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MD GP Flashcards

1
Q

Main risk factors for CKD?

A

Diabetes, HTN, age.

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2
Q

Rash on legs in IBD?

A

erythema nodosum

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3
Q

Ix to monitor statin induced myalgia?

A

CK

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4
Q

Chol and Hba1c goals in cvd?

A

aim total cholesterol below 4 and hba1c below 7

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5
Q

How many weeks no driving after AMI?

A

2 weeks

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6
Q

What are xanthoma and xanchelasma?

A

Cholesterol build ups in skin like little spots - suggest CVD risk.

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7
Q

Tx eczema herpeticum?

A

oral antivirals 72 hrs

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8
Q

3x causes of delayed meconium passage?

A

Hirchsprungs, CF, anorectal malformation.

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9
Q

Pharm mx constipation in paeds:

A

movicol, coloxyl in kids. Lactulose an option. Treat twice as long as constipation has bene present.

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10
Q

3 x medication classes for GORD?

A

Antacid
H2 antagonist
PPI

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11
Q

Pharm tx for gonorrhea?

A

IM ceftriaxone one dose + one dose of oral azithromycin

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12
Q

SGLT2 and surgery?

A

Stop 3 days before.

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13
Q

Gout pharm mx:

A

acute - colchicine
prevent: allopurinol

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14
Q

Atopic dermatitis is another term for?

A

eczema

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15
Q

dactylitis is a typical finding in which disease?

A

psoriasis

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16
Q

Psoriasis triggered by strep infection dx?

A

Guttate psoriasis

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17
Q

Cafe au lait spots are typically associated with which disease?

A

Neurofibromatosis

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18
Q

Teleangiectasia is common in which type of skin cancer?

A

BCC

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19
Q

ulcerations and pain are typical features of which skin cancer?

A

squamous cell

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20
Q

keratin horn is associated with which skin cancer?

A

squamous cell

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21
Q

What is Bowen’s disease?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma in situ

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22
Q

Initial Mx melanoma ?

A

wide local excision 5mm margins

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23
Q

Biopsy for prostate cancer?

A

Transperineal

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24
Q

Score for prostate cancer grading?

A

Gleason score

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25
Q

Ix for suspected ovarian torsion?

A

USS and maybe CA-125

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26
Q

Tool to classify diabetes risk?

A

AUSDRISK

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27
Q

What cholesterol level would you defs start a statin?

A

7.5

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28
Q

Exam answer for best SSRI in adolescents?

A

fluoxetine

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29
Q

What is a ‘yellow flag’ in GP?

A

Psycho social red flag

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30
Q

Screening for bowel cancer in someone with blood in stool?

A

NOT FOBT - that tests for blood in stool, they’ve already got that.
Need colonoscopy.

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31
Q

How often mammograms?

A

every 2 years

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32
Q

What conditions invalidate a Hba1c result?

A

Anything causing high cell turnover eg. anaemia, thallasemia etc.

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33
Q

12 month vaccinations?

A

Start the M’s
First Meningococcal
First MMR
another pneumoccoal dose

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34
Q

Contraindictions for vaccine/

A

anaphylaxis to ingredients
recent live vaccine
current fever
immunocompromied

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35
Q

Ix for DDH?

A

hip uss and x ray

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36
Q

Mx for DDH?

A

brace

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37
Q

best way to ascertain dehydration in child?

A

fewer wees

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38
Q

Brachial plexus injury during a traumatic birth can lead to which complication?

A

Erb’s palsy

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39
Q

One palmar crease is a typical sign of which condition?

A

Trisomy 21

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40
Q

An absent red reflex is present in which 2 paediatric diagnoses?

A

Cataracts and retinoblastoma

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41
Q

What kind of drug is indapamide?

A

Thiazide diuretic

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42
Q

What is micturition?

A

urination

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43
Q

Which area of the body is innervated by the sural nerve?

A

Bottom of foot

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44
Q

Which examination must be done in suspected cauda equina?

A

DRE and lower neuro

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45
Q

Ondansetron class?

A

5HT3 antagonist

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46
Q

In what condition would denosumab be preferred over bisphosphonates.

A

kidney disease.
But in reality bisphosphanates are a nightmare.

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47
Q

What is caltrate?

A

calcium and vit d

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48
Q

Clorvescent vs resonium?

A

Clorvescent - supplies oral potassium

Resonium - inhibits absorption of potassium - lowers potassium slowly

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49
Q

What is bumetanide?

A

alternate to frusemide

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50
Q

Which nerves are associated with:
Making a fist
Doing the ‘ok’ sign
splaying the fingers
extending the wrist

A

fist - median
ok - median
splay - ulnar
extend - radial

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51
Q

Which opiod is best for CKD?

A

fentanyl

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52
Q

Bromhexine use?

A

Mucolytic. Like glycopyrolate lite.

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53
Q

Pain from 60 to 120 degrees of shoulder abduction is consistent with?

A

Shoulder impingement

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54
Q

What is copralalia?

A

Swearing like tourettes

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55
Q

Gold standard imaging for myositis?

A

MRI muscle

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56
Q

3 exams you would do for someone presenting with dysphagia?

A
  • look in their mouth
  • cranial nerve exam
  • cerebellar exam
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57
Q

Symptoms of hyperprolactinemia?

A

galactorrhea
amenorrhea -> osteopenia
sexual dysfunction

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58
Q

Best ix for prolcatinoma?

A

MRI

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59
Q

Other symptoms (aside from those caused by high prolactin) to screen for in a suspected prolactinoma?

A
  • headache
  • visual changes/bumping into things
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60
Q

What non-pharm treatment could you consider in bipolar or psychosis when people are maxed out on the meds?

A

ECT

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61
Q

Most surgeons won’t do a carpal tunnel release without which investigation?

A

Nerve conduction study

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62
Q

Muffled voice + unable to open jaw due to throat point is a red flag for?

A

Quinsy

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63
Q

Most tonsilitis is _____ so does not need _____.

A

Viral, antibiotics

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64
Q

Tumour marker for HCC?

A

Alpha fetoprotein

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65
Q

When to take statin in the day?

A

Take it with your main meal of the day, whenever that may be.

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66
Q

Regular bloods for clozapine review?

A

WBC and Na+

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67
Q

What is varenicline?

A

Anti-craving for smoking tablet.

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68
Q

class of -gliptin drugs?

A

DDP4 inhibitors

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69
Q

tx for mesenteric adenitis?

A

NSAIDs

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70
Q

Which triad is associated with cardiac tampoande?

A

Beck’s triad:
- muffled heart sounds
- hypotension
- JVP up

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71
Q

chlorpromazine vs carbamazepine vs carbimazole.

A

chlorpromazine - first gen antipsychotic for BPAD

Carbamazepine - anti-convulsant/mood stabiliser

carbimazole - for hyperthyroid

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72
Q

Over the counter medicine for lowering triglycerides?

A

fish oil

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73
Q

Ages for mammogram?

A

50-74 will be contacted. Can self refer from age 40.

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74
Q

Biopsy type for enlarged prostate?

A

transperineal biopsy (tends to follow MRI imaging of prostate)

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75
Q

PSA over ____ is worrying.

A

3 - needs repeat

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76
Q

What is a PDE-5 inhibitor and what role does it play in prostate cancer?

A

eg. sildenfail (viagra)
- helps with erections if a prostatectomy has caused impotence

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77
Q

Why would past transplant have impact on incidence of skin cancer?

A

Immunosuppression allowing cancer to flourish.

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78
Q

Which Hba1c suggests pre-diabetes?

A

6.0-6.4

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79
Q

Sciatica is usually due to impact at what nerve roots?

A

L5-S1

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80
Q

Nocturnal back pain is a red flag for?

A

back cancer

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81
Q

GP Pysch Mx:

A
  • educate
  • mental health care plan
  • resources
  • pharm mx
  • psychotherapy
  • safety net/crisis plan
  • review
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82
Q

A first degree relative have bowel cancer at what age is significant for your risk?

A

Under 55

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83
Q

5 reasons PSA may be falsely elevated?

A
  • sex 48 hrs prior
  • heavy exercise 48 hrs prior
  • UTI
  • recent DRE
  • recent prostate biopsy
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84
Q

Best contraception for adolescents?

A

at the workshops they tried to drill into us that teens are shit at taking pills - consider implanon or IUD.

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85
Q

Are SSRIs addictive?

A

no

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86
Q

Syphilis vs Herpes lesion?

A

syphilis is painless, herpes extremely painful.

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87
Q

Systemic sclerosis is another name for?

A

Scleroderma

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88
Q

Age range for fibroadenoma vs fibrocystic changes

A

Under 35 - tend to be fibroadenoma

Over 35 - tend to be fibrocystic changes

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89
Q

ottawa ankle + feet rules:

A

Ankle: scan if pain in malleolar zone AND either inability to weight bear 4 steps, pain in distal tibia or fibula.

Foot: Pain in midfoot AND either pain in fifth metatarsal (pinky toe) or inability to weight bear 4 steps

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90
Q

Parasternal heave/thrill is a sign of?

A

right ventricular hypertrophy (can be secondary to cor pulmonale etc)

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91
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis is a rash found in which condition?

A

celiac - found on knees

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92
Q

Promethazine is what type of medication?

A

anti-histamine

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93
Q

First world women rarely go beyond what gestation period before being induced?

A

40+10 (41+3)

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94
Q

Turners vs Klinefelters

A

Turners - XO - assigned female
Klinefelters - XXY - assigned male usually

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95
Q

Which common blood pressure medication class is teratogenic?

A

ACEi/ARB

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96
Q

At approximately what weight should babies be considered for NICU?

A

1.5kg and under

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97
Q

Options to treat a molar pregnancy?

A

Same as ectopic essentially but can’t do conservative.
Methotrexate or D+C.

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98
Q

Mx of neonate hypoglycemia?

A
  • 40% dextrose gel
  • offer breastfeeds
  • IV 10% dextrose
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99
Q

Anti-epileptic in neonates?

A

Phenobarbital

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100
Q

Which area of the vagina should the GBS swab be used in?

A

Lower 1/3

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101
Q

High FSH is a sign of?

A

Ovarian/testicular insufficiency

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102
Q

What is anastrazole?

A

Aromatase inhibitor - good for estrogen responsive cancers.

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103
Q

Horseshoe kidney with high FSH suggests which condition?

A

Turner’s syndrome - horse shoe kidney and primary amenorrhea

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104
Q

4 Features of fragile X on exam?

A

Big ears, long face, prominent jaw, mitral prolapse.

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105
Q

Which vaccine has been linked to causing Guillian barre?

A

influenza

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106
Q

ITP can be caused by which vaccine?

A

MMR

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107
Q

Which anti-emetic to avoid in kids?

A

metaclopramide - risk of EPSE

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108
Q

Dermoid cysts are a risk factor for what condition?

A

ovarian torsion

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109
Q

Best initial ix to show ITP?

A

really low platelets

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110
Q

What kleihauer test?

A

Determines amount of fetal blood in maternal circulation eg. following trauma or haemorrhage

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111
Q

Receptor responsible for CF?

A

CFTR

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112
Q

Which ion is CF particularly associated with?

A

Chlorine

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113
Q

Which neuro disease is characterised by weakness more impacting proximal muscles than distal?

A

Duschennes muscular dystrophy
(myositis also acceptable)
Tends to spread to distal areas

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114
Q

Unable to release fist, frontal balding and wasting of facial muscles are alls signs of?

A

Myotonic dystrophy

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115
Q

Which two food allergy groups to kids tend to NOT grow out of?

A

nuts and shellfish

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116
Q

Tanner stage 1 vs tanner stage 5?

A

stage 1 = not started puberty
stage 5 = finished puberty

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117
Q

How might a car crash with a headstrike impact paeds fluid management?

A

CNS insult = 2/3 maintanence due to risk of SIADH

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118
Q

Pre-term baby with blood in stool is alarm bells for?

A

Necrotising enterocolitis

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119
Q

Alpha blockade is a treatment in which condition?

A

Pheochromocytoma

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120
Q

Positive fecal occult blood test is associated with about a ____ % risk of colorectal cancer.

A

5%

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121
Q

When is breast exam indicated in screening?

A

Only if abnormal mammography

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122
Q

Risk factors for psychosocial stress in cancer dx?

A
  • young kids
  • young age
  • marital dysfunction
  • living alone
  • female
123
Q

Screening for ovarian cx?

A

USS and CA125

124
Q

Tx for teenager with chlamydia contact?

A

Stat Oral azithro empirically and then FPU to check. Educate on abstaining from sex for 7 days and testing partners.

125
Q

Is restricted movement in all planes a red flag for back pain?

A

No, it’s very common.

126
Q

Efficacy of CBT vs SSRI?

A

CBT more effective

127
Q

Key points to hit in SSRI education?

A
  • best used with therapy
  • duration - 2 weeks to work, 6 months minimum.
  • side effects - sexual, suicide, N+V
  • discontinuation
  • alcohol/drugs/serotonin syndrome
  • not addictive
  • review in a week
128
Q

Endometrial ablation purpose?

A

To reduce heavy bleeding

129
Q

Following an AXR, what is the next ix for malrotation/volvulvus in neonate?

A

contrast study

130
Q

Early Ix to diagnose COPD?

A

chest X-ray and spirometry

131
Q

Is spironalactone used for acne in male patients?

A

no

132
Q

Important mx point about isotretinoin?

A

can only be prescribed by derm

133
Q

Patients with pre-diagnosed dementia who are experiencing a decline in functioning/worsening behaviour likely have _____. This is best managed by ______ at a _____ environment.

A

BPSD
behaviour modification strategies
familiar, home.

134
Q

Unimelb’s most important mx point for heroin overdose:

A

risk assessment for suicide

135
Q

Best Mx for MDD in teens especially:

A

CBT

136
Q

What is paroxetine?

A

ssri

137
Q

Duration of treatment after first episode psychosis?

A

Australian Guidelines Early Psychosis recommend 2-5 years of antipsychotic after first episode of psychosis

138
Q

First question for an old guy who can’t get an erection to have sex with his wife?

A

Ask if he can achieve a normal erection in other circumstances.
- differentiates an organic problem from a psych one

139
Q

what is amiloride?

A

potassium sparing diuretic like spiro

140
Q

Risk level of cancer in patients with schizophrenia?

A

higher

141
Q

First line achalasia treatment?

A

manometry

142
Q

Greasy stools in paeds is a red flag for?

A

CF - pancreatic insufficiency

143
Q

Which cancers are associated with neurofibromatosis?

A

prostate, breast, leukemia, gliomas and nerve sheath tumours.

144
Q

What is the most common type of nephrotic syndrome seen in kids?

A

Minimal change disease

145
Q

What does an odds ratio of 1.5 mean?

A

The odds of disease after being exposed are 1.5 times greater than the odds of disease if you were not exposed (50% increase)

146
Q

Involuntary movements in a 30-50 year old with reducing cognition is consistent with which disease?

A

Huntingtons

147
Q

Widened lateral ventricles with atrophy of the caudate nucleus is the hallmark of which disease?

A

Huntingtons

148
Q

Which vaccine on the normal schedule is key for those without a spleen?

A

pneumococcal

149
Q

Cystoscopy vs retrograde uretoscopy?

A

retrograde goes all the way up ureter - looking for masses and stones.

150
Q

how often to change CVC dressing?

A

At least every 7 days

151
Q

Crohn’s impact on peri-anal area?

A

anal fissures, skin tags, deep ulcers, abscesses, fistulas.

152
Q

Lateral bulging of the ear is a warning sign for?

A

mastoiditis

153
Q

‘cystic medial necrosis/degenration’ in an aortic dissection is code for?

A

Dissection caused by Marfans

154
Q

Congenital causes of aortic dissection?

A

Marfans, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Turner syndrome
Bicuspid aortic valve
Coarctation of the aorta

155
Q

Explain the ulnar paradox.

A

Injury at the wrist causes MORE claw hand than injury at the elbow (tends to just cause a flat hand)

156
Q

How does hyperglycemia impact sodium?

A

Lots of sugar leads to hyperosmolar blood - water shifts from cells into blood - diluting serum - mild hyponatremia.

157
Q

chlorpromazine?

A

typical antipsychotic

158
Q

Are patients diagnosed older or younger with schizophrenia more at risk of tardive dyskinesia/EPSE?

A

OLDER MORE AT RISK - the later diagnosed the more risk.

159
Q

Most common bacteria that causes cellulitis?

A

strep pyogenes

160
Q

Two most common pathogens in paediatric bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae

161
Q

Barking cough is typical of which condition?

A

Croup

162
Q

Shellfish/oysters are a typical cause of food-poisoning caused by?

A

Vibrio

163
Q

Egg salad food poisoning typically caused by?

A

Staph aureus

164
Q

Deli meats, soft cheeses and unpasteurzied milk are all associated with which bacteria?

A

Listeria

165
Q

Pathogen that makes honey a risk in infants under 12 months?

A

Clostridium botulinum

166
Q

Parasite causing liver cysts?

A

cystic echinococcosis (hyadatid disease)

167
Q

What is schilling test?

A

test for absorption ability of B12

168
Q

carbamazepine?

A

anti-epilpetic also used in bipolar.

169
Q

Glutamate is closely associated with which disease?

A

dementia

170
Q

Parasites common in Pakistan?

A

Malaria and Leishmania

171
Q

Indomethacin drug class?

A

NSAID

172
Q

What is Recall bias?

A

Recall bias refers to a selective memory of past events

173
Q

What is response bias?

A

People lie or respond incorrectly

174
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

Confirmation bias is the tendency to search for, interpret, favor, and recall information in a way that confirms or supports one’s prior beliefs or values.

175
Q

Diagnosis behind ‘cobblestone conjunctiva’?

A

CHRONIC allergic conjunctivitis
The papillae in chronic allergic conjunctivitis can lead to a cobblestone appearance of the conjunctiva.

176
Q

Mnemonics i use for leukemia:

A

Please Carry My Leukemia KIT
= philadelphia (22), CML, Kinase (tyrosine) such as imatinib.

L15P ARMADA
APML, Chrom 15, retinoid, arsenic, DIC, Auer Rods

177
Q

Difference between haemophiliaA and B and their patterns of inheritence.

A

A - factor 8
B - factor 9

Both are X-linked recessive.

178
Q

Pattern of inheritence for von willebrands?

A

Can have heaps of patterns, the most common is autosomal dominant (total opposite to haemophilia).

179
Q

First line Mx of von willebrands?

A

Desmopressin

180
Q

What is Sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Type of anemia marked by bone marrow making crap ‘ringed’ RBCs and not utilising iron - leading to high iron and ferritin (same findings as haemochromotosis eg. bronze skin). Can lead to hepatosplenomegaly and leukemia and can be due to genetic risks or B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency.

181
Q

Pain in retinal detachment?

A

painless

182
Q

Typical Dx in ‘blind coming down over eye’?

A

amaurosis fugax - stroke of the eye. Usually painless.

183
Q

What is leukodystrophy?

A

rare group of genetic disorders leading to progressive decline in cognition and motor function in paediatric patients. May be present at birth or develop after a few years.

184
Q

Meaning of blurring of the optic disc?

A

papilloedma - ICP up

185
Q

Two vitamins which can cause bleeding gums?

A

b12 and vit c

186
Q

When to commence rehab in a traumatic brain injury?

A

At resolution of post-traumatic amnesia.

187
Q

The Right temporal/parietal area is most important in?

A

Visual-special information processing. As opposed to left side which does everything like understanding, language etc.

188
Q

What is Tmax in CT perfusion?

A

Time it takes for blood to reach a certain area of the brain.

189
Q

What is the point of CT perfusion?

A

To identify penumbra (salvagable area of brain)

190
Q

What complication is essentially universal in those with IDC?

A

UTI, especially in spinal patients who may present atypically.

191
Q

2nd line for spasticity after baclofen?

A

diazepam

192
Q

Frequency of buprenorphine patch?

A

once weekly

193
Q

Best anti-histamine for vestibular nausea?

A

Cyclizine

194
Q

Convert 30mg of oral morphine to oral oxycodone.

A

30mg oral morphine = 20mg oral oxycodone

195
Q

Mx of acute dystonic reaction?

A

continue anti-psychotic, add benzotropine

196
Q

MRI brain finding schizophrenia?

A

increased ventricular size associated with decreased cortical gray matter volumes widely across the brain.
(Similar to huntingtons though huntingtons will mention caudate)

197
Q

Fear of entering unfamiliar environments due to risk of triggering a panic attack is called?

A

agoraphobia

198
Q

The ‘Z’ drugs (zopiclone, zolpiden) are typically used for?

A

Sleep

199
Q

Name a common illegak empathogen?

A

MDMA

200
Q

Which mineral is monitored in Lithium use?

A

calcium (hypercalcemia)

201
Q

What is disulphran?

A

Medication to help quit alcohol, gives essentially horrific hangovers by stopping alcohol metabolism.

202
Q

High fever, rigidity and raised WBC/CK when starting a new dopamine blocker are signs of:

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

203
Q

Mx of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

withdraw agent, hydrate, cool down, dialysis if necessary

204
Q

Burning nipple in breastfeeding is often due to?

A

Fungal infection (will be on baby’s tongue too)

205
Q

What happens in the lungs in transition of the neonate?

A

fluid is absorbed, lungs fill with air, pressure falls, pulmonary circulation activated.

206
Q

What is colporrhapy?

A

Surgery for cystocele or rectocele prolapse

207
Q

Apical prolapse is best managed how?

A

Apical prolpase = vaginal prolapse = enterocele.
best managed by hysterectomy (if symptomatic).

208
Q

Main endometrial cancer subtype?

A

Endometrial carcinoma

209
Q

‘bulky uterus’ is code for?

A

adenomyosis

210
Q

Murmur type in ASD

A

mid-systolic

211
Q

What is Eisenmenger syndrome?

A

left to right shunt becomes so bad that pulmonary hypertension causes massive right heart pressure reversing shunt and pushing deoxygenated blood into circulation - cyanosis and poor prognosis.

212
Q

Is cerebral palsy progressive?

A

no - it is non-progressive. So if there are progressive deficits look for a different dx.

213
Q

What is roseola?

A

HSV viral exanthem

214
Q

What is subglottic stenosis?

A

cause of stridor due to repeat ETT in paeds

215
Q

omega shaped epiglottis is found in?

A

laryngomalacia

216
Q

imaging for foreign body?

A

inspiration and expiration cxr films

217
Q

detrusor overactivity is linked to which type of incontinece?

A

urge

218
Q

what is IRT test?

A

Immunoreactive trypsinogen - heelprick in neonates - for CF

219
Q

What type of hypersensitivty is asthma (and the other atopies)?

A

type 1

220
Q

No anal cleft on birth suggests which condition?

A

sacro coccygeal teratoma - emergency

221
Q

Timeline for cleft palette repair?

A

no rush just within the first 9-12 months of life or so.

222
Q

Maculinisation of feminine genitalia in neonates can be due to which endo condition?

A

CAH

223
Q

‘bag of worms’ in testicle is a description of which condition?

A

varicocele

224
Q

Unimelb mx in GP for first presentation t1DM in Gp?

A

send to ED for mx even if not in DKA

225
Q

Hospital mx of severe hypoglycemia?

A

10% dextrose IV or glucagon IM if no access

226
Q

Key teen trigger for hypoglycemia?

A

alcohol

227
Q

mx for a circumfrential burn?

A

escharotomy

228
Q

What are some signs of a deep burn that will likely need a graft/surgery?

A
  • no pain
  • white in colour
  • sluggish or absent cap refill
  • hard to the touch
  • blistering
229
Q

GCS under 15, fractured ribs or tibia, abnormal resp exam findings and thoracic wall trauma are all indicates for a ____ in paeds.

A

CT

230
Q

Mx for gastric dilatation?

A

decompress - NGT

231
Q

How useful is FAST scan in kids?

A

shit

232
Q

Mx for traumatic hollow organ injury in paeds?

A

laparotomy

233
Q

What is salter-harris fracture?

A

fracture that impacts paeds growth plate - urgent.

234
Q

what is a pyogenic granuloma?

A

paeds red spot sort of looks like haemangioma but bleeds profusely

235
Q

profuse itching between fingers and on feet in the whole family is likely due to?

A

scabies

236
Q

naevus flammeus is also called?

A

port wine stain

237
Q

naevus simplex is also called?

A

stork bite - salmon pink. worsens when crying.

238
Q

erythema toxicum neonatorum is present when?

A

first 7 day of life - red rash across face/eyes

239
Q

Which opioid is not really used in kids?

A

Codeine - constipation

240
Q

Which mineral deficiency can cause global developmental delay in kids?

A

iron

241
Q

reversal agent for benzos?

A

Flumazenil

242
Q

Tx for lichen sclerosis?

A

steroids

243
Q

Guilt is absent in which psych conditions?

A

conduct disorder, personality disorders

244
Q

For teens, poor sleep is often code for?

A

mental health struggle

245
Q

Mx of suicidal teen?

A

ED. VERY low threshold to send kids to ED.

246
Q

Abx for pyelo in kids?

A

keflex

247
Q

What is dual disability?

A

intellectual disability and mental health condition

248
Q

What is ARFID?

A

Not eating due to sensory issues

249
Q

Reasons to immediately give Abx in otitis media?

A

under 6 months, only hearing ear, first nations, immunocompromised.
Otherwise wait 48hrs for improvement.

250
Q

post strep psoraisis?

A

guttate psorisis

251
Q

Which sites are at greatest risk of damage from topical steroids?

A

thin areas eg. eyelids.

252
Q

Rash on sun affected areas after coming back from tropical holiday?

A

Fungi - malezzia - pityriasis vesicolour

253
Q

Milia inside a pigmented lesion tend to indicate?

A

seb k - benign

254
Q

What is Bowen’s disease?

A

Sqcc in situ

255
Q

What abx to give for GBS if penicillin allergy?

A

erythromycin

256
Q

Bounding peripheral pulses and a continuous machinery murmur in a neonate are signs of?

A

PDA

257
Q

Pharm therapy for PDA?

A

Indomethacin - NSAID - constricts PDA.

258
Q

When to refer for derm for acne?

A

Severe acne needs derm. If risk of bullying/distress/scarring - need derm.

259
Q

Contraindications for LP in older child?

A

shock/hypotension, instability, coma, raised ICP.

260
Q

Pattern of Roseola (on body and temporally).

A

Spares face, only on body. Appears once fever of recent illness has ceased.

261
Q

Pathogen of roseola?

A

HSV6

262
Q

One pharm treatment for haemangioma in a problematic spot like the eye?

A

Propanolol

263
Q

Timeline for naevus simplex?

A

Dissapears in a few months

264
Q

Common pathogen cause of nappy rash?

A

candida

265
Q

Sandpaper rash is a term used for what condition?

A

Scarlet fever

266
Q

CBT is better than DBT in which personality cluster?

A

Cluster C

267
Q

Hydrocele vs varicocele in terms of pain?

A

Both painless

268
Q

How many contraceptive pills can be missed before you are not protected?

A

Can only miss one and then retake as usual, 2 and over you aren’t protected for 7 days.

269
Q

Immediate high risk CVD conditions?

A

Systolic over 160. Cholesterol over 7.5. Familial hypercholesterol. Diabetes. CKD. Need tx immediately don’t watch and wait.

270
Q

How long without heart or breath sounds is classified as dead?

A

2 mins for both

271
Q

BMI needed for medical admission in eating disorder?

A

under 12

272
Q

First urological ix in suspected prostate cancer (after PSA)?

A

Multiparametric MRI

273
Q

Condition that causes meconium ileus and what is felt on exam?

A

CF
nothing - no masses

274
Q

When does NEC usually occur?

A

2-3 weeks after birth in preemies.

275
Q

Pharm mx for raised ICP due to brain mets?

A

dexamethasone

276
Q

Is coarctation cyanotic or not?

A

Not

277
Q

Timeline of TOF vs transposition?

A

Transposition - almost immediately after birth as it is duct dependant

TOF takes a few months.

278
Q

What is perseveration of speech?

A

Focused heavily on one topic even when you try to steer them away.

279
Q

Molar pregnancies cause what endo condition?

A

hyperthyroid (high T3/4 with low TSH)

280
Q

How often is clozapine follow up in the first 18 months?

A

weekly

281
Q

CRL over 7 with no fetal heart is consistent with?

A

Miscarriage

282
Q

Mx for mastitis?

A
  • drain breasts to prevent abcsess
  • analgesia
  • abx
283
Q

Pure motor or pure sensory strokes are often due to ?

A

lacunar infarcts

284
Q

Surgery for an intracapsular fracture?

A

hemiarthroplasty

285
Q

Which bowel complication is associated with trisomy 21?

A

Hirchsprungs

286
Q

How long does stress need to be going for it to be PTSD?

A

1 month or else it’s just acute stress disorder

287
Q

Pharm mx of moderate acne?

A

doxycyline

288
Q

Exploiting others is a characteritisc feature of which persoanlity disorder?

A

Narcisstic

289
Q

Unique risk to bisphosphonates?

A

Atypical femoral shaft fractures after light falls

290
Q

A hypoglycemic newborn should be managed how?

A

Encourage breastfeeds/formula

291
Q

Lifestyle mx for gestational diabetes?

A

no, straight to insulin.

292
Q

First line laxative type?

A

osmotic laxative

293
Q

Where is ASD murmur best heard and what sound does it make?

A

Best heard in pulmonary valve region, with a mid-systolic murmur that splits S2.

294
Q

What is mydriasis?

A

Dilated pupils

295
Q

PID is a contraindication for which common mx?

A

IUD, even copper

296
Q

mx of placental abruption?

A

delivery asap

297
Q

‘vesicular lesions’ is code for which group of pathogens?

A

pox viruses including chickenpox.
chickenpox can even be in mouth.

298
Q

What is Paget’s disease and how does it present differently to mastitis?

A

Paget’s disease = rash, redness and thickening in areolar region of the breast. Pre-malignant. Needs urgent referral. Often in older women.
Mastitis has pinkness in almost entire breast and is associated with breastfeeding.

299
Q

HTN, sweating and bradycardia in a spinal pt are signs of?

A

Autonomic dysreflexia

300
Q

Transferrin levels in iron deficiecny vs anaemia of chronic disease?

A

high in iron deficiency
low/normal in chronic.

301
Q

Black shadow on one side of vision with no pain and associated flashes of light and normal neuro is typical of which condition?

A

retinal detachment

302
Q
A
303
Q

When to refer female for slow puberty?

A

Absence of breast development in a girl at age ≥13yrs or primary amenorrhoea at age 15yrs

MD (18 decks)

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