When should cowl flaps be fully open during ground operations?

A

Unless otherwise directed by the AFM/POH

95
Q

When should strobe lights be used?

A

Normally deferred until taxiing onto the active runway