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MD-80 Limitations > MD-80 Limitations > Flashcards

MD-80 Limitations Flashcards

0
Q

Max headwind?

A

50 Knots

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1
Q

Max ceiling?

A

37,000 feet

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2
Q

Max tailwind?

A

10 knots

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3
Q

Max crosswind wet or dry?

A

30 knots

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4
Q

Max crosswind rudder limited?

A

12 knots

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5
Q

Max crosswind mu .25?

A

10 knots

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6
Q

Vmo/Mmo?

A

340 KIAS/M.84

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7
Q

Climb Speed/ Profile?

A

320KIAS TO M.74, M.74 to Cruise.

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8
Q

Turbulent Penetration Speed?

A

250 KIAS <10,000

275-285KIAS/M.75-M.79. Whichever is lower.

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9
Q

Mach Trim Inop speed?

A

M .78

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10
Q

Landing gear extension & extended?

A

300 KIAS / M.70

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11
Q

Gear retraction?

A

250 KIAS

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12
Q

Tire Speed?

A

195 KTS GS/ 225 MPH

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13
Q

Flaps 0 / Slats Mid

A

280 KIAS OR M.57

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14
Q

Flaps 11/ Slats MID

A

280 KIAS/ M.57

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15
Q

Flaps 15/ Slats Full

A

240 KIAS/ M.57

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16
Q

Flaps 28 /Slats Full

A

200 KIAS/ M.57

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17
Q

Flaps 40/ Slats Full

A

195 KIAS/ M.57

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18
Q

With Auto Slat Fail Illuminated?

A

Max 240 KIAS

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19
Q

Flap Settings between 13 - 15?

A

Do Not Use!

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20
Q

Max taxi? -83,-88

A

161,000 LBS.

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21
Q

Max Takeoff? -83,-88

A

160,000 LBS

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22
Q

Max Structural Landing? -83,-88

A

139,500 LBS

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23
Q

Max zero fuel weight? -83,-88

A

122,000 LBS

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24
Q

Fuel Heat must remain off for?

A

T.O. / Landing / Go-around

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25
Q

Engine A/I on?

A

Below 6C (or 42F)

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26
Q

Visible Moisture?

A

Temp/ dew point 3C or less. (5F)

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27
Q

Do Not use Airfoil Ice Protection above?

A

10*C/ (50 *F)

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28
Q

Instrument limit markings:

Max and Min limits?

A

Red Radial Line

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29
Q

Instrument limit markings.

Max limit for T.O.? (N1,N2, & EGT only)

A

Orange Radial Line

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30
Q

Instrument Markings

Precautionary Range?

A

Yellow Arc

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31
Q

Instrument limitation Markings

Normal Operating Range?

A

Green Arc

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32
Q

Instrument marking limits

Normal EGT operating range
Some aircraft

A

White Arc

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33
Q

Min Flight Crew?

A

Captain and First Officer

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34
Q

Max load factors:

Flaps up?

Flaps down?

A

Flaps up: +2.5 to -1.0g

Flaps down: +2.0 to 0.0g

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36
Q

Take off runway slope?

A

+1.7 to -2.0%

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36
Q

Max Tailwind TO & Landing?

A

10 Knots

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37
Q

Landing Runway Slope?

A

+2.0 to -2.0%

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38
Q

Max TO & Landing headwind?

A

50 Knots

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39
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind

Wet and Dry?

A

30 knots

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40
Q

Max demonstrated Crosswind:

Rudder Manual?

Rudder Restricted?

A

12 Knots

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41
Q

Max Demonstrated Crosswind

Braking Reported Poor?

A

10 knots

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42
Q

Contaminant depth

TO Dry Snow?

TO Wet Snow?

A

4 inches Dry Snow

1/2 in Wet Snow

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43
Q

Contaminant depth landing:

Dry snow?

Wet snow/slush/standing water?

A

Dry snow 6 inches.

Wet snow/slush/ standing water 1 inch.

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44
Q

Breaking action NIL?

A

Prohibited.

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45
Q

Takeoff with MU 0.25 or less, or braking action poor?

A

Takeoff Prohibited!

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46
Q

Barber pole?

A

Never exceed

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47
Q

Max TO and Landing temp?

A

Below 2,525 feet PA……………+50*C

At and Above 2,525 feet PA…ISA+40*C

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48
Q

Min TO and Landing Temp?

A

-54*C

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49
Q

Approved types of Operations?

A

Day & night/ IFR / Icing/ over water ops.

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50
Q

Do not TO & Land on a runway

A

Unless aircraft performance data has been supplied by Allegiant Air.

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51
Q

Max Cabin Differential Pressure

A

8.07 PSI

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52
Q

Max Emergency Relief Pressure

Red Radial

A

8.32 PSI

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53
Q

Air Conditioning

DO NOT OPERATE EITHER AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM utilizing apu bleed air unless…….

A

APU IS SUPPLYING ELECTRICAL POWER.

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54
Q

Do not operate Either Air Conditioning system ……

A

While aircraft is being de/iced - anti/iced!

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55
Q

Air Conditioning Automatic Shut off:

A
  1. ) Must be Auto - all Takeoffs.

2. ) Must Be Auto - all approaches and go arounds.

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56
Q

Air conditioning during engine start w/ APU?

A

AC supply switch …..OFF.
However, starting 2nd engine, the air supply switch for operating engine may be turned on, provided respective pneumatic cross feed lever is closed.

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57
Q

Air Conditioning automatic shutoff INOP?

A
  1. ) both AC systems must be off!
  2. ) static TO EPR adjusted
  3. ) 1 system must be ON at EFCA
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58
Q

Using Auto Pilot?

A

One pilot must be seated, with seat belt fastened.

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59
Q

Min Altitude auto pilot engaged after Takeoff?

A

500 ft AGL

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60
Q

DO NOT USE PITCH AXIS OF AUTO PILOT?

A

With an ALTERNATE TRIM INOPERATIVE.

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61
Q

Single Engine coupled approach….

A

Not authorized!

DO NOT USE AUTOPILOT INSIDE OM OR FAF WITH AN ENGINE INOP.

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62
Q

Auto Pilot use during approaches:

A

OFF by 50’ below MDA and DA(H)/ IMC.

OFF by 50’ above TDZ during VMC approaches.

OFF if AP TRIM light is illuminated in excess of 3 Seconds, after aircraft is stabilized and tracking Glide Slope. CAN NOT CONDUCT COUPLED ILS OR AUTO LAND APPROACHES.

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63
Q

With engine surge or stall on takeoff with Auto-throttles in use…….

A

Auto throttles must be disconnected!

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64
Q

Mach Trim Compensator Inoperative ….

A

M. 78

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65
Q

All aircraft must be operated with the 403421 -960 or 970………

A

Digital Flight Guidance Computer!

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66
Q

Auto land coupled approaches and landings…….

A

NOT AUTHORIZED.

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67
Q

AC POWER DISTRIBUTION:

Voltage?

Frequency?

A

Voltage: 115 +/-8 VAC

Frequency: 400 +/-20 CPS

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68
Q

Engine Generator Load Limits:

Peak?

Max?

Max Continuous?

A

Peak: over 1.5 for 5 seconds.

Maximum: 1.5 for 5 Minutes.

Max Continuous: 1.0

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69
Q

APU GENERATOR LOADS:

Max Continuous Ground?

Max Continuous Flight? (below 25000’)

Max Continuous Flight? (Above 25000’)

A

Max cont. grnd-1.25

Max Cont: 1.0

Max Cont: above FL250= .7

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70
Q

DC POWER DISTRIBUTION

Voltage ( L&R ) DC BUSES?

A

26 V +/- 4.

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71
Q

TR Load:

Max Continuous?

Max difference between two load meters powering the same bus(es)?

A

Max Continuous. 1.0

Max diff. 0.3

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72
Q

Min BATT Voltage ( no load)?

A

25 VDC

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73
Q

Min BATT Voltage (EMER PWR SWITCH ON)?

A

25 VDC

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74
Q

Min BATT Voltage

( with Charger PWRD & BATT SWITCH……..ON)?

A

31 VDC +/- 6

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75
Q

Battery Amperage:

Max charging - steady state mode?
to the left

A

65 AMPS

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76
Q

Battery Amperage

Charging - Pulse Mode?

A

0-40 AMPS.

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77
Q

Battery Amperage

Max Discharging (to the right ) with EMER PWR SWITCH ON?

A

50 AMPS

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78
Q

Can you reset a tripped BATTERY CHARGER circuit breaker?

A

NO

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79
Q

Solid State Charger

After CAPT PREFLIGHT of emergency power system, with battery charge low …….

A

May see up to 40 amps continuously but should steadily continue to decrease as system charges.

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80
Q

Solid State Charger

T. O. Is prohibited if charging rate is greater than…..

A

20 amps.

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81
Q

T.O. Is prohibited if ……

A

BATTERY CHARGER annunciation light

Illuminated!

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82
Q

External PWR Source

Volts?

Freq?

A

Volts: 115 VAC +/-8

Frequency: 400 +/- 20CPS

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83
Q

CSD Oil Temp limit

Maximum?

A

Red Radial Line

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84
Q

CSD OIL TEMP LIMIT

MAX CONTINUOUS?

A

Base if YELLOW Arc (11.2)

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85
Q

CSD OIL TEMP RISE LIMITS

11.2 * degrees C ( base of yellow radial line)……

A

May indicate malfunction, shall be recorded in flight log book.

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86
Q

DO NOT RESET THE FOLLOWING CB:

A
  1. ) Battery Charger
  2. ) Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump
  3. ) Fuel Pump
  4. ) Fuel Qty
  5. ) Lavatory Flush Motor
87
Q

Cargo compartment smoke detection or Fire Suppression system Inop……

A

Refer to MEL.

88
Q

Cargo Compartment Smoke Detection

“CARGO FIRE INFLIGHT”

A

Aircraft must land @ NEAREST SUITABLE AIRPORT within 60 MIN after activation of BTL1

89
Q

LOAD FACTORS:

FLAPS UP

A

2.5g TO -1.0g

90
Q

Dual pre stall Stick Shakers and Supplementary Stall Recognition System (SS……

A

Must be operative for all dispatch conditions.

91
Q

LOAD FACTORS:

FLAPS DOWN

A

2.0g TO 0.0g

92
Q

T.O & LANDING ALTITUDES:

A

MAX………….8,500 FT PA.

MIN……………1,000 FT PA.

93
Q

RUDDER LIMITS

A
  1. ) RUDDER PWR must be ON for TO.
  2. ) RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED ANNUNCIATOR LIGHT:
    - MUST BE ON FOR T.O.
    - IF LIGHT REMAINS ON ABOVE 200 KIAS, ref QRH.
  3. ) RUDDER CONTROL MANUAL illuminated, ref QRH, DO NOT ATTEMPT APPROACH OR MISSED APPROACH at SPEEDS LESS than 135 KIAS.
94
Q

SPEED BRAKE LIMITS:

A

SPEED BRAKES MAY BE USED WITH ONLY FLAPS 0, WITH OR WITHOUT SLATS.

95
Q

SPEED BRAKE LIMITS:

A

DO NOT MOVE SPEEED BREAK LEVER TO GROUND SPOILER POSITION IN FLIGHT.

96
Q

SPEED BRAKE LIMITS:

A

DO NOT EXTEND GEAR WHILE SPEEDBRAKES ARE DEPLOYED.

97
Q

SPEED BRAKE LIMITS:

A

DO NOT OPERATE AIRCRAFT BELOW 220 KIAS, WITH SPEED BRAKES EXTENDED.

98
Q

GROUND SPOILERS:

A

DO NOT ARM till landing gear is extended!

99
Q

NORMAL FUELS

A

JET A , JETA -1

100
Q

ALTERNATE FUELS:

A

JET B, JP-8,JP-5,JP-4

PRIOR TO USE …..MUST NOTIFY MX CONTROL….TYPE FUEL, DATE, & AIRCRAFT N#.

101
Q

MIN FUEL DISPATCH?

A

4,000 LBS EACH MAIN TANK.

102
Q

MIN FUEL GO-AROUND?

A

500 LBS EACH MAIN TANK.

103
Q

MAXIMUM FUEL IMBALANCE

A

1,500 LBS.

104
Q

MAX AUX TANK IMBALANCE

A

400 LBS.

DOES NOT APPLY TO BALLAST FUEL.

105
Q

MAX FUEL LOAD WING TANKS:

A

18,200 LBS.

9,100 LBS PER WING.

106
Q

MAX FUEL LOAD CENTER TANK:

A

20,600 LBS.

107
Q

MAX FUEL LOAD AUX TANKS: (FWD & AFT)

A

3,800 LBS EACH TANK.

108
Q

WING TANK(S) NOT FULL:

A

Any FUEL in THE CENTER OR AUX TANKS MUST BE INCLUDED IN THE ZFW, OR THE MZFW MUST BE REDUCED by that amount.
note: if MZFW IS REDUCED: the fuel is considered usable and should be burned.

109
Q

For all takeoffs and landings, two pumps must be operating in each main tank unless….

A

Extra Reserve Fuel is loaded to compensate for an inoperative pump as specified in the MEL.

110
Q

Prior to engine start on any flight where center tank fuel is present and will be needed
for that route segment, the center tank fuel pumps must be individually checked to
verify pump operation.

A

Accomplished by observing that both inlet fuel

pressure low lights extinguish when each individual center tank pump is activated.

111
Q

After takeoff, the Center and Auxiliary tanks shall be emptied prior……

A

to using Main Wing

tank fuel.

112
Q

No more than 8,505 LBS of Center tank fuel may be used prior……….

A

to transferring all Auxiliary fuel to the Center tank.

113
Q

Aux Tank Trans switches must be OFF for:

A

taxi, takeoff, and landing.

114
Q

Prior to takeoff and final approach, if indicated fuel temperature is 0° or less, fuel heat will be……

A

turned on for one cycle. Fuel heat must remain OFF for takeoff, final approach
and go-around.

115
Q

Fuel CB’s

A

DO NOT reset tripped Fuel Quantity & Fuel Pump Circuit Breakers.

116
Q

Hydraulic Quantity
(Analog System)
Min. Qty flaps retracted and the hydraulic system pressurized is…………

A

any quantity above the red line. (5 quarts)

117
Q

Hydraulic Quantity
(Digital System)
Min. Qty flaps retracted and the hydraulic system pressurized is…………

A

5 quarts.

118
Q

During Takeoffs and Landings

The Auxiliary, Transfer, and both Engine Driven pumps must be ON/HI unless…….

A

operating under provisions of the MEL and appropriate performance data.

119
Q

DO NOT Reset Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump Circuit Breakers.

A

DO NOT Reset Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump Circuit Breakers.

120
Q

Aux Pump & Engine driven pumps in HIGH mode……

A

2800 to 3100 PSI.

121
Q

Engine driven pump in Low mode……

A

1300 to 1700 PSI.

122
Q

Transfer hydraulic motor/pump pressure…..

A

2000 to 3100 PSI.

123
Q

Standing Water, Slush, or Wet Snow

A

Static Port heaters must be ON if the temperature is 5°C (40°F) or below.

124
Q

Standing Water, Slush, or Wet Snow

A

aircraft must be equipped with chine tires or nose wheel spray deflectors.

125
Q 
Contaminated Runway (Company)
1. The engine ignition must be.....
A

in OVRD for takeoff and landing.

126
Q

Contaminated Runway
(company)
Take Off with Optimum Flap configuration is prohibited on a…..

A

contaminated runway.

127
Q

Engine anti-ice system must be ON for…..

A

taxi, takeoff if visible moisture is present or anticipated and the ambient air temperature is 6°C (42°F) or below. Visible moisture includes
a temperature / dew point spread of 3°C (5°F) or less.

128
Q

NOTE: If RAT is indicating 10℃ or above TRP will indicate……..

A

“NO MODE”, if engine Anti-Ice is ON.

129
Q

When airframe icing conditions are anticipated or encountered following departure………

A

Airfoil ice protection system may be placed ON at EFCA (Engine Failure Cleanup Altitude).

130
Q

DO NOT use airfoil ice protection above…….

A

10°C (50°F).

131
Q

Inflight

Engine and Airfoil Ice Protection must be used during flight when RAT is reading…………………..

A

between +6°C and -15°C and icing conditions are present or anticipated.

132
Q

Inflight

Tail De-Ice must be cycled on:….

A
  1. ) Within one minute prior to landing flap extension.
  2. ) At least once every 20 minutes.
  3. ) After leaving icing conditions, prior to turning the airfoil anti-ice system off.
133
Q

When Tail De-Ice is inoperative….

A

flight into known icing conditions must be avoided.

134
Q

Windshield Anti-Ice Inoperative Limits….

A

Below 10,000 Feet MSL the following speed limits apply:

  1. ) Center windshield anti-ice inop: . . …under 315 KIAS.
  2. ) Captain or First Officer windshield anti-ice inop: . . . . . under 315 KIAS
  3. ) There is no speed restriction on the windshield at or above 10,000 Feet MSL.
135
Q

Upper Wing Inspection Requirements?

A

CAUTION: ICE SHEDDING FROM THE WING UPPER SURFACE DURING TAKEOFF
CAN CAUSE SEVERE DAMAGE TO ONE OR BOTH ENGINES, LEADING
TO SURGE, VIBRATION, AND COMPLETE LOSS OF THRUST

136
Q

Upper Wing Inspection Requirements? (continued)

Takeoff may not be initiated unless the flight crew verifies that a visual check and a physical (hands-on) check of the wing upper surfaces has been accomplished, and that the wing is clear of ice accumulation when any
of the following conditions occur:

A
  1. If lower wing frost or ice on either wing is noted while performing the preflight exterior
    inspection or,
  2. Ambient temperature less than 14ºC (57ºF) and high humidity or visible moisture is present.

NOTE: Visible moisture consists of rain, snow, fog, drizzle, sleet, ice crystals, or a
temperature/dew point spread of 3ºC (5ºF) or less.

NOTE: The Upper Wing Inspection applies regardless of whether or not the Over wing Ice Protection/Detection System is installed, operable or inoperative.
When tufts, triangular decals, mount pads and/or painted triangular symbols are
installed in accordance with Boeing AD-80 Service Bulletin 30-59, the physical
check may be made by assuring that all installed tufts move freely, or when Non-Slip
stripes are installed, the rough-smooth-rough contrast is felt with an inspection pole.
NOTE: This guidance does not relieve the requirement that the aircraft surfaces are free of frost, snow and ice accumulation as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

137
Q

Increased drag imposed by the installation of the NOFOD system is not enough……..

A

to require a performance penalty since the correction is considered negligible

138
Q

Maximum brake temperature for setting the parking brake is

A

250°C. (Company)

139
Q

Maximum brake temperature for takeoff is…………

A

205°C.

140
Q

Anti-Skid must be armed and operable for all takeoffs….

A

Except as provided for in the MEL.

141
Q

Unless aircraft arresting system cables are retracted and not protruding above the runway surface…

A

taxi, landing and takeoff operations are not permitted.

142
Q

Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)

A

Flight crew must assure that AHRS is properly aligned.

Note: can erect on the ground or in-flight into either mode

143
Q

(Company) Each AHRS has two operational modes

A

NORMAL and BASIC.
BASIC mode is the
reversionary mode from the NORMAL mode.

144
Q

AHRS has been demonstrated to

provide heading and attitude information to all using systems with:

A

a. All AHRS in Normal mode, or
b. All AHRS in Basic mode,
or
c. All AHRS in any combination of Normal and Basic modes.

145
Q

On the Overhead Annunciator Panel, when the blue light indicates when each AHRS is
in the…….

A

BASIC mode, no crew action is required.

146
Q

Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS):

A
  1. Do not takeoff with MAINT CHECK annunciated.
  2. The EFIS symbol generator selector must be in NORM except for inflight failures of an
    EFIS symbol generator.
147
Q

When operating using FMS for primary navigation….

A

data must be displayed on EFIS by selecting MAP or PLAN or by selecting NAV data for the ROSE, ARC or Compact modes as appropriate.

148
Q

The Flight Director must be operative on the PFD of each pilot who

A

has the MAP or

PLAN mode selected for display on his ND for takeoff or approach

149
Q

Do not select the compact mode in flight except….

A

for a display failure.

150
Q

If either ND fails, the associated PFD will be compacted, and the following limitations
apply: (Company)

A

If the flying pilot has compacted to his PFD, he may fly the aircraft in IMC, including an IFR approach to no less than 300 and 3/4, provided his flight director is operational.

151
Q

If either PFD fails, the associated ND will be compacted, and the following limitations apply.

A

a. Either pilot may fly in VMC.
b. The flying pilot must have two full screens in IMC
c. The ND compact mode is not approved as a primary flight instrument.

152
Q

A test of the GPWS will be accomplished prior to the……

A

First Flight of the day and at every Crew Change.

153
Q

Inertial Reference System (IRS)

A
  1. Flight operations may not be conducted over any geographical area lying north of 80°N.
  2. FMS must be operative when IRS is used in latitudes north of 73°N in order to have
    the FMS generated SELECT TRUE HDG message displayed when approaching the 73°N latitude.
  3. One IRU must be operational for CAT I approaches
154
Q

Maximum allowable difference between Captain’s & First Officer’s Mach/airspeed indicators:

A 
Mach Indication @ .8M:
 =.02 Mach
250 to 340 KIAS:
 10 knots
150 to 249 KIAS:
 6 knots
80 to 149 KIAS:
 4 knots
155
Q

Over Speed Warning

  1. ) If system is inoperative limit speeds to:
    a. ) Above 25,300 Feet . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
    b. ) Below 25,300 Feet . . . . . . . .
  2. See the QRH for malfunction procedures.
A

a. ) .79 MACH

b. ) 325 KIAS

156
Q

The accuracy of the PMS has not been demonstrated. Therefore….

A

airplane range calculations

and fuel management must not be predicated on its use.

157
Q

The standby attitude indicator and the standby compass must be operational for…..

A

takeoff,

unless properly deferred in accordance with the MEL.

158
Q

The Mode S Transponder System has been evaluated for automated Air Traffic Control (ATC) functions and is approved for..

A

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) operation.

159
Q

CAUTION: WHEN THE TA/RA VSI-TCAS INDICATES AN RA FAIL MESSAGE………

A

FLIGHTCREW MUST FOLLOW THE AUDIO ANNUNCIATION “MAINTAIN
VERTICAL SPEED, MAINTAIN” UNTIL “CLEAR OF THE CONFLICT” AUDIO
ANNUNCIATION HAS OCCURRED.

160
Q

A test of the TCAS will be accomplished prior to the…

A

First Flight of the day and at every Crew change.

161
Q

Compliance with TCAS Resolution Advisories is required unless……

A

the pilot considers it

unsafe to do so.

162
Q

When the TCAS II voice message “CLEAR OF CONFLICT” is announced…..

A

the pilot
must promptly return to the ATC clearance and advise ATC of deviation as soon as
practicable after responding to the RA deviation. (Company)

163
Q

If the XPDR FAIL light is illuminated on the Transponder Control Panel in TA, or RA/TA
positions,…….

A

select the other position until the failure is cleared.

164
Q

A test of the wind shear system will be accomplished prior to the…….

A

First Flight of the day

and at every Crew Change.

165
Q

Use of wind shear guidance with one engine inoperative

A

has not been demonstrated.

166
Q

During sustained banks of greater than 15°, or during flap configuration changes, the
wind shear detection system is

A

desensitized and alerts resulting from encountering

wind shear conditions will be delayed.

167
Q

Minimum Flight Crew Oxygen Pressure…………

A

1,300 PSI.

168
Q

If pressure is less than 1,300 PSI, consult…….

A

the MEL 35-1.

169
Q

Allegiant Air aircraft are equipped with a varied quantity of 4.25 cu. ft. (small) portable O2 bottles in the cabins.

A

TRUE

170
Q

The minimum quantity of “Cabin” portable O2 bottles required for dispatch is provided…….

A

IN THE MEL.

171
Q

The “Cabin” portable O2 bottles are installed to provide…..

A

“first aid oxygen” to passengers in the event of cabin depressurization and other medical emergencies.

172
Q

Each portable O2 bottle must be a fully charged 4.25 cu. ft. bottle…..

A

in order to meet the

minimum requirements of FAR 121.333(e)(3).

173
Q

Maximum Pneumatic System Pressure During Crossbleed Starts (Company)
All Aircraft: . . .

A

45 PSI.

174
Q

Pneumatic System Pressure With Airfoil Ice Protection ON

1 . Minimum Pressure: . . .

A

TOP OF YELLOW ARC.

175
Q

Pneumatic System Pressure With Airfoil Ice Protection ON

2 . Maximum Pressure…

A

BOTTOM OF RED ARC.

176
Q

APU STARTER MOTOR DUTY LIMITS

A

2 CONSECUTIVE START ATTEMPTS (MAX 90 SEC EACH), FOLLOWED BY 5 MIN OFF FOR COOLING.

3RD START ATTEMPT (MAX 90 SECONDS), FOLLOWED BY 60 MIN OFF FOR COOLING.

SUBSEQUENT START ATTEMPTS REPEAT THE ORIGINAL PROCESS.

177
Q

APU Air Limits: APU Air switch must be OFF…….

A

for all inflight operations.

178
Q

APU Altitude Limitations

The APU operating service ceiling is limited to…..

A

35,000 FEET.

179
Q

APU EGT Limits:

START

A

760*C for 30 seconds.

180
Q

APU EGT Limits:
Max Transient
(other than start):

A

RED RADIAL.

181
Q

APU EGT Limits:

Max Continuous:…..

A

BASE OF YELLOW ARC.

182
Q

APU RPM Limits

  1. Maximum: . . . .
  2. Caution: . . . . .
  3. Normal: . . . . . .
A

…..Red Radial.
…..Yellow Arc.
……Green Arc.

183
Q

Evacuation Slides
The slide bar must be inserted in the floor fittings after the door is closed and prior to departure from the passenger ramp.

A

The slide bar must remain in position until arrival at

the unloading ramp.

184
Q

Reinforced Cockpit Door

A
  1. The automatic access time delay must be set between 30 & 60 seconds.
  2. If the doorbell mode is disabled, all normal requests to enter the cockpit must be in
    accordance with operator established procedures (e.g., knocks or intercom requests).
  3. If the doorbell mode is enabled, any use of a door access code must result in an
    immediate continuous aural alert and flashing of the AUTO UNLK light.
  4. If the 28V DC-L bus or the door access system is unpowered, set the KILL switch to the UP position and use the deadbolt to lock the door.
  5. The deadbolt‛s center position, allowing access using a key, is to be used on the ground only
185
Q

WARNING: DO NOT OPERATE WINDSHIELD HEAT IF WINDSHIELD IS CRACKED,

A

PULL RESPECTIVE WINDSHIELD HEAT CIRCUIT BREAKER(S).

186
Q

Below 10,000 feet MSL the following speed limits apply:

  1. ) If the left, center, or right windshield heat is inoperative..
  2. ) If the 3/16” outer anti-ice glass ply of the center, Captain’s or First Officer’s windshield is cracked:
  3. ) If the 3/16” inner defog glass ply of the center, Captain’s or First Officer’s windshield is cracked:
A
  1. )….Under 315 KIAS.
  2. )……UNDER 315 KIAS.
  3. )……UNDER 235 KIAS.
187
Q

There is no speed restriction on the windshield at or above…

A

10,000 FEET MSL.

188
Q

Maximum Residual EGT before moving fuel lever..

A

100° C.

189
Q

Engine Starter Duty Cycle Limits

A

90 seconds ON…..5 min. OFF.
30 seconds ON…..5 min. OFF

NOTE: Initial cycle may consist of any combination of starter engagement periods, not to exceed 90 seconds, as long as rotation stops between attempts. A minimum
of 15 minutes is required prior to a new initial engagement.

190
Q

RPM Limits (N1 & N2)

1.) Maximum Takeoff (ART off)..

2.) Maximum Takeoff (ART On)
NOTE: The above limit is not to exceed five (5) minutes.

A
  1. ) RED RADIAL LINE.

2. ) ORANGE RADIAL LINE.

191
Q

MAX T.O. EGT

A

RED RADIAL LINE 630 - 2 MIN
RED RADIAL LINE 625 - 5 MIN

Note: The sum time at both settings must not exceed 5 minutes.

192
Q

NORMAL T.O. EGT

INCLUDING FLEX

A

ORANGE RADIAL LINE
595 - 2 MIN
590 - 5 MIN

Note: The sum time at both settings must not exceed 5 minutes.

193
Q

EGT MCT Base of Yellow Arc / Amber Line…

A

Continuous.

194
Q

STARTING EGT GROUND

A

500*C

195
Q

STARTING EGT INFLIGHT

A

625*C (RED RADIAL)

196
Q

IDLE EGT LIMITS

A

480*C CONTINUOUS
This temperature is not a limitation but a guideline value which, if exceeded, may
indicate an abnormal condition. Crews should report this condition to maintenance control.

197
Q

ACCELERATION EGT LIMIT

A

Red Radial (2 MINUTES)

198
Q

Oil Pressure

1 . Minimum allowable oil pressure (normal)

A

40 PSI.

199
Q

Oil pressure in the Yellow Arc, or with the amber light illuminated, is permissible for
sustaining flight, preferably at reduced power settings. Pressures below the Red Radial, or with the Red light illuminated are unsafe.

A

TRUE.

200
Q

NOTE: During cold weather starting, oil pressure in excess of 55 psi may occur until oil viscosities are reduced by increasing oil temperature. Engine operation
is limited to idle power when oil pressure is in excess of 55 psi during cold weather starts.

A

TRUE.

201
Q

Oil Temperature

Maximum: . . . . .

A

Red Radial or Light (165°C)

202
Q

Oil Temperature

Maximum continuous:

A

Base of the Yellow Arc / Amber Light (135°C)

203
Q

An oil temperature in the Yellow Arc, or with the Amber light illuminated, up to the Red
Radial, or Red light, is allowed for a….

A

maximum period of 15 minutes.

204
Q

A normal FULL indication is 12 to 16 quarts. A minimum indication of 8 quarts is required with engines stabilized at idle thrust.

A

NOTE: Due to the JT8’s Gearbox design, it is not unusual to see quantities less than the 8 quart minimum prior to engine start. Crews should wait until the engine has been started and stabilized to verify actual oil quantity prior to maintenance notification.

205
Q

Engine Synchronization
(if installed)
The Engine Sync switch must be in the OFF position any time below……

A

1,500 feet AGL.

206
Q

Automatic Reserve Thrust System (ART)

A

Must be OFF when using the Takeoff Flex mode of the thrust rating system, or when making a Maximum Thrust Takeoff.

207
Q

Shut Down
1. If any of the following limits are exceeded, the engine should be shut down if flight
conditions permit:

  1. The engine should be inspected prior to any further operations.
A

a. EGT:
Red Radial/Light + 15°C

b. N1 RPM:
Red Radial/Light + 1.2%

c. N2 RPM:
Red Radial/Light + 1.0%

208
Q

ENGINE IGNITION LIMITS:

Toggle Switch

A

2 minutes ON, 3 minutes OFF

209
Q

ENGINE IGNITION LIMITS:

(Override position):

A

2 minutes ON, 23 minutes OFF

210
Q

ENGINE IGNITION LIMITS:

Rotary Switch (A/B/Both/Override):

A

10 minutes ON, 10 minutes OFF, repeat as necessary.

211
Q

Reverse taxiing is prohibited except for authorized power backs. During power back
operations the following limitations apply:

A
  1. During power back, DO NOT apply more than 1.3 EPR during reverse taxi operations.
  2. Thrust values in excess of 1.2 EPR should be limited to a momentary power application
    as necessary to initiate power back operations.
  3. Thrust reversers on both engines must be operative.
  4. Application of brakes while powering back is prohibited.
  5. Reverse taxi is not authorized when ice, snow or slush, or loose gravel or grit is on the ramp or during periods of heavy rain.
212
Q

Inflight reversing is prohibited.

A

TRUE.

213
Q

During landing operations the following limitations apply:

A
  1. Normal dry runway maximum reverse thrust power is 1.6 EPR.
  2. Wet or slippery runway maximum reverse thrust power is 1.3 EPR.
  3. In cases where difficulty in maintaining directional control is experienced during reverse
    thrust operation, reduce thrust as required and select forward idle if necessary to
    maintain or regain control.
214
Q

Engine Warm-up

An engine shutdown of two (2) hours or less

A

does not require warm-up time after start.

215
Q

Engine Warm-up

In order to minimize any adverse thermal stresses, it is desirable that engines started
after a shutdown period greater than two (2) hours….

A

be warmed up at thrust setting

normally used for taxi operations for a minimum of five (5) minutes.

216
Q

Engine Shutdown.

A

Normal operations would call for a two (2) minute cooling period after touchdown.

If the engines have operated above 85% N2 for periods exceeding one (1) minute, a
five (5) minute cooling period should be recognized prior to engine shutdown. As the
final approach segment and taxi operations do not normally require power settings above 85% N2, this time may be considered in the five (5) minute cooling period.

MD-80 Limitations (1 decks)

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