MDT Flashcards

1
Q

Person or animal that harbors the infectious agent/disease and can transmit it to others but does not demonstrate signs of the disease

A

Carrier

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2
Q

Exposure to a source of an infection; a person who has been exposed.

Does not imply infection; it implies possibility of infection

A

Contact

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3
Q

Capable of being transmitted from person to person by contact or proximity. Does not need or utilize a vector.

A

Contagious

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4
Q

An organism that harbors a parasitic, mutualistic, or commensalism guest

A

Host

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5
Q

An organism that lives on or in a host organism and gets its food from or at the expense of its host

A

Parasite

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6
Q

Three main classes of human parasites

A

Protozoa

Helminths

Ectoparasites

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7
Q

An infectious agent or organism that can produce disease

A

Pathogen

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8
Q

Invasion of the body tissues of a host by an infectious agent, regardless if it causes disease or not

A

Infection

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9
Q

A pathway into the host that gives an agent access to tissue that will allow it to multiply or act

A

Portal of entry

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10
Q

A population of organisms or the specific environment in which an infectious pathogen naturally lives and reproduces; usually a living host of a certain species

A

Reservoir

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11
Q

A pathogen that is transmissible from non-human animals (typically vertebrates) to humans

A

Zoonosis

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12
Q

An increase, often sudden, in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in that population in that area

A

Epidemic

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13
Q

Carries the same definition of epidemic but is often used for a more limited geographic area

A

Outbreak

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14
Q

The constant presence of an agent or health condition within a given geographic area or population

A

Endemic

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15
Q

An epidemic occurring over a widespread area (multiple countries or continents) and usually affecting a substantial proportion of the population

A

Pandemic

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16
Q

Any of a group of viruses that are transmitted between hosts by mosquitoes, ticks, and other arthropods

A

Arbovirus (arthropod-borne virus)

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17
Q

Resistance developed in response to an antigen (pathogen or vaccine) characterized by the presence of antibody produced by the host

A

Active Immunity

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18
Q

When a majority of a given group is resistant/immune to a pathogen. This confers protection to unvaccinated or susceptible individuals/group by reducing the likelihood of infection or spread

A

Herd Immunity

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19
Q

Transfer of active humoral immunity of ready-made antibodies produced by another host or synthesized.

Used when there is a high risk of infection and insufficient time for the body to develop its own immune response. Short term.

A

Passive Immunity

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20
Q

Describes any illness, impairment, degradation of health, chronic, or age-related disease

A

Morbidity

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21
Q

Time interval from a person being infected to the onset of symptoms of an infectious disease

A

Incubation period

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22
Q

Time interval from a person being infected to the time of infectiousness of an infectious disease

A

Latency period

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23
Q

An infection that is nearly or completely asymptomatic.

A subclinical infected person is an asymptomatic carrier of the infection

A

Subclinical infection

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24
Q

A combination of symptoms characteristic of a disease or health condition; sometimes refers to a health condition without a clear cause

A

Syndrome

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25
Measure of death in a defined population during a specified time interval, from a defined cause
Mortality rate
26
Transmission occurs between an infected person and a susceptible person via direct physical contact with blood or body fluids
Direct contact
27
Transmission occurs when there is no direct human-to-human contact
Indirect contact
28
Often indicate the onset of a disease before more diagnostically specific signs and symptoms
Prodrome
29
Leading cause of domestically acquired arboviral disease in the U.S.
West Nile Virus
30
Organism that transports West Nile Virus
Culex Mosquito
31
Incubation period of West Nile Virus
2-6 days, can range 2-4
32
WNV Mosquitoes become infected when they feed on infected _____; then spread the virus to humans
Birds
33
Considered 'dead-end' hosts for West Nile Virus
Horses and Humans
34
Should be considered in any febrile patient or acute neurologic illness with recent exposure to mosquitoes during the summer months in endemic areas
West Nile Virus
35
Acute systemic febrile illness accompanied by: - Headache, weakness, myalgia, or arthralgia - Gastrointestinal symptoms - Transient maculopapular rash
West Nile Virus
36
West Nile Virus lab diagnosis
IgM in serum or CSF
37
West Nile Virus Treatment
Pain control for headaches, antiemetic therapy and rehydration for associated nausea & vomiting
38
Most patients with non-neuroinvasive WNV disease recover completely; however, fatigue, malaise, and weakness can linger for how long?
Weeks to months
39
Subtypes of Malaria
Falciparum Vivax Ovale Malariae
40
Malaria is transmitted via:
Female anopheles mosquito
41
Incubation period of Malaria
7-30 days
42
Malaria Phase SEXUAL CYCLE in a female Anopheles Mosquito Begins when a female anopheles mosquito takes a blood meal from an infected human Ends when the mosquito salivary glands are filled malaria parasites
Sporogony Phase
43
Malaria Phase Asexual cycle in the human liver
Exoerythrocytic Phase
44
Malaria phase Asexual reproduction in RBCs Patient is SYMPTOMATIC at this stage
Erythrocytic Phase
45
Presentation of Malaria can be broken into what 2 broad categories?
Uncomplicated & Severe
46
Paroxysmal (cyclical) fever Influenza-like symptoms including chills, headache, myalgias, and malaise Jaundice & mild anemia secondary to hemolysis
Uncomplicated Malaria
47
Malaria with the following symptoms: - Small blood vessels infarction, capillary leakage and organ dysfunction - Altered consciousness - Hepatic failure and renal failure - Acute respiratory distress syndrome - Severe Anemia
Severe Malaria
48
Hallmark of Malaria
Paroxysmal fevers
49
Life cycle of malaria
48-72 hours
50
Both positive and negative Rapid Malaria Testing must always be confirmed by:
Microscopy
51
Two reliable-supply treatments for Malaria
Atovaquone-proguanil (Malarone) Artemether-lumefantrine (Coartem)
52
Treatment of uncomplicated Malaria
Chloroquine phosphate 1g (600mg base) PO THEN 0.5g in 6 hours THEN 0.5g daily for 2 days
53
Treatment of malaria in areas with chloroquine resistance
Malarone (Atovaquone 250mg/Proguanil 100mg) 4 tabs PO QD for 3 days
54
Treatment for severe Malaria
Artesunate 2.4mg/kg IV at 0, 12, 24, 48 hours Followed by doxycycline 100mg BID x 7 days after parenteral therapy
55
Treatment of P. ovale
Artesunate 2.4mg/kg IV at 0, 12, 24, 48 hours Followed by Doxycycline 100mg BID x 7 days after parenteral therapy Add Primaquine 52.6mg PO QD x 14 days
56
Malaria Prevention The most important protective measures are:
Proper clothing and awareness
57
How many subtypes of dengue are there?
Four | DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3, DENV-4
58
Dengue is transmitted by which mosquito?
Aedes aegypti mosquito
59
Three phases of Dengue Fever
Febrile Critical Convalescent
60
Dengue Fever Febrile stage typically lasts __ days and can be biphasic
2-7 days
61
Headache; retroorbital pain; muscle, joint, and bone pain; macular or maculopapular rash Minor hemorrhagic manifestations
Dengue Fever
62
Mild Dengue Fever Critical phase of dengue typically lasts ___ hours
24-48 hours
63
Mild Dengue Fever Most patients clinically improve during the phase and move on to recovery and convalescence stage
Critical Stage
64
Mild Dengue Fever - ______ Stage Plasma leakage subsides Pt begins to reabsorb extravasated intravenous fluids, pleural, and abdominal effusions Patient continues to improve, hemodynamic status stabilizes and diuresis ensues
Recovery
65
Dengue Fever Hypotension develops, systolic blood pressure rapidly declines, and irreversible shock and death may ensue despite resuscitation efforts
Dengue Shock Syndrome
66
Dengue Relatively accurate way to get a general determination a patients’ capillary fragility or hemorrhagic tendency.
Tourniquet Test
67
Dengue - Tourniquet A positive test is ___ or more petechiae per square inch
10
68
Treatment for mild Dengue Fever
Hydration and Acetaminophen Avoid skin injections and NSAIDs due to bleeding risk
69
Treatment for severe Dengue Fever
ICU-level monitoring and blood products Maintenance of the patient's body fluid volume is CRITICAL
70
Scientific name of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
R. rickettsia
71
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is transmitted by:
American dog tick (east of Rockies & Pacific Coast) Rocky Mountain wood tick (Rocky Mountain region) Brown tick (worldwide)
72
Incubation period for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
2-14 days
73
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is a rapidly progressive disease and without early administration of _______ can be fatal within days
Doxycycline
74
Fever, HA, GI symptoms, myalgias and rash Rash usually presents 3-5 days after fever onset -small flat pink macules on wrist, forearms, ankles and spreads to trunk
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
75
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever late disease R. rickettsia infects:
Endothelial cells that line blood vessels, causing vasculitis and bleeding or clotting in the brain or other vital organs
76
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever __% people have some type of rash
90%
77
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Sign of severe disease
Petechiae
78
Treatment of choice for all tickborne rickettsia disease (Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever)
Doxycycline
79
Perform tick checks at __-hour intervals when training or operating in RMSF endemic areas
12 hour
80
Never let your personnel go >___ hours without a tick check
>24 hours
81
Lyme Disease is transmitted via:
Blacklegged ticks
82
Incubation period for Lyme Disease
3-30 days
83
Reservoirs for Lyme Disease
Rodents (white foot deer mice, chipmunks, squirrels)
84
Vectors for Lyme Disease
Blacklegged ticks
85
Most cases, the tick must be attached for ___ hours or more before B. burgdorferi (Lyme) can be transmitted to the host
36-48 hours
86
Erythema migrans (red ring like rash) Malaise, headache, fever, myalgia, arthralgia, lymphadenopathy
Lyme Disease
87
Cardiac manifestation of Lyme Disease
Conduction abnormalities, AV node block Myocarditis pericarditis
88
Neurologic Manifestations of Lyme Disease
Bell's palsy or other cranial neuropathy Meningitis Encephalitis
89
Late disseminated stage of Lyme Disease symptoms:
Same as acute disseminated stage with: -Rheumatologic Manifestations
90
Treatment for EARLY Lyme Disease (Erythema migrans)
Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 14 days
91
Treatment for early disseminated Lyme Disease (Bell's Palsy)
Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 14 days
92
Treatment for disseminated Lyme disease (Arthritis)
Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 28 days
93
Lyme disease prevention medication post-exposure prophylaxis
Doxycycline 200mg PO 1 dose
94
Leishmaniasis organism type
Obligate intracellular protozoan PARASITE
95
Scientific name of Leishmaniasis
Leishmania tropica
96
Leishmaniasis is on every continent except:
AUS & Antarctic
97
Leishmaniasis is transmitted by:
Female phlebotomine sand flies
98
Incubation period of Leishmaniasis
2 weeks to several months and cases up to 3 years Some >20 years
99
Most common manifestation of Leishmaniasis
Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
100
Begins as a pink colored papule that enlarges to a nodule or plaque-like lesion Lesion ulcerates with indurated border and may have thick white-yellow fibrous material Lesions are often painless
Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
101
Leishmaniasis lesions healing takes how long?
Months to years with noticeable scarring
102
Cutaneous Leishmaniasis Treatment
Ulcer debrided and cleaned Anti-fungal
103
Incubation period of MRSA
Highly variable; typically 4-10 days but asymptomatic (years)
104
The highest risk of being bit by sand flies occurs at what time of day?
Dusk to dawn (typically bite at night and during twilight hours)
105
Any strain of S. aureus that has developed multiple drug resistance(s) to beta-lactam antibiotics
MRSA
106
CA-MRSA
Community Acquired
107
HA-MRSA
Hospital Acquired
108
Any strain of S. aureus susceptible (able to be killed by) beta-lactam antibiotics
MSSA
109
Most commonly manifestations of MRSA
Furuncles, carbuncles, and abscesses
110
Abscess with purulent drainage & fluctuance is a high suspicion for:
MRSA
111
MRSA treatment
I&D, packing, daily dressing changes - Bactrim - Clindamycin - Doxycycline
112
An acute or chronic inflammatory process involving bone & structures secondary to infection with pyogenic organisms, including, bacteria fungi, and mycobacteria
Osteomyelitis
113
Among younger adults osteomyelitis, occurs most commonly in:
Trauma (Penetrating injury) and related surgery
114
Among older adults, osteomyelitis occurs most commonly as a result of:
Contagious spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues and joints
115
Patients present with dull pain at the involved joint, with or without movement Tenderness, warmth, erythema, and swelling Fevers
Osteomyelitis
116
Treatment for Osteomyelitis
Surgical Containment IV Vancomycin & IV Ceftriaxone
117
Human bites occur in two basic categories
Occlusive wounds (teeth closing over and breaking the skin) Clenched-fist or "fight bites" (skin surface strikes a tooth)
118
Human Bites Typical human oral and skin flora cause infection
Eikenella Group A Strep Fusobacterium Staphylococci
119
Antibiotic prophylaxis for Human bites
Amoxicillin-clavulanate 875/125mg PO BID x 5 days
120
Hand wounds are examined in what positions?
Fingers extended & in the clenched-fist position
121
Scientific name for Tetanus
Clostridium tentani
122
Tetanus booster should be within ___ years
10 years
123
Incubation period for tetanus
3-21 days, usually about 8 days Further the inoculation the site is from CNS the longer the incubation period
124
An acute, often fatal, exotoxin-mediated disease Widely distributed in soil, and the intestines & feces of farm animals
Tetanus
125
C. tetani spores can survive autoclaving at _____ degrees Fahrenheit for 10-15 minutes
249.8 F
126
Tetanus Passive immunization was first used for treatment & prophylaxis of allied forces during:
WWI
127
Inactivated tetanus toxin was developed in the 1920's and first widely used for allied forces during:
WW2
128
What conditions allow germination of spores and production of two exotoxins, collectively called 'tetanus toxin'
Anaerobic conditions
129
Minimum lethal dose in humans for tetanus toxin
2.5 ng per kg
130
Tetanus Muscle rigidity and spasms occur secondary to the disinhibition of:
Lower motor neurons
131
Typically the first sign is trismus or lockjaw, followed by nuchal rigidity, dysphagia, and rigidity of abdominal muscles Hyperthermia, diaphoresis, hypertension, episodic tachycardia
Tetanus
132
Tetanus Death typically occurs secondary to:
Respiratory arrest
133
Treatment for Tetanus
Clean/deride wounds Supportive therapy and airway protection Antibiotics: - Metronidazole - Pen G - Tetanus Immune Globulin (500 units IM at different sites from the TDAP; part of the dose should be infiltrated around the wound)
134
When would patients with a completed 3-dose primary tetanus vaccination require a booster of TDAP?
Last documented dose of TDAP was > 5 years ago
135
Inflammation of the meninges that line the vertebral canal/skull enclosing spinal cord/brain
Meningitis
136
Inflammation of the brain itself
Encephalitis
137
Meningitis Risk factors that increase clinical suspicion
Close contact exposure (barracks, dorms) Incomplete vaccinations Immunocompromised >65 y/o & < 5 y/o Alcohol use disorder
138
Meningitis Typically occurs through what two routes of inoculation?
Hematogenous seeding Direct contagious spread
139
Febrile, HA, Nuchal rigidity, altered mental status
Meningitis
140
Labs/Rads for Meningitis
Lumbar puncture CT
141
Treatment for Meningitis
Ceftriaxone 2g IV OR Pen-G 4 million units IV
142
Osteomyelitis Antibiotics without activity against _______ should be avoided
E. corrodens
143
Meningitis Chemoprophylaxis is indicated for close contacts of patients diagnosed with which types of meningitis?
N. meningitidis H. influenzae type B meningitis
144
Chemoprophylaxis regimen for meningitis
Ceftriaxone 250mg IM one time (or) Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO one time
145
Mononucleosis organism type
Virus, one of 9 known human herpesviruses
146
Mononucleosis scientific name
Epstein-Barr virus
147
Mononucleosis is transmitted via:
Bodily fluids, primarily saliva
148
Mononucleosis Has a high risk for __________ which can be fatal
Splenic rupture
149
Presents consistent with erythematous or exudative pharyngitis or tonsillitis Malaise, Fever, Cervical lymphadenopathy, Splenomegaly Rash
Mononucleosis
150
Mononucleosis Diagnosis can be made clinically and confirmed with:
Monospot test (positive within 4 weeks after symptoms)
151
Mononucleosis treatment
Bed rest, Acetaminophen or NSAIDs Saline gargles 3-4 times Treat symptomatically
152
What drug class do you want to avoid when treated Mononucleosis?
Antivirals
153
Mononucleosis Fever resolves within ___ days Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly may persist upwards of ____ weeks
10 days 3-4 weeks
154
Mono Disposition due to risk of splenomegaly and splenic rupture
Light duty with no physical contact sports for 3-4 weeks
155
Rabies scientific name
Lyssavirus
156
How many lyssavirus genus' cause rabies in the mammals?
All 14
157
Incubation for Rabies
1-3 months, depends on site of inoculation
158
Lethality of rabies One the rabies virus reaches the CNS it has a __% fatality rate
99.9%
159
Fatal, acute, progressive encephalomyelitis caused by neurotropic viruses in the family Rhabdoviridae, genus Lyssavirus
Rabies
160
The only U.S. state that has never had a lab-confirmed case of rabies is:
Hawaii
161
All mammals are believed to be susceptible to infection, but major rabies reservoirs are:
Terrestrial carnivores and bats
162
Clinical illness in humans begins following invasion of the peripheral nervous system; and then central nervous system; culminating in acute fatal encephalitis
Rabies
163
First symptoms of Rabies
Pain and paresthesia at the site of exposure
164
Anxiety, paresis, paralysis, and other signs of encephalitis; spasms of swallowing muscles can be stimulated by the sight, sound, or perception of water (hydrophobia); and delirium and convulsions can develop, followed rapidly by coma and death
Rabies
165
Clinical rabies typically manifests as what two major forms?
Encephalitic "Furious" -Fever, hydrophobia, pharyngeal spasms, hyperactivity subsiding to paralysis Paralytic "Dumb" -Ascending paralysis that is similar to Guillain-Barre
166
Most characteristic feature of Rabies; patient becomes afraid of water due to involuntary pharyngeal muscle spasms when they attempt to drink
Hydrophobia
167
Rabies Pathognomonic pharyngeal muscle spasms triggered by feeling draft of air Leads to aspiration, coughing, choking, and if severe asphyxiation and respiratory arrest
Aerophobia
168
Diagnostic confirmation of rabies
Post-mortem brain tissue samples
169
Rabies Offending animals that appear well will be placed in isolation for ___ days for observation
10-14 days
170
Diarrhea is defined as ___ or more loose or water stools within a 24 hour period
3 or more
171
Acute Diarrhea = ___ days Persistent = ___ days Chronic = ___ days
Acute = < 14 days Persistent = 14-30 days Chronic = > 30 days
172
Presents with blood in loose-watery stools and fever Secondary tissue damage to lining of the colon from certain bacteria, and/or toxins
Inflammatory Diarrhea
173
Watery stools with no blood & absence of fever
Non-inflammatory Diarrhea
174
Community outbreaks of infectious Diarrhea are highly suggestive of:
Common food source, or viral etiology
175
Bacterial Etiologies of infectious Diarrhea
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli Campylobacter jejuni Shigella spp. Salmonella spp. Bacterial toxin-releasing
176
Viral Etiologies of Infectious Diarrhea
Norovirus Rotavirus (primarily children)
177
Protozoal etiologies of infectious Diarrhea
Giardia Entamoeba histolytica
178
Viral infectious Diarrhea
Norovirus
179
Norovirus activity peaks during what season
Winter
180
Predisposing factors for Viral infectious Diarrhea
Ready-to-eat cold foods (sandwiches and salads) Raw shellfish especially oysters, contaminated ice Close quarters living with high population density
181
Viral infectious Diarrhea is transmitted via:
Fecal-oral route Aerosols of vomitus Contaminated environmental surfaces/objects
182
Incubation period for Viral infectious Diarrhea
12-48 hours
183
Acute onset of nausea, vomiting, and non-bloody diarrhea Abdominal cramps, and sometimes a low-grade fever Illness is generally self-limited, and full recovery can be expected in 1-3 days for most patients
Viral infectious Diarrhea
184
E. coli AKA Traveler's diarrhea or Montezuma's revenge
Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
185
E. coli Also called Shigatoxigenic Escherichia Coli or STEC
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
186
E. coli Inflammatory Diarrhea is transmitted via:
Fecal-oral route
187
Salmonella Most common clinical presentation of infection
Gastroenteritis
188
Symptoms typically consist of acute diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting for 4–7 days. Patients typically recover without treatment
Salmonella
189
Salmonella Inflammatory Diarrhea Treatment for patients with severe diarrhea, high fever, or manifestations of extraintestinal infection
Fluoroquinolones
190
Transmission routes for Campylobacter infectious Diarrhea
Eating contaminated foods (undercooked chicken/raw chicken) Contaminated water or unpasteurized milk
191
Characterized by diarrhea (frequently bloody), abdominal pain, fever, and occasionally nausea and vomiting. Severe infections can include dehydration, bloodstream infection, and mimic acute appendicitis or ulcerative colitis. Generally self-limiting & lasting < 1 week
Campylobacter
192
Diarrhea of the _______ tend to be more frequent, smaller volume and are often more painful. Fever, bloody stools, or mucus tends to be more common
Large bowel
193
Diarrhea of the _______ origin tend to be larger volume and watery and will tend to have more abdominal cramping, bloating and gas
Small bowel
194
Diarrhea within 6 hours of food consumption is suggestive of toxin possible from:
S. aureus B. cereus
195
Diarrhea between 8-16 hours after eating suggests
C. perfringens
196
Diarrhea >16 hours after eating suggests
Viral or other Bacterial etiology
197
Reptiles have ______ on skin
salmonella
198
Diarrhea Hiking or outdoor recreation where patient may have drunk stream water would indicate:
Giardia
199
Diarrhea Being on a ship where others have had recent illness would indicate:
Norovirus
200
Protozoal Parasitic infectious Diarrhea is caused by:
Giardia
201
Most common intestinal parasitic disease affecting humans
Giardia
202
Incubation period for Giardiasis
1-14 days; mean of 7
203
Giardia life cycle - Infectious form of the parasite - Excreted in stool and can survive in wet environments - After ingestion excystation occurs in the proximal small bowel releasing trophozoites
Cyst Form
204
Giardia life cycle - Flagellated parasites adhere to proximal small bowel - Trophozoites that pass to large intestine revert to cysts and excreted into the environment
Trophozoite Form
205
Acute Giardiasis Symptoms typically develop in __ weeks after exposure and resolve within ___ weeks afterwards
1-2 weeks 2-4 weeks
206
Symptoms - Diarrhea (foul-smelling & greasy) - Abdominal cramps, bloating, flatulence, fatigue, anorexia, and nausea Gradual onset of 2-5 loose stools per day and gradually increasing fatigue. Weight loss may occur over time. Fever and vomiting are uncommon.
Giardiasis
207
Giardiasis lab diagnostic tests
Antigen detection assays Stool microscopy
208
Giardiasis Stool microscopy Diagnostic sensitivity increased by examining up to __ stool specimens over several days
3
209
Giardiasis treatment
Tinidazole Metronidazole
210
Giardia Patients need to be excluded from going into water until asymptomatic for ___ hours
48 hours
211
General treatment guidelines for infectious diarrhea
Rule out more serious pathologies Rehydration BRAT (bananas, rice, applesauce, toast) diet Patient education regarding hygiene
212
Infectious Diarrhea Symptomatic therapy/conservative treatment for mild-moderate in the absence of fever & bloody stools.
Loperamide Bismuth subsalicylate
213
Severe fluid loss from infectious diarrhea should be treated with:
1-2 liters of LR
214
Severe fluid loss from infectious diarrhea What tests should be utilized as a metric for improvement?
Orthostatic hypotension tests
215
When to consider antibiotics for infectious diarrhea?
Severe disease (Fever, >6 stools/day, signs dehydration) Blood or mucoid stools with no clinical suspicion of E. coli
216
Infectious diarrhea E.coli 0157:H7: specific strain of E.coli associated with
Undercooked fast-food hamburger meat
217
Infectious Diarrhea Antibiotic treatment has no clinical benefit in a patient with 0157:H7, and can significantly worsen outcomes by causing:
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)
218
Most cases of non-inflammatory diarrhea are self-limiting and resolve within:
48-72 hours
219
Any patient suspected of having infectious diarrhea shall be removed from food handling & food preparation duties until symptom free for:
24 hours
220
When to consider MEDADVICE or MEDEVAC for a patient with infectious diarrhea
Fever >101.3 Blood in stool Severe Dehydration (with inability to rehydrate) Multiple patients presenting at once with similar symptoms Inability to control symptoms with medication
221
Influenza scientific name
Orthomyxovirus
222
Subtypes of influenza
A/B/C/D
223
Influenza subtypes that cause illness in humans
A & B
224
Influenza viruses spread from person to person primarily through:
Respiratory droplet transmission
225
Incubation period for influenza
24-96 hours
226
Influenza can cause severe illness and death typically at what ages?
>65 or <2
227
Epidemics of influenza usually occur during which months?
Fall and winter months
228
Influenza Adults are infectious from 1 day prior to symptom onset to __ days after symptom onset
5-7 days
229
Flu Infectiousness is highest within __ days of onset and correlated with fever
3 days
230
Children and immunocompromised/severely ill may shed the flu virus for ___ days after onset of symptoms
>10 days
231
Two distinct glycoproteins which are necessary for viruses to enter cells and are also how influenza undergoes periodic changes
Hemagglutinin (H1, H2, H3) Neuraminidase (N1 and N2)
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Avian influenza glycoproteins
A(H5N1) A(H7N9)
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Swine-origin glycoproteins
A(H1N1) A(H1N2) A(H3N2)
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Fever/chills (> 100.8 F), myalgias, headache, malaise, occasional nausea, sometimes vomiting Nonproductive cough, sore throat, rhinitis, substernal soreness, nasal congestion Predominantly localized to the respiratory tract; include nasal discharge, pharyngeal inflammation without exudates, and occasionally rales on chest auscultation
Influenza
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Influenza typically resolves within __ days
1-7 days
236
Treatment goal for influenza
Alleviate and control symptoms while preventing spread to others
237
Antiviral medication for Influenza that can shorten the duration of fever and other symptoms and reduce the risk of complications
Oseltamivir 75mg PO BID
238
- Transmitted through consumption of contaminated water or food and certain sex practices. - Infections are typically mild, with most making a full recovery & gaining lifelong immunity. - Most people in areas of the world with poor sanitation have been infected with this virus. - Safe and effective vaccines are available
Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)
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-Transmitted through exposure to infective blood, semen, body fluids, contaminated blood products, and IV drug use. - Poses risk to healthcare workers (needle stick injuries). - Safe and effective vaccines are available
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)
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Transmitted through exposure to infective blood, contaminated blood & blood products, and IV drug use. Sexual transmission is possible but less common. There is no vaccine
Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)
241
Infections occur only with Hepatitis B infection Dual infection, results in a more serious disease and worse outcome Hepatitis B vaccines provide protection
Hepatitis D Virus (HDV)
242
Transmitted through consumption of contaminated water or food. Common cause of hepatitis outbreaks in developing nations. Vaccines exist but are not widely available.
Hepatitis E Virus (HEV)
243
No vaccination for Hepatitis C but can be cured with:
Antiviral Treatment
244
Hepatitis Can both remain dormant in the liver and cause chronic hepatitis & hepatocellular carcinoma
Hep B & Hep C
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Fatigue, fever, muscle/joint pains, runny nose, pharyngitis, nausea, vomiting, anorexia - Low grade fever - Hepatomegaly with liver tenderness - Jaundice and scleral icterus - Right upper quadrant abdominal pain
Hepatitis
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Hepatitis Within __ weeks, jaundice & RUQ pain develops
1-3 weeks
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Lab diagnostic test for Hepatitis
Hepatitis panel serologic testing
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Lab findings for Hepatitis
WBC = Normal or low UA = Proteinuria and Dark urine (bilirubinuria) LFT = Increased levels of AST and ALT * Viral: ALT>AST * Alcoholic: AST>ALT CMP Elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphates
249
TB scientific name
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Subtypes of TB
Multi-drug resistant TB (MDR-TB) Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB)
251
TB is transmitted via:
Contagious patient coughs, spreading bacilli through the air
252
Leading infectious cause of death worldwide
TB
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Characterized by local granulomatous inflammation in periphery of the lung (GHON focus) may be accompanied by ipsilateral lymph node involvement (GHON complex)
TB
254
Vaccines against TB
Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) Interferon-Gamma Release Assays (IGRAs) - QuantiFERON – TB Gold In-Tube test (QFT–GIT) - SPOT TB test (T–Spot)
255
TB vaccination may cause a false positive reaction to a TB skin test.
BCG
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Positive result on the following labs: (a) Tuberculin skin test (TST) (b) Purified protein derivative (PPD) (c) Positive QuantiFERON Gold blood test (d) Positive IGRA-TB blood test Patient is infected with M. tuberculosis but does not have active TB disease
Latent TB
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Labs and Rads for Latent TB
(1) Positive TST/PPD or blood test (2) Normal CXR (3) Negative acid-fast sputum test
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TB Document History on which form?
NAVMED 6224/7, Initial TB Exposure Risk Assessment
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Latent TB infection Baseline LFTs are indicated in patients who have:
Elevated risk for liver disorder (heavy/regular ETOH use)
260
LTBI regimens
Isoniazid & rifapentine (3HP) PO once a week x 12 weeks. Rifampin PO QD x 16 weeks Isoniazid PO QD for 6-9 months, plus Pyridoxine PO QD for 6-9 months to mitigate peripheral neuropathies
261
The provider must rule-out active TB before started the treatment for LTBI via:
Labs and Chest X-ray
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LTBI Who should you consult for preferred treatment regimen and the likelihood of drug-resistant strains in the region?
Local NEPMU/MTF
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LTBI Monthly follow up is required and will be documented on which form?
NAVMED 6224/9
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Where do you document successful completion of LTBI?
Medical Record
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Active TB is denoted from which three terms?
Post-primary TB Reactivation TB Active TB
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Prolonged & productive cough with or without hemoptysis, chest discomfort & pain, low-grade fever, decreased appetite & anorexia, unexplained weight loss, night sweats
Active TB infection (pulmonary)
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TB Most common in adults (60%–80%). Can occur years to decades after primary infection after immunological impairment.
Post-primary Re-activation TB
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Lab test Measures immune response to TB antigens Does not differentiate LTBI & ATB
IGRA-TB
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TB Screening and provisional testing, not confirmatory Does not differentiate between active LTBI and ATB
Tuberculin Skin Test (TST)
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Gold standard for confirmatory TB diagnosis Can differentiate between LTBI and ATB
Sputum Test - Acid-Fast Bascillus (AFB) with NAAT
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What might you find on a CXR for a patient with Post-primary Re-Activation TB:
Fibrosis/scarring, cavitations Enlargement of hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes
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Patients with suspected/known active TB immediately get _______ to minimize aerosolization of respiratory secretions and spread
Surgical masks
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Active TB Medical department must wear:
Particulate respirators (N95)
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TB Medical event report must be submitted within:
24 hours
275
Suspected or confirmed case of active TB, the SMDR notifies _______ as soon as possible
Cognizant NEPMU
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TB Follow routine testing and screening guidelines from which instruction?
BUMEDINST 6224.8C
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TB Prevention Ensured TST/PPD is conducted during which timeframes?
Pre-deployment and Post-deployment
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Anthrax scientific name
Bacillus anthracis
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Predisposing factors for Anthrax
Working with any unvaccinated animal that is a common reservoir More common in ranchers, leather workers, veterinarians, wildlife researchers
280
Incubation period for Anthrax
Cutaneous anthrax 1-7 days; 17 days in rare cases
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Zoonotic disease primarily affecting ruminant herbivores such as cattle, sheep, goats, antelope, and deer that become infected by ingesting contaminated vegetation, water, or soil
Anthrax
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Four main clinical presentations of Anthrax
Cutaneous Ingestion Injection Inhalation
283
Most common form of anthrax in humans (95-99%)
Cutaneous
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Hallmark of cutaneous anthrax
Eschar with extensive surrounding edema
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Small, painless, pruritic papules emerge anywhere from 1 – 12 days after exposure Papules enlarge rapidly to vesicles or bulla (blisters) Vesicle or bulla start to erode and leave painless black necrotic ulcer
Cutaneous Anthrax
286
Treatment for Anthrax
Refer to an infectious disease specialist Antibiotics - Ciprofloxacin - Levofloxacin - Doxycycline
287
If untreated, cutaneous anthrax may result in:
Sepsis Meningitis
288
Scientific name for Chlamydia
Chlamydia trachomatis
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Most frequently reported bacterial STI in the U.S
Chlamydia
290
Chlamydia transferred from mother to child can cause:
Infant blindness "trachoma"
291
Known as a ‘silent’ infection because most infected people are asymptomatic & lack abnormal physical examination findings.
Chlamydia
292
Male presentation for chlamydia
Urethritis - CLEAR WATERY discharge - Dysuria is most common complaint - Scant discharge on underwear usually presents in the morning
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Urethritis - Dysuria - Pyuria - Increased urinary frequency Cervicitis - Increased vaginal discharge - Intermenstrual vaginal bleeding - Dyspareunia
Female presentation for chlamydia
294
___% of chlamydia and gonorrhoeae co-infections
>50%
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Gold standard for laboratory diagnosis for Chlamydia
Nucleic Acid Amplification Testing (NAAT) | -UA or discharge swab
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Preferred treatment for Chlamydia
Doxycycline 100mg PO BID for 7 days
297
Antibiotic of choice for chlamydia if concerned for coinfection with gonorrhea
Ceftriaxone
298
Untreated chlamydia can cause:
- Pelvic Inflammatory Disease - Pre-term delivery in women who are pregnant - Reactive Arthritis
299
Gonorrhea scientific name
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
300
Incubation period for Gonorrhea
1-14 days, can be as short as 2-4
301
Male presentation for gonorrhea
Dysuria | -White/yellow/green urethral discharge
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Female presentation for gonorrhea
- Dysuria, increased vaginal discharge, or vaginal bleeding - Lower abdominal discomfort - Dyspareunia
303
Diagnostic lab tests for Gonorrhea
GC/NAAT Culture (important due to antibiotic resistant strains)
304
__% of gonorrhea infections are resistant to at least one antibiotic
50%
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Emergence of fluoroquinolone-resistant N. gonorrhoeae left _________ as the sole remaining class available for treatment of gonorrhea in the U.S.
Cephalosporins
306
Treatment for Gonorrhea
Ceftriaxone 500mg IM single dose AND Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 7 days
307
STI screening includes:
Gonorrhea Chlamydia HIV RPR for syphilis HPV vaccination counseling
308
Scientific name for syphilis
Treponema pallidum
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Incubation period for Syphilis
10-90 days; average is 21 days
310
Stages of Syphilis
Primary Syphilis Secondary Syphilis Latent Stage Tertiary Syphilis
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Begins as a painless papule that proceeds to ulcerate. Ends as a to 1-2cm painless ulcer with raised margins. This is called a chancre. Lymphadenopathy is typically in the inguinal lymph nodes. Chancre lasts 3 to 6 weeks and heals.
Primary Syphilis
312
Skin rashes and/or mucous membrane lesions (sores in the mouth, vagina, or anus) Syphilitic rash is characterized by diffuse non-pruritic maculopapular eruption on the trunk and extremities that includes the palms and soles. Additional symptoms may include fever, swollen lymph glands, sore throat, patchy hair loss, headaches, weight loss, muscle aches, and fatigue.
Secondary Syphilis
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Stage is a period of no visible signs or symptoms of syphilis. Without treatment, the patient will continue to be infected but will not realize it.
Latent Stage
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Rare and develops in a subset of untreated syphilis infections that appear 10–30 years after infection and can be fatal. Cardiovascular syphilis Neurosyphilis - General paresis - Tabes dorsalis Gummatous syphilis
Tertiary syphilis
315
Diagnostic tests for Syphilis
Serologic test (the standard) Nontreponemal tests (RPR) Treponemal test (FTA-ABS) (confirmatory test)
316
Nonspecific Syphilis test, not definitive Can be falsely positive (Lupus, mononucleosis, pregnancy) Need to be confirmed with treponemal test
RPR
317
Standard treatment for all stages of syphilis
Penicillin G
318
Treatment for Primary Syphilis
Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once PCN allergy: Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 14 days
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Treatment for secondary syphilis
Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once weekly for 3 weeks Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 4 weeks
320
An acute febrile reaction frequently accompanied by headache, myalgia, fever, that can occur within 24 hours after initiation of therapy for syphilis. Reaction occurs most frequently among persons who have early syphilis, presumably because bacterial burdens are higher during these stages.
Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
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Trichomoniasis organism type
Anaerobic, flagellated protozoan PARASITE
322
Trichomoniasis scientific name
Trichomoniasis vaginalis
323
Incubation period for Trichomoniasis
5-28 days
324
T. vaginalis principally infects ______ epithelium in the urogenital tract
Squamous epithelium
325
Purulent, malodorous discharge, burning, pruritis, dysuria, dyspareunia Physical exam: erythematous vulva, green-yellow malodorous discharge
Trichomonas
326
Trichomonas lab diagnostic tests
Wet mount prep NAAT
327
Treatment for trichomonas
Metronidazole 2g PO single dose or 500mg BID x 7 days *No alcohol consumption during treatment and 24 hours after completion*
328
Trichomonas Abstain from sex until they have been treated and asymptomatic for __ days
7 days
329
HSV scientific name
Human alphaherpesvirus 1 & 2
330
Incubation period of HSV
2-12 days; average is 4 days
331
Severe. painful genital ulcers Dysuria Fever Local inguinal lymphadenopathy
Primary infection HSV
332
Unilateral small vesicular lesions on erythematous base or ulcerative lesions “dew drops on a rose petal” May have mild tingling or shooting pains in buttocks and legs prior to recurrent episode
Recurrent HSV infection
333
Acute treatment for Primary HSV infection
Acyclovir 400 mg orally TID for 7–10 days Acyclovir 200 mg orally five times a day for 7–10 days Valacyclovir 1 g orally BID for 7–10 days Famciclovir 250 mg orally TID for 7–10 days
334
Reactivation of HSV can be triggered by:
Stress, menstruation, anxiety
335
Scientific name of HPV
Human papilloma virus
336
Most common strains of HPV causing anogenital warts
Types 6 & 11
337
HPV strains that are high-risk subtypes for developing a malignancy
16 & 18
338
Most common STD in the world
HPV
339
Incubation period for HPV
2 weeks to 1 year
340
Anogenital lesions may be found on the penis, vulva, vagina, cervix, perineum, and the anal region. -Usually appear as raised, skin-colored, fleshy papules that range in size from 1-5 mm. -They can be broad and flat, pedicled, or occasionally have a cauliflower-like appearance
HPV
341
HPV Treatment
Topical therapies Cryotherapy Surgical excision
342
HPV treatment should be pursued if:
Lesions that persist for more than two years if the lesions are symptomatic, or for cosmetic purposes.
343
HPV topical therapies
Imiquimod cream Podophyllotoxin Solution
344
HPV treatment Inexpensive, minimally painful, and safe during pregnancy Weekly treatment for 6-10 weeks.
Cryotherapy
345
HPV therapy that has a clearance rate near 100%
Surgical excision
346
HPV Infection is preventable with:
Vaccination (Gardasil)
347
Who should get vaccinated against HPV?
All females and males 11-26 years of age
348
9 of every 10 cases of cervical cancer are caused by:
HPV
349
HPV can cause what types of cancer?
Female: Cervix, Vagina, Vulva Male: Penis
350
Scientific name for HIV
Human immunodeficiency virus
351
Subtypes of HIV
HIV-1 & HIV-2
352
Incubation period for HIV
2-4 weeks
353
Untreated survival timeframe for HIV
9 to 11 years
354
Sex workers have a __x higher infection rate of HIV than the general population
12x
355
The acute phase of HIV infection is called:
Acute Retroviral Syndrome (ARS)
356
Fever, maculopapular rash, arthralgia, myalgia, malaise, lymphadenopathy, oral ulcers, pharyngitis, and weight loss. The presence of fever and rash have the best positive predictive value
Acute Retroviral Syndrome (acute phase of HIV)
357
HIV laboratory testing
Screening test: OraQuick ADVANCE Rapid HIV-1/2 Antibody test Confirmatory test: 4th Gen HIV immunoassay
358
HIV PrEP
Pre-exposure prophylaxis
359
HIV PrEP Guidelines
DHA IPM 18-020: Guidance for HIV (PrEP) for Persons at High Risk
360
Initiation of PrEP requires:
Negative 4th gen HIV test within 7 days if infection is not suspected Negative 4th gen HIV test & Nucleic Acid Test within 7 days if infection is suspected
361
HIV PEP
Post-exposure Prophylaxis
362
Medication type that has improved life expectancy for HIV patients
ART
363
HIV in Military Service Members instruction
DoDI 6485.01
364
DoDI member with HIV Clinical evaluations required by military infectious disease physicians at least every ____ months after diagnosis
6-12 months