MD Civ Pro Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Waive JDX?

A

Subject matter: no. Personal: yes if D doesn’t raise/submits to JDX of court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Circuit Ct JDX

A

full equity JDX over all criminal and civil matters - general JDX cts. Also appeals from the District Ct in their county (notice w.in 30 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

District Ct JDX

A

Exclusive: small claims actions under $5k as determined by aggregate value of claims. Also K and tort where damages less than $30k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Orphans’ Ct JDX

A

probate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Transfer Circuit to District Court IF:

A
  1. parties consent 2. waive jury trial 3. make amendments to comply with DC JDX. NOTE that if there’s a jury right and the parties are in DC, defendant can demand change to CC (OJO w/in 30 days of service of last pleading)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Personal JDX: What authority

A

Due process clause: notice and opportunity to be heard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Personal JDX: General test

A

JDX must have such minimum contacts with parties or property such that would not offend traditional notions of fair play or substantial justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Personal JDX: In state defendant

A
  1. domicile 2. personal delivery of summons 3. service on a resident agent -> gives GENERAL JDX for any cause of action
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Personal JDX: Domiciled

A

person’s intent by objective factors such as where lives, votes, receives mail, then presumption domiciled until abandoned. for corp: organized under MD law or principle place of business -> GENERAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Personal JDX: Personal delivery

A

physically deliver within the state: tag JDX -> GENERAL. EXCEPT in state 1. only to testify 2. passing through to testify 3. fraudulently got them into the state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Personal JDX: Resident Agent

A

Foreign corporation w. resident agent to accept service + at least 1 of criteria in Long Arm Statute -> GENERAL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Personal JDX: OOS D and Minimum contacts

A

D purposefully availed self of privilege of conducting activities w/in the state. GENERAL -> contacts must be continuous and systematic, doing business intentionally. SPECIFIC -> 1. extent of purposeful availment 2. whether c/a arises out of those activities 3. whether constitutionally reasonable. OJO: personal availment more than mere foreseeability, must create substantial connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Personal JDX: Long Arm

A
  1. child support/alimony OR 2. paternity proceeding PLUS minimum contacts. 1. transacts business or performs any work 2. causes tortious injury in state 3. interest in, uses or possesses real property in state. In general to the limits of Const.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In rem JDX

A

Need 1. presence of res 2. adequate notice to persons w. interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Venue

A

Generally where person 1. resides 2. carries on regular business 3. is employed 4. habitually engages in vocation 5. corp maintains principal offices. Also 6. where tort action occurred. Can be waived -> MUST raise in MTD before answer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Venue: Where c/a arises

A

Tort: where all elements satisfied - where accident happened. K: if place of payment specified, there. If not specified, where creditor resides or has place of business.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Motion to change venue

A

grant if 1. change to another place where venue proper 2. convenience for parties/witness 3. if party can’t get fair and impartial trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Service of Process: What included

A

complaint, info report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Service of Process: How

A

to the person, at their dwelling place with resident of suitable age, certified mail OR if by proof of affidavit that good faith efforts failed, court may order other means deemed appropriate and reasonably calculated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Service of Process: By Whom

A

sheriff, other competent person 18+ yrs (including a lawyer), NOT a party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Service of Process: To whom

A
  1. Individual or authorized agent 2. disabled individual AND parent/guardian 3. corporation’s resident agent, prez, sec, treas OR if good faith efforts fail then manager, director, VP, asst sec/treas or other authorized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Service of Process: Refusal

A

can’t complain of insufficient process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Joinder: Necessary

A

MUST IF: 1. complete relief cant be granted 2. would a. impair/impede person’s ability to protect claimed interest or b. leave parties subject to substantial risk of incurring multiple or inconsistent obligations -> raise in MTD, if unavailable court determines whether to proceed or dismiss w/o prejudice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Joinder: Permissive

A

MAY IF 1. right to relief out of same transaction/occurrence or 2. if any Q of fact or law in common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Intervention: as of right

A

MUST IF: 1. they have unconditional right or 2. person claims interest and is so situated that action will impair or impede their ability to protect that interest and not adequately represented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Intervention: permissive

A

MAY IF: 1. claim or defense has Q of law/fact in common 2. won’t unduly delay/prejudice the adjudication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Interpleader

A

Pure: disinterested person has property w. conflicting claims, asks court to join all and tenders property. In the nature of: person not disinterested and contests obligation to pay but seeks ct intervention if has to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Class Actions: (a) requirements

A
  1. numerosity 2. common Qs of law or fact 3. typicality of claims/defenses of named reps 4. reps will fairly and adequately rep the class
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Class Actions: (b) types

A
  1. would create risk of a. inconsistent adjudications that would create incompatible standards for D (e.g. dif procedures) b. would be dispositive of or substantially impair/impede interests of nonparty members (eg limited fund) 2. D actions on grounds generally applicable to the class such that injunctive relief appropriate 3. Qs of law or fact predominate over any individually affecting members
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Computational rules for deadlines

A

IF more than seven days -> Saturdays, Sundays, Holidays counted. IF less than 7 days -> not counted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Deadlines: if service by mail

A

3 extra days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Deadlines: to file answer

A

30 days from being served

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Contents of answer

A
  1. any permissive defenses 2. any applicable neg/affirmative defenses 3. answers to averments in complaint (otherwise deemed admitted) OJO Mandatory defenses MUST be made in MTD before answer OJO in Dist Ct it’s a notice of intention to defend w/in 15 days of complaint, demand jury trial w/in 10 days of that.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Counter v. Cross Claim

A
  1. across v. within the “v” 2. regardless of whether arises from same transaction v. must at least relate to property subject to original action. Time for filing both 30 days from answer.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Impleader

A

D brings in 3rd party liable to D for P’s claims (NOT liable directly to P). If P does have claim agst 3rd party, MUST assert or will be barred. All deadlines 30 days.

36
Q

Amendments to complaint

A

30 days b4 trial or with permission. Relation back (SoL problems): if states a new c/a or new D, DOES NOT relate back. If same operative facts but new theory or legal basis, DOES relate back.

37
Q

Deadlines: responses to motions

A

15 days

38
Q

Mandatory Defenses

A

MUST file MTD b4 answer for: 1. lack of personal JDX 2. improper venue 3. insufficiency of process 4. insufficiency of service of process

39
Q

Permissive Defenses

A

May be filed at any appropriate time: 1. lack of subject matter JDX 2. failure to state a claim (including SoL has run) 3. failure to join necessary party 4. discharge in bankruptcy 5. governmental immunity

40
Q

Affirmative Defenses

A

Long list of 20 things - K defenses, tort defenses, laches, res judicator, privilege, etc.

41
Q

SoL: Laches

A
  1. claimant delayed 2. delay inexcusable 3. delay prejudiced opposing party
42
Q

Types of injunctions

A
  1. TRO: without opportunity for hearing, must clearly appear that immediate substantial and irreparable harm will result. 2. Prelim Inj: after notice and hearing but before final determination on merits 3. Final Inj: after merits, disposes of suit
43
Q

Standard for Injunction

A
  1. likelihood of success on merits 2. balance of equities 3. suffer irreparable injury (ie $ damages won’t make whole) 4. public interest
44
Q

Discovery: Scope

A

any relevant matter that’s not privileged - anything reasonably calculated to lead to discovery of admissible evidence. on privilege, must provide description of nature of info so other parties may asses applicability

45
Q

Discovery: Limits

A

Ct will limit if 1. unreasonably cumulative/duplicative/obtainable from other more convenient source 2. seeking party has had ample opp to obtain it 3. burden/cost outweighs likely benefit

46
Q

Discovery: Work Product

A

Qualified immunity unless shown that: 1. relevant 2. substantial need 3. unable to obtain equivalent by other means w/o substantial hardship ESP statement by witness. NEVER for mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, legal theories

47
Q

Discovery: Experts

A

use interrogatories. if going to testify: 1. identity 2. subject matter 3. substance of findings 4. summary of grounds for opinion and any written response. if not going to testify: can only get if show substantial need and unable to get otherwise

48
Q

Discovery: Deposition

A

from any person (not just party), notice 10 days before, subpoena for nonparties, must say if video or audiotaped

49
Q

Deposition: Interrogatories

A

Written questions answered in writing under oath, on any PARTY, up to 30 per party, response w/in 30 days or 15 after initial pleading, whichever later

50
Q

Discovery: Production of Docs/Entry upon Land

A

to any PARTY, produce and permit copying of items in possession, writings photos recordings data compilations or samples, w/in 30 days or 15 after initial pleading, whichever later

51
Q

Discovery: Exam of persons

A

only when characteristic is in controversy and order of court

52
Q

Discovery: Requests for admission

A

to any PARTY, can be about 1. genuineness of a document or 2. truth of a relevant matter, deemed admitted if not answered w/in 30 days or 15 after initial pleading, whichever later. must 1. object w. reason 2. admit/deny 3. detail why can’t admit or deny - must make reasonable inquiry before saying lack knowledge. admission -> conclusively established absent withdrawal

53
Q

Summary Judgment: Standard

A

No genuine dispute to any material fact AND entitled to judgment as a matter of law. Burden on movant that no genuine issue, shifts to opponent to show at issue. Response must attach portions of record, ID facts, w/in 15 days.

54
Q

Voluntary dismissal

A

P w.o leave, counter/cross/3rd by notice. After answer filed, need court order. Need to still support counterclaim, otherwise cant. Can only do it once

55
Q

Dismiss: Lack of JDX

A

if d hasn’t been served or no JDX w/in 120 days

56
Q

Dismiss: Lack of prosecution

A

after 1 yr of last docket entry

57
Q

Motion to vacate order

A

w/in 30 days of entry of ORDER. for default judgment must plead equitable excuse for failure to plead

58
Q

Motion to revise judgment

A

w/in 30 days of entry of JUDGMENT. under court’s revisory power can only change relief, not liability determination. OR allowed whenever if evidence of fraud, mistake, or irregularity.

59
Q

Motion to alter/amend judgment

A

w/in 10 days of entry of JUDGMENT. Can receive new evidence, amend findings, set for additional findings, amend or enter new judgment.

60
Q

Right to jury trial

A

If more than $10k at issue, demand w.in 30 days of answer OR if in Dist Ct file within 10 days of notice of intention to defend (which is w.in 15 days of complaint). CIVIL at least 6 people unless DQ’d and all agree. 4 preemptory challenges.

61
Q

Motion for judgment

A

At closing of opposing party’s case or in jury trial at close of evidence. Standard: any evidence. REQUIRED for post judgment notwithstanding the verdict

62
Q

Motion for judgment notwithstanding the verdict

A

(OJO only if did motion for judgment during trial) w/in 10 days of verdict/discharge -> deny, grant, set aside and direct new judgment, order new trial at same time

63
Q

JNOV appeal

A

IF was granted and reversed, can 1. enter judgment on original verdict 2. remand for new trial 3. order new trial. IF was denied and reversed, can 1. enter as if motion granted 2. order new trial NOTE file notice of appeal 30 days

64
Q

Motion for new trial

A

w/in 10 days of entry of judgment, reviewable only for abuse of discretion

65
Q

Levy and sale of property

A

(post judgment) 1. writ of execution = order to sheriff to seize 2. for real property: enter description, post writ and schedule on property. 3. for personal property: 1. remove from premises 2. leaving writ on it 3. posting writ and schedule in prominent place. sheriff will sell upon request

66
Q

Garnishment

A

take property held by a 3rd party in order to satisfy judgment. includes wages

67
Q

Enforcement of foreign judgments

A

entitled to deference unless inconsistent with MD public policy

68
Q

Court of Special Appeals JDX

A

Exclusive initial appeals from Circuit or Orphan Ct

69
Q

Court of Appeals JDX

A

Special appeals court appeals OR circuit court as appellate court appeals, Qs of law certified to it, only through writ of cert: 1. where same statute has been construed differently or 2. special circumstances/public interest

70
Q

Appeals of interlocutory orders

A
  1. action concerning possession of property 2. order for sale of real or personal property or payment of money 3. order depriving parent, grandparent, guardian custody
71
Q

Collateral order doctrine

A

MUST 1. conclusively determine the question 2. resolve an important issue 3. resolve an issue completely separate from the merits 4. would effectively be unreviewable

72
Q

Res judicata: definition

A

CLAIM preclusion: b/w same parties or their privies. MUST 1. same parties or in privity

  1. same c/a
  2. first suit valid final judgment on merits by court of competent JDX
73
Q

Res judicata: same parties

A

(so ID’d that represent same legal right)

74
Q

Res judicata: same cause of action

A

a. transactional test: growing out of same series. b awareness: if there was claim splitting from same transaction, party could have litigated everything in the prior proceeding ie was aware of facts giving rise to all components c. counterclaim precluded IF relationship between claims is such that successful prosecution of second action would nullify initial judgment or would impair rights established in first action OJO changed circumstances may permit

75
Q

Motion for remittitur

A

If D believes jury verdict was excessive

76
Q

Res judicata: final judgment on merits

A

must have had subject matter and personal JDX, notice and opp to be heard, can be: summary, default, multiple voluntary, consent judgment, settlement

77
Q

Collateral estoppel: definition

A

ISSUE preclusion: if actually litigated and necessarily determined (OJO NOT if two or more bases for judgment)

78
Q

Collateral estoppel: requirements

A
  1. issue identical 2. final judgment on merits 3. party against whom asserted must have been party or in privity in first action 4. party against whom asserted had opp for fair hearing in first
79
Q

Collateral estoppel: full faith and credit

A

Must give same effect to judgment of court in another state as courts in that JDX would give

80
Q

Judicial estoppel

A

when necessary to protect integrity of judicial system from s/o trying to gain unfair advantage over another through manipulating court system

81
Q

SoL: General

A

3 years in civil actions

82
Q

SoL: When start to run?

A

when c/a accrues - when claimant knew or should have known EXCEPT 1. continuation of events: tolled during existence of fiduciary relationship 2. continuing harm: continuous violations toll 3. fraud: if knowledge kept from P by fraud of adverse party then when by ordinary diligence would have discovered

83
Q

SoL: Specific accrual rules

A

K: date of breach. Wrongful death: time of death. Replevin: demand and refusal or assertion of adversary right by holder

84
Q

SoL: Specific terms

A
  1. adverse possession - 20 yrs 2. Assault, libel, slander - 1 yr. 3. health care providers: 5 yrs from time of injury or 3 yrs from when injury discovered. K for sale of goods - 4 yrs or K down to 1yr.
85
Q

SoL: reasons to extend

A
  1. minor/incompetent when c/a accrues - 3 years from removal.
  2. absent from state - starts upon return.
  3. new promise to pay a debt if a. unconditional or b. conditional and performed or c. admission from which promise can be inferred
  4. estoppel - if D held out inducements not to bring suit
86
Q

Class Action: Notice

A
  • the court will exclude from the class any member who requests to “opt out” by a specified date;
  • the judgment will include all members who do not opt out; and
  • any member who does not request exclusion and who desires to enter an appearance through counsel may do so.