MD Crim Pro Flashcards

1
Q

a warrant is void if not executed within -

A

15 calendar days

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2
Q

J determines whether there’s PC based on

A

only what’s in the aff submitted in support of the app

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3
Q

what rules of ev apply to issuance of a search warr?

A

none

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4
Q

no knock warr allowed if

A

reas susp that

  • prop to be seized may be destroyed
  • life or safety of the executing officer or another person may be endangered
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5
Q

as a general matter, warrentless searches are

A

per se unreasonable

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6
Q

warrantless search or seizure ok?
Po acts when he reas believes a person needs immediate attn or acts to protect the pub in a manner outside their normal law enf function

A

yes under community caretaking function

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7
Q

po may serch a car without a warr if

A

they have PC to believe that a crime-connected item is within the car

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8
Q

MD recognizes exclusionary rule where

A

only for violations of 4A

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9
Q

MD wiretapping stat

A

md wiretapping and electronic surveillance act: more stringent than fed

  • a private person not acting as an agent to the state can’t intercept w/o prior consent to all parties to the comm unless they have:
  • court order, acting as a govt agent, or as an employee of a comm co
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10
Q

ev obtained in violation of the wiretapping act

A

not admissible in any hearing

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11
Q

po may arrest a person without a warr if po has PC to believe person __ and ___

A

committed a stat specified crime:

  • manslaughter by vehicle
  • malicious burning/ attempt
  • malicious mischief/ attempt
  • theft over $500/ attempt
  • false alarm of fire
  • indecent exposure
  • CDS crimes/ attempt
  • wear/ carry/ transport handgun
  • wear/carry concealed weapon
  • prostitution

AND unless the person is arrested immedately, the person

  • may not be apprehended
  • may cause phys inj or prop damage to another
  • or
  • may tamper with, dispose of, or destroy ev
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12
Q

if the purpose of the traffic stop has been satisfied, can po continue to detain the car?

A

it’s considered a second stop

can detain IF independently justified by reas susp

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13
Q

MD right against self incrim

A

Article 22 of MD declaration of rights
construed liberally
probs more comprehensive than 5A

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14
Q

Dist ct: IA must happen

A

within 24h after arrest

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15
Q

if D has been charged w a felony that’s not in dist ct juris, dist ct must

A

advise D of the right to a prelim if he makes the request within 10d of IA

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16
Q

purpose of prelim in dist ct

A

to deter if there’s PC to believe D committed an offense.

17
Q

to accept a G plea, must determine:

A

plea is vol
understands nature of charge and conseq of plea
factual basis for the plea
if not a US citizen…
sex crime- will be put on the sex offender registry
D should consult counsel if he has any other qs abt the plea

18
Q

omnibus motions- must be raised by motion w.in__ and are :

A

30d after earlier of IA or counsel entering appearance

defect in instutition of prosecution
defect in charging doc
unlawful search, seizure, ID, wiretap
unlawfully obtained statement
req for joint or separate trial of Ds or offenses
19
Q

mot to compel discov may be filed

A

10d after discov was due. if due to inadequate discov, 10d after discov was received
-other side has 5d to respon.
must have certificate describing GF attempts

20
Q

if D was arrested without warr,

A

ct must deter if there was PC
if no, must ROR
if yes, can set bail

21
Q

bail must be

A

least onerous condition/s that will guarantee D’s appearance/ protect V/ protect community

22
Q

when D gets right to counsel

A

all critical stages of pros: anywhere where absence of counsel might take away from D’s rt to a fair trial
incl IAs

23
Q

the right to counsel under the Public Defender Act is

A

significantly broader than the cons rt to counsel

24
Q

date for trial must be set

A

within 30d of earlier of counsel’s app or IA

25
when joinder is disallowed
if joinder of counts, charging docs, or Ds, ct may of its own initiative or at the req of counsel, order separte stuff, or anything else justice requires
26
D has a rt to trial in circ ct when
cr sbj to penalty of imprisonment or | cons rt to jur trial for the crime
27
when making sure D understands what he's giving up etc before a G plea will be accepted, they're making sure the G plea is
knowing and voluntary
28
OOC statements of child Vs
ok fi child is under 12 V of child or sex abuse ch made statement to dr, physician, nurse, social worker, school person and statement has particularized guarantees of trustworthiness -only admissible if there's ev that D had the opp to commit the alleged cr
29
NCR means
bc of a mental disorder or retardation lacks subs capacity to appreciate criminality of conduct or conform conduct to req of law
30
Burden for NCR
D must prove by prep of ev
31
mot for judg of acq
at the end of st's case, AND at the end of all ev | -standard: if any relevant ev that is legally sufficient to sustain a conviction, must be denied
32
D entitled to review of sentence by a review panel
if sentenced to 2y+
33
if D wants to appeal from circ ct, must file notice within
30d of final judgment
34
when DJ attaches
NG verdict granting of motion of judgment of acq G plea accepted by ct
35
circ ct can remove a case to juvenile ct before a plea is entered if
- D 14-18yo when cr committed - it's one of the bad ones that lets the ct do that - ct determines by a prep of ev that xfer is in the best interest of the child or society
36
how to deter if offenses merge for senteincing
required ev test when all els of 1 offense are included in the other offense, so that only the latter offense includes a distinct el, the 1st offense merges
37
collateral estoppel/ issue preclusion allowed where
prior final judgment same D prior resolution of issue was necessary ex: can't try D on charges of sex abuse and related offenses where in a prior ch protection proceeding based on the same alleged incidents, ct dismissed the grounds on the basis that there wasn't sufficient proof that D did them
38
where collateral estoppel is not admissible
crim conviction not admissible to establish truth of facts upon which the conviction was based in a subsequent civil action for damages arising from teh offense for which the person was convicted