MCQs Flashcards
An athlete performing box jumps to improve power is an example of which type of training specificity?
A metabolic specificity
B mechanical specificity
C none of these
D neuromuscular specificity
D neuromuscular specificity
when an athlete is asked to perform resistance training with 60% of their one-repetition maximum at a moderate tempo, what is the most appropriate number of repetitions to complete?
A 8
B 10
C 14
D 20
C 14
during the pushing and pulling dynamic postural assessment, which of the following kinetic checkpoint are not a point of emphasis?
A shoulder complex
B lumbopelvic hip complex
C ankle and foot complex
D head
C ankle and foot complex
Dave has very tight latissimus dorsi muscles, which of the following exercises is most contraindicated for him?
A snatch pull
B snatch deadlift
C snatch
D power clean
C snatch
which of the following phases of the snatch exercise is not aided by performing the snatch deadlift?
A Top pull
B shift
C first pull
D starting position
A Top pull
how many foot contacts are performed in each agility ladder box during the Ali shuffle drill?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
B 2
which of the following exercises is the most appropriate for improving stabilization of the glenohumeral joint?
A floor push-up
B feet on ball push-up
C ball dumbbell chest press
D hands-on ball push-up
D hands-on ball push-up
measurement of power development in any plane of motion can occur by using which of the following sports performance tests?
A rotational medicine ball throw
B horizontal jumps
C shark skills test
D vertical jumps
B horizontal jumps
which of the following movements is not involved in the lower extremity functional test LEFT?
A Carioca
B lateral skips
C side shuffle
D backpedal
B lateral skips
which movement that occurs during the T-test makes it less specific to basketball than performing the pro-lane agility drill?
A Carioca
B sprint
C side shuffle
D backpedal
A Carioca
Trevor wants to begin supplementing with creatine to enhance improvements with his resistance training. Which of the following recommendations would be the most effective for the initial period of creatine supplementation?
A 10 g per day for four days
B 5 g per day for seven days
C 20 g per day for five days
D 20 g per day for three days
C 20 g per day for five days
Jill is a Vegan athlete, supplementation of which of the following vitamins may be beneficial for her?
A vitamin C
B vitamin K
C vitamin B12
D vitamin B6
C vitamin B12
if a sports performance professional assigns an athlete a resistance training program was sets of 10 repetitions with an intensity of 75% of 1RM, what adaptation will this elect?
A strength endurance
B Power
C maximal strength
D hypertrophy
D hypertrophy
A female athlete is complaining of constant fatigue and dizziness and is always battling a cough or flu. A deficiency of which of the following minerals is most likely with this athlete?
A selenium
B Iron
C vitamin A
D calcium
B Iron
an athlete gets set during the snatch exercise and has a poor kyphotic posture of the torso. Which action should the scapula perform in order to improve this starting position?
A elevate
B protract
C depress
D retract
D retract
Roger is in the first phase of his cardiorespiratory performance training program, how often will he be performing interval training?
A twice per week
B once per week
C three times per week
D never
B once per week
an athlete doesn’t require maximum flexibility in which muscle group in order to perform the deep catch position of the Olympic lifts?
A hip flexors
B plantar flexors
C knee flexors
D Wrist flexors
A hip flexors
Nancy wants to gain some muscle mass but is concerned about increasing it too fast. what post resistance exercise protein intake can be given as a minimum?
A 4 g
B 6 g
C 8 g
D 10 g
B 6 g
A sports performance coach is designing sports performance testing for cross country running athletes. Which of the following tests is the least appropriate to use with this athlete?
A medical history
B 1 mile run
C 3 to 5 repetition bench press
D overhead squat test
C 3 to 5 repetition bench press
Darren is performing a dumbbell snatch. In the starting position, where should he place the dumbbell?
A) on the side of the leg in front of the shoulders
B) between the legs in front of the shoulders
C) between the legs under the shoulders
D) on the side of the leg below the shoulders
C) between the legs under the shoulders
Gary has just begun to train for hypertrophy after progressing from a stabilization endurance phase; how long is it expected to take for him to adapt to this new training stimulus?
A) six weeks
B) two weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 4 weeks
D) 4 weeks
measuring athletes resting heart rate blood pressure and body composition would provide which information about the athlete’s status?
A) strength
B) cardiorespiratory fitness
C) movement abilities
D) overall health
D) overall health
which of the following is not contained within each functional unit of muscle?
A) actin
B) fasciculus
C) troponin
D) myosin
B) fasciculus
the tensor fascia Latae accelerates movement in which of the following plans of motion?
- Sagittal
- frontal
- transverse
All of them
Dan has an issue with overstriding. Which drill should be prescribed to help alleviate this issue?
A) superman
B) weighted arm swings
C) Resisted sprints
D) cycling B skips
D) cycling B skips
which type of muscular contraction Will decrease in the amount of tension development as the velocity of the contraction increases?
A) isokinetic contraction
B) concentric contraction
C) eccentric contraction
D) isometric contraction
B) concentric contraction
what is the recommended schedule and carbohydrates amount for glycogen super-compensation to occur?
A) three days at 10 g/kg/d followed by three days at 5 g/kg/d
B) six days at 10 g/kg/d
C) 5 days at 5 g/kg/d followed by one day at 10 g/kg/d
D) five days at 5 g/kg/d followed by one day at 10 g/kg/d
E) three days at 5 G/KG/D followed by three days at 10 g/kg/d
E) three days at 5 G/KG/D followed by three days at 10 g/kg/d
which of the following during the landing out of the scoring system assessment would not be considered a landing error?
A) flexing the knee less than 45° during the landing
B) failing to maintain vertical trunk in the frontal plane
C) not changing stance width during the landing
D) A lack of ankle plantar flexion at contact.
C) not changing stance width during the landing
which of the following acute training variables has an effect on the number of sets that are utilized?
A) number of exercises
B) training intensity
C) all of these
D) repetitions
C) all of these
in which position are cobra and superman core stabilization exercises performed?
A) side
B) standing
C) supine
D) prone
D) prone
during a transverse plan lunge to balance to overhead press, what position are the hands in?
A) Supinated
B) neutral
C) pronated
D) all of these
D) all of these
during a training session, an athlete performs a biceps curl with a very lightweight if a muscle fiber in the biceps brachii muscle contracts how many sarcomeres will be involved in contraction?
A) most of them
B) some of them
C) all of them
D) approximately half of them
C) all of them
during a shark skill test pattern that took 10 seconds to complete an athlete’s hands came off their hip twice the foot went into the wrong square ones and their foot turned diagonally five times what is this athlete’s final total time?
A) 10.8 seconds
B) 10.3 seconds
C) 14 seconds
D) 11.5 seconds
B) 10.3 seconds
Jack is a football athletes unsure of how much carbohydrate he should be consuming. As a sports performance professional what guideline can be provided to this athlete to optimize athletic performance?
A) 5 to 7 g/kg/day
B) 7 to 10 g/kg/day
C) 11 or more g/kg/day
D) 4 to 5 g/kg/day
A) 5 to 7 g/kg/day
Diane is stretching Kim by moving her limp into a stretcher position before having her contract against the movement and then moving that limb into a further stretched position. What type of stretching are Diane and Kim performing?
A) active isolated stretching
B) dynamic stretching
C) neuromuscular stretching
D) static stretching
C) neuromuscular stretching
what sports performance test is the most appropriate for a sport like soccer in which repeated short bursts of activity are important?
A) 1 mile run
B) 7×30 M sprint test
C) 300 yard shuttle
D) 3/4 court Print
B) 7×30 M sprint test
Eli is a cross country runner who wants to improve his strength endurance in the weight room which of the following repetitions per exercise count should be performed to optimize this training objective?
A) 15
B) 30
C) 50
D) 80
C) 50
during which of the following stages of training with the number of SAQ technique drills be the least?
A) strength
B) power
C) stabilization
D) hypertrophy
B) power
which of the following pieces of sensory information is not needed to control movement?
A time of day
B texture of the surface
C limp orientation
D body position in space
A time of day
performance can be improved through plyometric training in which of the following ways?
Enhance muscle spindle activity
Enhanced Golgi tendon organs activity
increase number of actin-myosin cross-bridges
enhanced neuromuscular efficiency
decreased activity of the Golgi tendon organ
1, 4 & 5
which of the following is not a factor in obtaining an accurate resting heart rate measurement?
A) The athlete should be calm when measurement occurs
B) only the radial pulse can be used
C) the average of three readings should be used
D) readings should be taken at the same time preferably in the morning
B) only the radial pulse can be used
Marie is performing 12 repetitions at a 1/0/1 repetition tempo, Cary is performing 8 repetitions with a 2/0/2 for petition tempo and Larry is performing 4 repetitions with a 4/2/1 repetition tempo. Whose set will have the longest duration?
A Cary
B Mary
C they will have the same situation
D Larry
A) Cary
hypertrophy is a result of which of the following adaptations in the muscle tissue?
A) increased number of muscle fibers
B) increased myofibril proteins synthesis
C) increase number of motor units
D) splitting of myofibrils
B) increased myofibril proteins synthesis
when an athlete is learning a bracing technique for core stabilization. Which of the following muscles need to be contacted?
A biceps femoris
B latissimus dorsi
C transversus abdominis
D rectus abdominis
D) rectus abdominis
which of the following lower body strength exercises should be performed with minimal knee flexion?
A) barbell squat
B) leg press
C) Romanian deadlifts
D) sagittal plane lunge
C) Romanian deadlifts
where should an athlete training for the first time be instructed to place the barbell during a back squat?
A) Against the top to thoracic vertebrae
B) against the scapula
C) against the trapezius and shoulders
D) against the back of the neck
C) against the trapezius and shoulders
which joint support system is essential for transferring the force from the trunk into the ground during running activities?
A) anterior oblique subsystem
B) Lateral subsystem
C) deep longitudinal subsystem
D) posterior oblique subsystem
C) deep longitudinal subsystem
which of the following muscles is not involved with accelerating hip abduction?
A) biceps femoris
B) gracilis
C) pectineus
D) adductor longus
A) biceps femoris
which of the following resistance training prescriptions should include the shortest rest interval?
A)| 4 sets of 4 repetitions with 87% of 1 RM
b) 3 sets of 5 repetitions with 35% of 1RM
C) 5 sets of 2 repetitions with 95% of 1RM
D) 3 sets of 6 repetitions with 85% of 1 RM
D) 3 sets of 6 repetitions with 85% of 1 RM
which of the following movements occur in the frontal plane Oscars occur?
A dorsiflexion
B flexion
C Supination
D inversion
D) inversion
which joint movement involves the angle of the hip joint between the trunk and thigh increasing through the movement?
A flexion
B abduction
C adduction
D extension
D) extension
which function of fat doesn’t relate to the metabolism of the body?
A increases food volume
B decreases calorie density of food
C improves satiety
D enhances the taste and texture of foods
D) enhances taste and texture of foods
As an athlete progresses through a plyometric training program, which of the following should decrease in order to improve performance?
A) amortization time
B) None of these
C) jump high
D) speed of the exercise
A) amortization time
what view will the sport performance professional need to observe in order to determine if the feet flatten or rotate out during an overhead squat test?
A) anterior view
B) lateral view
C) posterior view
D) the any of these
A) anterior view
A coach wanting to progress an athlete through agility and the multi-directional speed exercises should choose exercises that emphasize qualities in which order?
A technique, speed, and reactive skills
B technique, reactive skills, and speed
C speed, technique, and reactive skills
D reactive skills, speed, and technique
A) technique, speed, and reactive skills
which plan of motion is the oblique throw power exercise performed in?
A coronal
B transverse
C frontal
D sagittal
B) transverse
during static stretching which is the first structure to be elongated to optimal length?
A tendon
B sarcomere
C fascia
D ligament
B) sarcomere
During a 5-10-5 test, what is the total distance an athlete will travel during one assessment?
A 15 yards
B 25 yards
C 20 yards
D 40 yards
C) 20 yards
which of the following statements best describes the recovery phase of the stride cycle?
A) The athlete’s leg swings from the hip while the foot clears the ground
B) the weight of the athlete is carried by the entire foot
C) The athlete’s foot is in contact with the ground
D) Neither foot is in contact with the ground
A) The athlete’s leg swings from the hip while the foot clears the ground
An athlete has completed a marathon in a very hot and humid environment consuming a significant amount of water during and after the race they are now disoriented and have a headache which condition are they most likely to have?
A hyponatremia
B heat stroke
C dehydration
D hypothermia
A) hyponatremia
Beth is training for power with the clean and jerk exercise which cue regarding the hands can be used during the transition between the two movements to aid the jerk?
A tight in the hands
B changed to a supinated grip
C widen the grip
D narrow the grip
C) widen the grip
for neuromuscular efficiency to occur, the agonist, antagonist, synergist, and stabilizing muscles must have what type of relationship?
A) interdependent
D) dependent
C) independent
D) Impartial
A) interdependent
when determining body composition in athletes which of the following factors can serve to decrease the accuracy of the measurement?
A large amount of fat mass
B sport played
C height
D Age
A) large amount of fat mass
A Sports performance professional has assigned a training program to an athlete that splits the body into a single body part for each of the five days of resistance training. Which of the following is most likely the training goal of this athlete?
A strength
B power
C muscle endurance
D hypertrophy
D) hypertrophy
which of the following is not a reason that females require a slightly higher fat intake in terms of percentage of calories than males?
A) females have higher intramuscular triglycerides stores than males
B) females utilize more fat and less carbohydrate than males during exercise
C) females have a greater breakdown of intramuscular triglycerides than males during submaximal exercise
D) females cannot exercise as intensely as males.
D) females cannot exercise as intensely as males.
which of the following muscles concentrically contracts to horizontally adduct and internally rotate the shoulder?
A biceps femoris
B medial deltoid
C Pectoralis major
D Pectoralis minor
C) Pectoralis major
which of the following exercises can be used to specifically increase quickness?
Partner mirror drill box drill resistant sprinting agility ball drill 1/3/5 wall drill
1 and 4
what is the estimated maximum heart rate of a 24 year old male basketball player?
A) 220 beats per minute
B) 196 bpm
C) 204 bpm
D) 176 bpm
B) 196 bpm
which of the following is not a function of protein in the body? A maintain fluid balance b sensitize enzymes and hormones C protects internal organs D provide energy
C) protects internal organs
which of the following can be done to improve the reliability of a blood pressure reading?
A use a digital measurement device
B uses a variety of cuff sizes
C perform on a dehydrated athlete
D repeat the procedure on the other arm
D) repeat the procedure on the other arm
Evan complains of difficulty losing fat despite having a negative energy balance. Which of the following strategies may be helpful for reaching his goal?
A eat less frequently
B further decrease caloric intake
C eat 4 to 6 smaller, more frequent meals
D consume more nutrient-dense foods
C) eat 4 to 6 smaller, more frequent meals
what phenomenon occurs if during a bench press exercise the triceps muscle contributes the most force? A stretch-shortening cycle B altered reciprocal inhibition C synergistic dominance D muscle balance
C) synergistic dominance
when performing a circumference measurement on the thigh. What is the correct position of the measuring tape?
A) at the maximum circumference of the thigh
B) centered between the patella and the great trochanter
C) at the widest portion of the buttocks
D) 10 inches above the top of the patella
D) 10 inches above the top of the patella
when measuring blood pressure, what is the name of the large number of the reading and what does it represent?
A) systolic, the pressure produced by the heart as it pumps blood to the body
B) systolic, blood pressure in the arteries when the heart is not beating
C) Diastolic, the pressure produced by the heart as it pumps blood to the body
D) diastolic, the pressure in the arteries when the heart is not beating
A) systolic, the pressure produced by the heart as it pumps blood to the body
which of the following leg power exercises is performed in the frontal plane?
A power set up
B tuck jump
C ice skaters
D Lunge jump
C) ice skaters
to promote athlete safety which of the following vitamin supplements should a sports performance professional recommend not taking?
A vitamin A
B vitamin C
C vitamin D
D vitamin B12
A) vitamin A
an athlete is unable to maintain the proper body angle in relation to the ground during acceleration which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A weak posterior chain musculature
B Tight Gastrocnemius, Soleus and Achilles complex
C poor neural patterning of the local and global core stabilizes
D poor mobility of the lumbar pelvic hip complex
C) poor neural patterning of the local and global core stabilizes
which of the following plyometric drills should have the shortest amortization time?
A lunge jumps
B repeat squat jumps
C hurdle jump to pounding
D box jump down with stabilization
C) hurdle jump to pounding
which type of grip on the dumbbells is used during single-leg scaption exercise?
A) any of these
B) supinated
C) neutral
D) pronated
C) neutral
Bill has a lack of range of motion in the flexion of his hip. Where within his body is the most likely to compensate for this during linear sprinting?
A) head and neck
B) knees
C) shoulders
D) ankles
C) shoulders
an athlete who weighs 250 pounds with a body composition of 28% has been instructed to decrease the body composition to 24%. what would this athlete’s goal weight by assuming that lean mass would remain constant?
A 180 pounds
B 240 pounds
C 237 pounds
D 225 pounds
C) 237 pounds
Ricky is a baseball player who is currently in his competitive season. Which of the following acute training variables should have decreased during this time compared to his off-season?
A training tempo
B rest interval
C repetitions per set
D training frequency
D) training frequency
240-during the landing error scoring system dynamic postural assessment, how far should the athlete land away from the box?
A 30 cm
B 12”
C the height of the athlete
D half the athlete’s height
D) half the athlete’s height
which phase of the snatch exercise involves a slight re-bending of the knees during the upward movement of the barbell?
A top pull
B first pull
C catch
D scoop
D) scoop
during complex training, which of the following exercises would best be paired with squats performed with 85% of 1RM?
A) overhead medicine ball throw
B) medicine ball chest pass
C) box jumps
D) lunges
C) box jumps
Sports performance professional uses which piece of equipment to measure the hip angle during the double leg lowering test?
A caliper
B flexometer
C sphygmomanometer
D goniometer
D) goniometer
watching a child progress from crawling to standing to walking is an example of what aspect of motor behavior?
A motor development
B sensorimotor integration
C motor control
D motor learning
A) motor development
which of the following training cycles typically lasts approximately 1 to 3 months?
A macrocycle
B microcycle
C Mesocycle
D metacycle
C) Mesocycle
Paul is performing a supported dumbbell row. Which body area should be cued to remain neutral and stable throughout the exercise for it to be safe and effective?
A) the shoulder
B) the spine
C) the wrist
D) the hips
B) the spine
which training phase of the OPT model suggests the fewest amount of resistance training sessions per week due to the high level of fatigue they produce?
A maximal power training
B hypertrophy training
C maximal strength training
D stabilization training
A) maximal power training
shoulder flexion is the primary movement of which of the following core power exercises?
A) front oblique pass
B) soccer throw
C) overhead throw
D) rotation chest pass
B) soccer throw
An athlete has a muscle strain that is causing pain during both hip extension and knee flexion. Which of the following muscles is most likely affected?
A biceps femoris
B adductor Magnus
C rectus femoris
D gluteus maximus
A) biceps femoris
which of the following are functions of vitamins and minerals?
- aid in hemoglobin production
- protect the body from oxidative damage
- supply energy to the body
- serve as the building blocks of tissue
- support energy metabolism
1,2 & 5
Jill is performing an Ironman triathlon; how much carbohydrates should she consume, spread through the race, if she is planning on finishing in 10 hours?
A 700 g
B 1000 g
C 400 g
D 200 g
C) 400 g
during the pushing assessment which of the following compensations is not likely to occur?
A Forward migration of the head
B elevation of the shoulders
C Arch of the lower back
D excessive forward lean of the trunk
D) excessive forward lean of the trunk
A volleyball coach wants to assess his athletes to check for knee valgus. which dynamic postural assessment should be performed, as it specifically looks for only this compensation?
A) overhead squat
B) pulling assessment
C) single leg squat
D) pushing assessment
C) single leg squat
After performing a 20 m multistage shuttle test a 21-year-old athlete is determined to have a VO2 of 48. Based on this result what level of aerobic training would be appropriate for this athlete?
A zone one
B zone two
C zone three
D zone four
B) zone two
An athlete has been assigned a training program with 22 repetitions per exercise which of the following training objectives is likely to be the goal of this training program?
A) strength endurance
B) power
C) maximal strength
D) hypertrophy
C) maximal strength
A Sport performance professional can use which of the following methods to measure body fat?
I. skinfold measurements II. circumference measurement III. body weight measurement IV. whole-body plethysmography V. underwater weight
I, IV & V
An athlete is instructed to perform lunges with rotation as part of their warm-up. In which direction should they rotate the medicine ball in order to perform this dynamic stretch properly?
A) away from the downed knee
B) towards the downed knee
C) away from the floor
D) toward the floor
A) away from the downed knee
Tiffany has begun to take anabiotic steroids in an ill-advised attempt to increase muscle strength. which of the following adverse effect may occur with her continued use?
- decreased sperm production.
- acne.
- Increased body hair.
- fluid retention.
- cancer
2, 3 & 4
Trevor is a soccer player who has chosen a Vegan date for the last four years. Which of the following nutrients is his biggest concern for adequate consumption?
A potassium
B zinc
C vitamin E
D calcium
B) zinc
which of the following daily protein intake’s would be appropriate for an endurance athlete?
A 0.8 G/KG/day
B 1 G/Kg/day
C 1.6 G/KG/day
D 1.4 G/KG/day
D) 1.4 G/KG/day
when performing a cable lift to improve core strength which direction is the cable pulled?
A) from high to low
B) Laterally
C) from low to high
D) any of these
C) from low to high
during the highest intensity training session during phase 2 of the cardiorespiratory training program, what is the initial duration of the zone 3 intervals?
A) 45 seconds
B) 3 minutes
C) 1 minute
D) 30 minutes
C) 1 minute
which of the following is not considered a nutritional ergogenic aids?
A) iron supplementation
B) Amino Acid supplementation
C) carbohydrate loading
D) blood doping
D) blood doping
an athlete is in the middle of a high-intensity training session. Which division of the nervous system is likely controlling the activity of the cardiovascular, digestive, and hormonal systems specifically?
A central nervous system
B somatic nervous system
C parasympathetic nervous system
D sympathetic nervous system
D) sympathetic nervous system
In what position should the ankle be during the drive phase of linear running? A) inverted B) dorsiflexed C) plantar flexed D) everted
B) dorsiflexed
which of the following risk factors of plantar fasciitis is the most likely to lead to an athlete developing this injury?
A body mass index of 28
B body mass index of 32
C working on one’s feet
D less than 0° of ankle dorsiflexion
D) less than 0° of ankle dorsiflexion
Alice a basketball player is attempting to increase her speed before the next competitive season which of the following exercises would least aid her in accomplishing this training objective?
A) overhead medicine ball throw
B) cable row on a single leg
C) hurdle jump
D) power clean
B) cable row on a single leg
during the single-leg balance excursion test, in which of the following positions does the athlete reach the opposite leg?
A) half squat
B) straight-legged
C) balance threshold
D) quarter squat
C) balance threshold
Gary wants to improve his performance by optimizing his nutrition before training and competition. Which of the following guidelines will help him reach his goal?
A meal should be moderate to high in fat and fiber
B meal should include little or no fluids.
C meals should be moderate in carbohydrates
D meal should contain familiar foods
D) meal should contain familiar foods
during a pull-up test which instructions can be given and in force to ensure the validity and reliability of the test?
- Grasp the bar with a pronated grip.
- don’t allow the body to swing.
- don’t kick or create momentum.
- at the top, the athlete must reach the chin to hand level.
- at the bottom, the athlete’s elbows must be locked
all of them
Which of the following joints can produce movements in the sagittal and frontal plan only?
A knee
B hip
C elbow
D ankle
D) ankle
which of the following core strength exercises primarily stresses the posterior musculature?
A stability ball crunch
B overhead throw with rotation
C bench back extension
D stability ball knee ups
C) bench back extension
which two exercises share an identical setup, first pull, shift, and top pull?
A) power clean and hang clean
B) hang clean and clean and jerk
C) clean and jerk and power clean
D) snatch and snatch deadlift
C) clean and jerk and power clean
what repetition tempo should be recommended for an athlete looking to increase the recruitment of their motor units?
A) Slow only
B) moderate to fast
C) moderate only
D) slow to moderate
B) moderate to fast
which of the following pieces of information cannot be derived from the systematic schedule of assessments?
A) the athlete’s needs
B) how an athlete will respond to training
C) the physiological effect of exercise
D) the functional capabilities of the athletes
B) how an athlete will respond to training
during a basketball game which of the following energy systems is being utilized to fuel performance?
A) ATP/PC
B) glycolysis
C) all of these
D) oxidative
C) all of these
during a double leg lowering test which action should be performed by the athlete in order to keep the lumbar spine in contact with the pressure cuff?
A) drawing in maneuver
B) Bracing maneuver
C) all of these
D) activates the lateral subsystem
A) drawing in maneuver
Mary a 105-pound marathon runner would like to use caffeine to improve her performance. Which of the following recommendations is the most appropriate for this athlete?
A 350 mg one hour before the race
B 250 mg immediately before the race
C 250 mg one hour before the race
D 350 mg immediately before the race
C) 250 mg one hour before the race
which of the following statements about the prone ball horizontal abduction exercises is true?
A) The posterior chain must be activated to maintain body position
B) this exercise occurs in the frontal plane
C) these exercises designed solely to emphasize strength increase of the posterior deltoid
D) performing this exercise on a bench would not affect its execution
A) The posterior chain must be activated to maintain body position
which of the following are characteristics of type I muscle fibers?
- Slow contracting.
- fast contracting.
- high tension output.
- low tension output.
- resistant to fatigue.
- prone to fatigue.
1, 4 & 5
William is training to increase lean body mass which of the following nutritional strategies will aid in this endeavor?
A) adequate food intake
B) limitation of non-animal source protein
C) appropriate food choices
D) specific nutrient timing.
A, C & D
during the adductor Magnus static stretch, where are the hands towards?
A towards the foot
B to the floor
C into the air
D straight in front
A) towards the foot
during the overhead squat test which three parts of the body should remain in line with the sagittal plane to perform this movement without impairment?
A) arms torso and tibia
B) None of these
C) head tibia and feet
D) thighs torso and arms
A) arms torso and tibia
which of the following is not a characteristic of functional athletic activity?
A occurs in multiple planes of motion
B involves decelerations
C requires dynamic stabilization
D occurs in the sagittal plane only
D) occurs in the sagittal plane only
the recovery of which energy system is the limiting factor for rest period Length when performing very high-intensity training?
A) ATP-PC energy system
B) neuromuscular energy system
C) glycolytic energy system
D) aerobic energy system
A) ATP-PC energy system
Emily wants to improve her nutrition before training and competition. what should be her main goal in this endeavor?
A) arrive as full as possible
B) drink as much water as possible
C) eat meals that are high in protein
D) arrive in a fed state but without undigested food in the stomach.
D) arrive in a fed state but without undigested food in the stomach.
when an athlete performs any frontal plane or transverse plane set up exercise which foot should be brought up to the box 1st?
A) foot closest to the box
B) foot furthest from the box
C) left foot
D) Right foot
A) foot closest to the box
which of the following supplements requires medical supervision for any use to occur?
A) dehydroepiandrosterone
B) branched-chain amino acids
C) vitamin D
D) caffeine
A) dehydroepiandrosterone
performing push-ups, lunges, stability ball crunches, single-leg biceps curls, and cable triceps press downs sequentially with small rest periods is an example of which type of training? A) split routine training B) maximal strength training C) circuit training D) horizontal loading
C) circuit training
during linear sprinting which two body landmarks should the hands reach during proper shoulder flexion and extension?
A chin and buttocks
B forehead and anterior hip
C chin and anterior hip
D forehead and buttocks
D) forehead and buttocks
when getting set for the snatch exercise how far apart should the lifters hands be placed?
A distance from elbow to elbow when the hands are reached out laterally
B distance from left middle finger to the right elbow when the hands are reached out laterally
C distance from the left elbow to write shoulder when the hands are reached out laterally
D distance from hand to hand when the hands are reached out laterally
B) distance from left middle finger to the right elbow when the hands are reached out laterally
to perform a blood pressure measurement which two pieces of equipment required?
A Goniometer and stopwatch
B sphygmomanometer and stethoscope
C sphygmomanometer and heart rate monitor
D skinfold calipers and stethoscope
B) sphygmomanometer and stethoscope
an athlete who is dehydrated is not likely to display which of the following signs and symptoms?
A thirst
B dizziness
C short-term memory loss
D muscle cramps
C) short-term memory loss
which of the following sports performance tests would be the least appropriate for a football team?
A) 3 to 5 repetition squad
B) 1 mile run
C) 40-yard sprint
D) vertical jump
B) 1-mile run
Bill’s new training program has many exercises that are unstable yet controllable. Which phase of training within the OPT model is he most likely participating in?
A strength
B power
C stabilization
D None of these
C) stabilization
during the higher intensity day during the first week of the base training phase of cardiorespiratory performance training how many intervals could be performed during a 40-minute training session that included a 10-minute warm-up?
A five
B Eight
C Fifteen
D Three
A) five
which of the following stability ball crunch progressions involves bringing the knees towards the chest in the sagittal plane only?
A reverse crunch with rotation
B long lever crunch
C reverse crunch
D crunch
C) reverse crunch
which type of training is utilized to improve the rate of performance?
A strength
B speed
C flexibility
D agility
B) speed
which of the following is an acute response to a single endurance training session?
A decrease in the resting heart rate
B increased heart rate
C cardiac output remains stable
D increased maximum heart rate
B) increased heart rate
to determine upper and lower extremity strength through the bench press and squat respectively which range of repetition is recommended for the athlete to accurately estimate their 1RM?
A) 6 to 8
B) 3 to 5
C) 1 to 3
D) As many reps as possible at a given weight
B) 3 to 5
which of the following best describes the position of the knees at the top of the back squat exercise? A slightly flexed B slightly extended C fully flexed D fully extended
A) slightly flexed
which training phase of the OPT model is the most likely to contain superset techniques in order to achieve the training objective?
A maximal strength training
B stabilization endurance training
C hypertrophy training
D strength endurance training
D) strength endurance training
which of the following is the “primary” benefit of using periodization when designing a training program?
A allows for maximal adaptation
B to keep the athlete engaged
C minimize the risk of overtraining
D to prevent detraining
C) minimize the risk of overtraining
when designing a training program for a basketball team, when should plyometric training be performed in relation to other training modes?
A) after warm-up core and balance but before resistance training
B) after the warm-up but before any other training mode
C) after warm-up and resistance training but before SAQ training
D) after warm-up and flexibility but before balance and resistance training
A) after warm-up core and balance but before resistance training
An athlete with diagnosed but pain-free joint dysfunction has come to train with a sports performance professional. Which of the following types of training would be the most effective for this type of athlete?
A Corrective exercise training
B hypertrophy training
C none, the athlete should be referred to a rehabilitation specialist
D stabilization training
A) Corrective exercise training
when performing a deadlift which of the following actions can be reasonably accomplished to decrease the amount of force needed to lift the barbell?
A) hold of the Barbell closer to the body
B) hold the barbell further away from the body
C) change the foot position
D) change the muscle’s attachment points
A) hold of the Barbell closer to the body
once an athlete has completed a phase of maximal strength training which phase should not be performed immediately afterward according to the OPT model?
A power
B strength endurance
C hypertrophy
D stabilization endurance
C) hypertrophy
an athlete is supplementing with branch chain amino acids BCAAs to increase lean body mass which of the following amino acids will not be present in this ergogenic aids?
A isoleucine
B Valine
C glutamine
D leucine
C) glutamine
A rowing team has asked how to monitor their own hydration levels during the competitive season. Which of the following methods will be the most appropriate?
- body mass changes.
- thirst.
- urine color
- refractometer measurements
1 & 3
what is the maximum amount of time that a training session (not including warm-up and cool down) should last to prevent fatigue and alterations of the hormonal and immune system?
A 90 minutes
B 60 minutes
C 120 minutes
D 30 minutes
A) 90 minutes
which of the following are risk factors for, or consequences of, developing lower back pain?
A) all of these
B) trunk muscle weakness
C) altered postural control
D) decreased the single-leg balance
A) all of these
an athlete wants to use a medicine ball to improve their power what intensity should they utilize? A) 8% of one repetition maximum B) 35% of body weight C) 35% of one repetition maximum D) 8% of body weight
D) 8% of body weight
Henry has trained with the OPT model for three years but still needs to increase his strengths and has just completed his competitive season. Assuming he has no injuries or postural dysfunction which phase of the OPT model should he begin his off-season training with?
A stabilization
B strength endurance
C maximal strength
D hypertrophy
A) stabilization
why is body mass index a limited measure of body composition for some athletes?
A) The body mass index uses the metric system
B) athletes tend to be healthier
C) athletes tend to be short
D) athletes tend to have large masses of muscle.
D) athletes tend to have large masses of muscle.
which of the following is the measure of pressure on the vascular wall between Heartbeats?
A diastolic blood pressure
B cardiac output
C stroke volume
D systolic blood pressure.
A) diastolic blood pressure
which of the following is not a sign or symptom of overtraining during a cardiorespiratory performance training program?
A) overly fatiguing workouts
B) inability to reach training zones
C) a lack of feeling refreshed after workouts
D) too much sleep at night
D) too much sleep at night
what is the purpose of alternating periods of low repetitions and higher petitions training?
A) to use a variety of exercises
B) to decrease adaptation
C) to prevent boredom
D) to prevent overtraining
D) to prevent overtraining
an athlete is discovered to be prescribed with a bronchodilator for their asthma. What effect is this expected to have on the resting heart rate?
A) decreased heart rate
B) increased heart rate
C) No effect
D) None of these
C) No effect
Ted is performing an overhead barbell press for the first time. What position should he be instructed to bring the barbell at the bottom position of the exercise?
A behind the neck
B Top of the head
C pressed out above the head
D in front of the neck
D) in front of the neck
when performing balance strength training which hand should the dumbbell be held in comparison to the supporting leg?
A The opposite hand
B the same hand
C it doesn’t matter
D switch hands each set
A) The opposite hand
which types of stretching can involve a 30-second hold at some point when completing an exercise?
- Self-myofascial release.
- static stretching.
- active isolated stretching.
- neuromuscular stretching.
- dynamic stretching
1, 2 & 4
Sports performance professional has developed a periodized training plan. Which of the following will denote the aspect of the training plan that has the shortest duration?
A Macrocycle
B microcycle
C Mesocycle
D training session
D training session
Fred is an African-American basketball player who has moved to Alaska to compete at the collegiate level. Which of the following vitamins would most likely be recommended by a registered dietitian for this athlete’s supplementation?
A Vitamin A
B vitamin C
C vitamin D
D vitamin E
C) vitamin D
dad lost 3 pounds during his 10 mile training run what amount of fluid should he consume in order to restore his hydration level?
A 80 ounces
B 66 ounces
C 44 ounces
D 36 ounces
B) 66 ounces
which of the following ergogenic aids would most likely be used by an endurance athlete?
A vitamin D
B anabolic steroids
C creatine
D Erythropoietin
D) Erythropoietin
which of the following training variables is required to cause neural adaptations to occur?
A Low-volume
B High intensity
C High volume
D Low intensity
B) High intensity
which of the following affects the amount of force a muscle can produce?
- Muscle length.
- type of contraction.
- muscle size.
- velocity of contraction.
- joint position.
All of them
which of the following grips is unique to Olympic lifts?
A hook grip
B neutral grip
C supinated grip
D pronated grip
A) hook grip
Tim is performing four sets of bench press with 10 repetitions at 73% of his one repetition maximum what type of resistance training system is Tim utilizing?
A circuit training system
B pyramid system
C single-set system
D multiple sets system
D) multiple sets system
when assessing static posture through a lateral view where should the vertical line from the lateral malleolus run through above the shoulders?
A) The back of the head
B) the lateral edge of the eye
C) None of these
D) the middle of the ear
D) the middle of the ear
An athlete performing transverse plane single leg box hop-ups is experiencing an inward collapse of the knee during the landing. Which of the following progressions would be appropriate to apply to this athlete?
A perform frontal or sagittal plane single leg box hop-ups
B perform the exercise with two legs
C lower the box height
D all of these
D all of these
when performed by a skilled technician which of the following methods of measuring body composition is the least accurate?
A DEXA scan
B skin-fold measurement
C bioelectrical impedance
D Underwater weighing
C) bioelectrical impedance
an athlete sensing that their knees are collapsing in during a box jump with stabilization reacts by pushing them literally. This is an example of what aspect of motor behavior?
A motor development
B proprioception
C sensorimotor integration
D motor learning
C) sensorimotor integration
A lack of strength or neuromuscular control of which joint support system results in unwanted frontal plane movement such as vulgus of the knee?
A) anterior oblique subsystem
B) Lateral subsystem
C) deep longitudinal subsystem
D) posterior oblique subsystem
B) Lateral subsystem
an athlete is exhibiting excessive trunk flexion while performing power cleans; which of the following corrections will not lead to improved technique?
A cue the athlete to draw in and brace the dominance
B perform drills to improve core stability
C increase the load
D Cue the athlete to retract the scapula before initiating the moment
C) increase the load
Sports performance professional has designed a sports performance training program for an athlete in which the snatch and power clean are integral exercises. Which of the following phases of training is this athlete most likely participating in?
A power
B stabilization
C maximal strength
D hypertrophy
A) power
during hypertrophy training which of the following acute variables could be decreased to promote better adaptation?
A exercise selection
B training intensity
C rest interval
D number of sets
C) rest interval
which resistance training system is designed to activate the highest number of motor units throughout the work out?
A circuit training system
B light to heavy pyramid system
C heavy to light pyramid system
D multiple set system
C) heavy to light pyramid system
which of the following heart rates for a 23 year old athlete would be the most appropriate intensity at which to perform intervals during the first phase of a cardiorespiratory performance training program?
A 162 bpm
B 170 bpm
C 155 bpm
D 197 bpm
A) 162 bpm
A sports coach would like a sports performance coach to perform a Harvard step test with their athletes. What cadence and for what duration should the test occur in order to obtain accurate results?
A 60 steps per minute for 3 to 3.5 minutes
B 30 steps per minute for 3 to 3.5 minutes
C 30 steps per minute for five minutes
D 60 steps per minute for five minutes
C) 30 steps per minute for five minutes
which of the following is part of the group of muscles known as the local core stabilizes?
A biceps femoris
B external oblique
C diaphragm
D rectus abdominis
C) diaphragm
which of the following is not a possible outcome when the articular aspect of the human movement system become dysfunctional?
A Improve the neuromuscular efficiency
B altered sensory motor integration
C tissue Fatigue
D initiation of the cumulative injury cycle
A) Improve the neuromuscular efficiency
what is the direct physiological effect of supplementing with creatine?
A) Enhance endurance performance
B) Enhance brief high-intensity efforts
C) Improve strength
D) increase number of actin and myosin filaments
B) Enhance brief high-intensity efforts
which of the following is not a benefit of executing performance nutrition strategies?
A improve concentration
B increased skilled performance
C prevent injury
D delay the onset of fatigue
B) increased skilled performance
A shot putter wants to improve the rate of force production. which of the following training volumes would best suit this training goal?
A 8 repetitions per exercise
B 18 repetitions per exercise
C 28 repetitions per exercise
D 40 repetitions per exercise
B) 18 repetitions per exercise
which of the following training principles is most likely to decrease the likelihood of injury and overtraining during a training program?
A Principle of individualization
B principle of adaptation
C principle of overload
D principle of variation
D) principle of variation
what piece of equipment can an athlete use to improve grip during a slow descent snatch deadlift?
A weight belt
B gloves
C straps
D knee warps
C) straps
which of the following muscles accelerates hip extension and external rotation decelerates hip flexion and internal rotation and stabilizes the lumbopelvic-hip complex?
A Gracilis
B gluteus minimus
C rectus femoris
D gluteus maximus
D) gluteus maximus
Jim needs to improve the stability of the supportive musculature of the shift and top pool portions of the snatch exercise which of the following exercises is most appropriate for completing the school?
A Slow descent snatch deadlifts
B back squats
C snatch from blocks
D snatch deadlift from blocks
D) snatch deadlift from blocks
which of the following effects of aging can lead to a decrease in flexibility?
A) Altered length-tension relationships
B increased risk of falls
C connective tissue hypertrophy
D loss of ground substance
C) connective tissue hypertrophy
which of the following is the main difference between a power exercise and strength exercise?
A Emphasis on the prime mover
B number of joints Incorporated
C load used
D rate of performance
D) rate of performance
A basketball player wants to increase their ability to jump for rebounds. Which of the following training parameters best suits this training goal?
A 3 sets of 5 repetitions at 40% of 1RM
B 3 sets of 5 repetitions at 85% of 1RM
C 4 sets of 10 repetitions at 75% of 1RM
D 2 sets of 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM
A) 3 sets of 5 repetitions at 40% of 1RM
Nicole is having difficulty recovering between intervals during a zone 3 interval training session. Which of the following courses of action should the sport performance professional take?
A Decrease the intensity of the intervals.
B stop The workout and cool down.
C instruct the athlete to push through the fatigue
D decrease the duration of the intervals
B) stop The workout and cool down.
manipulating an endurance exercise prescription in which of the following ways will lead to an increase of the contribution of carbohydrates as an energy source?
A) Increase exercise duration
B) decrease exercise intensity
C) increase exercise intensity
D) decrease exercise duration
C) increase exercise intensity
when an athlete is performing endurance exercise. where in the body is the blood concentration of blood the lowest?
A Pulmonary artery
B superior vena cava
C pulmonary vein
D aorta
A) Pulmonary artery
Jim is going to a cross-country skiing training camp next week where typical training days will last for five hours per day what is the minimum amount of carbohydrate that Jim who waits 165 pounds should consume daily while at this camp?
A 825 g
B 525 g
C 750 g
D 1815 g
A) 825 g
an athlete is arching their back during a standing pushing assessment. This is likely due to a weakness or under activity of which muscle group?
A Gluteal muscles
B trapezius muscles
C neck muscles
D core muscles
D core muscles
soft tissue demonstrates unique properties that include which of the following?
- Elasticity.
- rigidity.
- plasticity.
- viscosity.
- potentiation.
1, 3 & 4
when do cardiovascular adaptations occur during the training cycle?
A During exercise
D during recovery between intervals
C during recovery between training sessions
D during the cooldown
C) during recovery between training sessions
A bench or stability ball is an example of which integrated training variable?
Select one:
a. Base of support
b. Body position
c. Plane of motion
d. External resistance
a. Base of support
What is the ability of the central nervous system to allow agonists, antagonists, synergists, stabilizers, and neutralizers to work interdependently? Select one: a. Neuromuscular efficiency b. Neuroplasticity c. Intramuscular coordination d. Arthrokinematics
a. Neuromuscular efficiency
Plane of motion is a component of which of the following? Select one: a. Metabolic specificity b. Neuromuscular specificity c. Integrated training variables d. Acute variables
c. Integrated training variables
What is the ability of the stabilizing muscles to provide dynamic joint stabilization and postural equilibrium during functional activities? Select one: a. Proprioception b. Extensibility c. Balance d. Stabilization strength
d. Stabilization strength
What is the ability of the neuromuscular system to contract eccentrically, isometrically, and concentrically in all three planes of motion? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Functional strength c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Stretch-shortening cycle
b. Functional strength
Flexibility training, core training, and plyometric training are components of what? Select one: a. Metabolic training b. Anaerobic threshold training c. Functional training d. Integrated sports performance
d. Integrated sports performance
Improving speed, change of direction, and reaction time are possible through which type of training? Select one: a. SAQ b. Resistance c. Metabolic d. Balance
a. SAQ
Which component of a fitness program is possibly the most misunderstood and underrated? Select one: a. Balance training b. Flexibility training c. SAQ training d. Metabolic training
d. Metabolic training
Improved intra- and inter-muscular efficiency yield less inhibition from muscles performing which function? Select one: a. Synergist muscle action b. Antagonist muscle action c. Agonist muscle action d. Stabilizer muscle action
b. Antagonist muscle action
Which of the following utilizes multiplanar, multidimensional movement across the entire contraction-velocity spectrum? Select one: a. Integrated continuum b. Muscle progression c. Exercise progression d. Functional continuum
d. Functional continuum
Which integrated training variable has options such as 2-arms, alternate-arms, or one-arm with rotation? Select one: a. Upper extremity symmetry b. Plane of motion c. Body position d. External resistance
a. Upper extremity symmetry
Which OPT level of training prepares the athlete to engage in more demanding exercise by correcting muscular imbalances? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Power c. Endurance d. Strength
a. Stabilization
Which phase of the OPT model is designed to enhance stabilization strength and endurance while increasing prime mover strength? Select one: a. Phase 5: Power b. Phase 2: Strength Endurance c. Phase 3: Hypertrophy d. Phase 4: Maximal Strength
b. Phase 2: Strength Endurance
Which of the following is a dynamic, controlling quality and describes the alignment of each segment of the HMS? Select one: a. Posture b. Synergistic dominance c. Neuromuscular efficiency d. Proprioception
a. Posture
What type of exercise environment is necessary to achieve the desired adaptations from balance training? Select one: a. Stabilized b. High-intensity c. Uncontrolled d. Proprioceptively enriched
d. Proprioceptively enriched
The posterior oblique subsystem works synergistically with which other system? Select one: a. Lateral b. Local muscular c. Deep longitudinal d. Global muscular
c. Deep longitudinal
Which plane bisects the body into front and back halves with motion occurring around an anterior-posterior axis? Select one: a. Scapular plane b. Sagittal plane c. Frontal plane d. Transverse plane
c. Frontal plane
Which of the following describes a person's ability to change motor behavior over time throughout a life span? Select one: a. Motor learning b. Sensorimotor integration c. Motor development d. Motor control
c. Motor development
How many classes of levers are present in the body? Select one: a. Three b. One c. Four d. Two
a. Three
Which of the following muscles is part of the anterior oblique subsystem? Select one: a. Biceps femoris b. External obliques c. Gluteus maximus d. Latissimus dorsi
b. External obliques
Which class of lever is the most common in the body? Select one: a. III b. IV c. I d. II
a. III
Which muscular system does an athlete primarily engage during a prone iso-abs exercise? Select one: a. Global b. Deep longitudinal c. Posterior oblique d. Local
d. Local
When performing an exercise in the sagittal plane, around which of the following axes does the movement occur? Select one: a. Coronal b. Anterior-posterior c. Vertical d. Longitudinal
a. Coronal
Which muscle action is directly associated with accelerating supination? Select one: a. Integrated function b. Isometric c. Concentric d. Eccentric
c. Concentric
Which of the following muscles is considered a synergist while performing a bench press? Select one: a. Biceps b. Triceps c. Rotator cuff d. Pectoralis major
b. Triceps
Which muscle behavior refers to its ability to be stretched or lengthened? Select one: a. Extensibility b. Elasticity c. Tension development d. Irritability
a. Extensibility
Which of the following muscle actions develops tension while a muscle is lengthening? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Static c. Concentric d. Isometric
a. Eccentric
Performing an exercise with elbow extension requires which muscle to be the agonist? Select one: a. Triceps b. Biceps c. Latissimus dorsi d. Posterior deltoid
a. Triceps
Which of the following is a form of internal feedback? Select one: a. Sensory information b. Sports performance professional c. Heart rate monitor d. Mirror
a. Sensory information
Which muscle function assists the prime mover to produce movement? Select one: a. Stabilizer b. Antagonist c. Synergist d. Agonist
c. Synergist
Which represents the correct performance of the subscapular measurement when using skinfold calipers to assess body composition?
Select one:
a. 45-degree fold, 1-2cm below the inferior angle of the scapula
b. Vertical fold, middle of scapula
c. 45-degree fold, middle of the scapula
d. Vertical fold, 1-2cm below the inferior angle of the scapula
a. 45-degree fold, 1-2cm below the inferior angle of the scapula
Why is caution advised in regard to assessing heart rate at the carotid artery?
Select one:
a. It can increase stroke volume
b. It can reduce blood pressure and heart rate
c. It can increase blood flow to the left ventricle
d. It can decrease body temperature
b. It can reduce blood pressure and heart rate
A systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg is indicative of what? Select one: a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypertension c. Hyperglycemia d. Hypotension
b. Hypertension
Which assessment is best for testing neuromuscular control and strength of the core? Select one: a. Sorensen erector spinae test b. LESS test c. Double-leg lowering test d. Davies test
c. Double-leg lowering test
What is considered typical body composition for a female softball player? Select one: a. 25-35% body fat b. 21-25% body fat c. 15-21% body fat d. 11-15% body fat
b. 21-25% body fat
What is being assessed during the pull-up assessment? Select one: a. Muscular endurance b. Isometric strength c. Maximal strength d. Maximal power output
a. Muscular endurance
What muscles require corrective flexibility when an athlete arches his/her low back during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid b. Rectus abdominis, internal obliques c. Hip flexors, erector spinae d. Pectoralis major, pectoralis minor
c. Hip flexors, erector spinae
What assessment measures improper movement patterns during jump landing tasks? Select one: a. Double-leg lowering test b. Davies test c. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) d. Single-leg STAR excursion test
c. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS)
During the health history assessment, how much of an injury history is an athlete likely to recall? Select one: a. 25% b. 100% c. 5% d. 75%
c. 5%
An athlete with flat feet during the overhead squat is at great risk for which injury? Select one: a. ACL injury b. Plantar fasciitis c. Lateral tibial stress d. Jumper's knee
b. Plantar fasciitis
What is the sports performance professional assessing with the 1-mile run? Select one: a. Cardiorespiratory power b. Cardiorespiratory endurance c. Muscular power
b. Cardiorespiratory endurance
Which of the following has been found to influence knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Restricted dorsiflexion b. Increased knee flexion c. Limited plantar flexion d. Excessive hip extension
a. Restricted dorsiflexion
What is the appropriate height an athlete should squat to for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Depth does not matter b. Slightly bent knees c. As low as possible d. Height of a chair
d. Height of a chair
What condition might prevent an athlete from using the BodPod to assess body composition? Select one: a. Hypertension b. Heart disease c. Diabetes d. Claustrophobia
d. Claustrophobia
What do the results of the upper extremity strength assessment determine? Select one: a. Training tempo b. Training frequency c. Training intensity d. Training volume
c. Training intensity
What is the spring-like behavior of connective tissue that allows it to return to its original form when forces are removed? Select one: a. Viscoelasticity b. Degeneration c. Plasticity d. Elasticity
d. Elasticity
What type of connective tissue connects muscle to the bone? Select one: a. Ligaments b. Epithelial tissue c. Tendons d. Adipose tissue
c. Tendons
What two areas of the human body make up the central nervous system? Select one: a. Peripheral nerves and brain b. Brain and spinal cord c. Spinal cord and peripheral nerves d. Spinal nerves and cranial nerves
b. Brain and spinal cord
Neuromuscular stretching is also referred to as?
Select one:
a. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
b. Static
c. Neurophysiological stretch
d. Hold and release
a. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
What does the all-or-none principle state?
Select one:
a. Contracting one muscle makes all others contract
b. All phases of OPT must be completed before competing
c. Training must address all integrated components
d. When a muscle contracts, it contracts completely
d. When a muscle contracts, it contracts completely
What two areas of the human body make up the peripheral nervous system? Select one: a. Spinal cord and brain b. Cranial nerves and spinal nerves c. Brain and cranial nerves d. Neurons and spinal cord
b. Cranial nerves and spinal nerves
What is the functional unit of the muscle formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin? Select one: a. Sarcolemma b. Nucleus c. Sarcomere d. Mitochondria
c. Sarcomere
The muscle fascia surrounding a joint account for what percentage of joint stiffness? Select one: a. 61% b. 1% c. 41% d. 21%
c. 41%
What change in muscle tissue do muscle spindle fibers monitor? Select one: a. Temperature b. Length c. Pain d. Tension
b. Length
Endomysium is a layer of tissue located in which part of the muscle? Select one: a. Medial b. Outermost c. Innermost d. Superficial
c. Innermost
What is a permanent change in connective tissue length due to elongation? Select one: a. Viscoelasticity b. Plasticity c. Elasticity d. All-or-none principle
b. Plasticity
What is the functional unit of muscle? Select one: a. Sarcomere b. Fibers c. Myosin d. Myofibrils
a. Sarcomere
Which of the following is responsible for inhibitory action to the muscle spindles, which will allow adaptive changes to muscle spindle sensitivity at the new range of motion after holding the stretched position? Select one: a. Golgi tendon organ b. Myotatic stretch reflex c. Somatic nervous system d. All-or-none principle
a. Golgi tendon organ
What is the fluid-like property found in connective tissue? Select one: a. Lubrication b. Viscoelasticity c. Plasticity d. Elasticity
b. Viscoelasticity
The self-myofascial release focuses on what two systems of the human body? Select one: a. Muscular and skeletal b. Lyphatic and respiratory c. Nervous and cardiovascular d. Neural and fascial
d. Neural and fascial
The Karvonen method uses which of the following variables to calculate HRmax? Select one: a. VO2max b. Stroke volume c. Cardiac output d. Resting heart rate
d. Resting heart rate
Which training type can help reduce lactic acid formation? Select one: a. Sport-specific b. HIIT c. Prolonged sub-maximal d. Repeated sprint
c. Prolonged sub-maximal
Which bioenergetic pathway is activated at the onset of all activity, regardless of intensity, due to its ability to produce energy very rapidly in comparison to the other systems? Select one: a. Aerobic glycolysis b. Oxidative c. ATP-CP d. Anaerobic glycolysis
c. ATP-CP
What percentage of maximum heart rate is used for cardiorespiratory training in zone 2? Select one: a. 56-64% b. 76-85% c. 86-95% d. 65-75%
b. 76-85%
Which of the following is a typical resting cardiac output? Select one: a. 10 L/min b. 6 L/min c. 40 L/min d. 25 L/min
b. 6 L/min
Which of the following activities relies the most on the ATP-CP energy system? Select one: a. Distance running b. Basketball c. Football d. Soccer
c. Football
In a repeated sprint workout, rest periods should be characterized by which of the following? Select one: a. Complete recovery b. Resistance training c. Active rest d. Light jogging
a. Complete recovery
Which of the following is the regression formula used to estimate HRmax? Select one: a. 220 - (0.7 x age) b. 208 - age c. 220 - age d. 208 - (0.7 x age)
d. 208 - (0.7 x age)
What Heart Rate Training Zone is used for interval training only? Select one: a. Zone 4 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 1
c. Zone 3
By which of the following factors can heart rate change when moving from rest to maximum effort? Select one: a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. 2
b. 3
Which form of training should be used to improve an athlete's metabolic base during the off-season? Select one: a. Steady-state b. HIIT c. Sport-specific d. Sprint training
a. Steady-state
Which of the following is the most efficient pathway of ATP production? Select one: a. Aerobic system b. Lactic acid system c. ATP reserve system d. ATP-CP system
a. Aerobic system
What are the waste products of aerobic ATP production? Select one: a. Water, CO2 b. Creatine phosphate, ADP c. Creatine phosphate, lactic acid d. Lactic acid, calcium
a. Water, CO2
Repeated sprints during Stage 3 training should only last up to how many seconds? Select one: a. 30 seconds b. 5 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 60 seconds
c. 10 seconds
Between which of the following ranges should a 25-year-old athlete exercising in Zone 1 keep her heart rate? Select one: a. 179-185 BPM b. 127-146 BPM c. 168-177 BPM d. 156-166 BPM
b. 127-146 BPM
Which of the following muscles is co-contracted when an athlete performs the drawing-in maneuver? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Internal oblique c. Quadratus lumborum d. External oblique
a. Multifidus
What is the appropriate amount of repetitions for a ball cobra? Select one: a. 8 to 12 b. 10 to 15 c. 8 to 10 d. 12 to 20
d. 12 to 20
Several studies have concluded that individuals with low back pain suffer from weakness of which of the following extensor muscles? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. External obliques c. Psoas major d. Internal obliques
a. Erector spinae
What is the term used to describe LPHC stability comprised of local or intersegmental stability, global stability, and global mobility? Select one: a. Core power b. Core stability c. Core function d. Core strength
b. Core stability
Which exercise is considered a core stabilization exercise? Select one: a. Ball crunch b. Prone iso-abs c. Reverse crunch d. Cable lift
b. Prone iso-abs
What is the appropriate progression when an individual has mastered a kneeling core exercise? Select one: a. Prone b. Staggered-stance c. Standing d. Half-kneeling
d. Half-kneeling
Which of the following must be achieved first in an individual's core training program? Select one: a. Functional efficiency b. Lumbo-pelvic stability c. Movement efficiency d. Intervertebral stability
d. Intervertebral stability
When the drawing-in maneuver is performed, which of the following has been activated? Select one: a. Anterior oblique subsystem b. Global stabilization system c. Deep longitudinal subsystem d. Local stabilization system
d. Local stabilization system
What is the appropriate tempo for core exercises performed in the Power Level of training? Select one: a. Explosive b. Slow c. Controlled d. Moderate
a. Explosive
Which of the following is an example of a core-power exercise? Select one: a. Floor bridge with marching b. Reverse crunch with rotation c. Cable chop d. Side oblique throw
d. Side oblique throw
After an athlete has established appropriate amounts of neuromuscular control of his core, to which level can he can progress? Select one: a. Function b. Strength c. Stabilization d. Power
b. Strength
Which of the following are the core muscles that attach directly to the vertebrae? Select one: a. Global core stabilizers b. Global movement stabilizers c. Movement system stabilizers d. Local core stabilizers
d. Local core stabilizers
Once an individual has mastered the Superman exercise, what is the appropriate progression? Select one: a. Ball cobra b. Floor cobra c. Prone opposite arm and leg raise d. Quadruped leg raise
a. Ball cobra
The transverse abdominous, internal obliques, multifidus, pelvic floor musculature, and diaphragm are muscles classified as which of the following? Select one: a. Global core stabilizers b. Movement system stabilizers c. Local core stabilizers d. Global movement stabilizers
c. Local core stabilizers
Individuals with low back pain often have a strength deficit in which of the following muscles? Select one: a. Gastrocnemius b. Rectus femoris c. Tensor fascia latae d. Gluteus maximus
d. Gluteus maximus
In regard to progressing an exercise proprioceptively, what is the most important element to consider? Select one: a. The athlete's equipment b. The athlete's goals c. The athlete's sport d. The athlete's ability level
d. The athlete’s ability level
What does balance-strength training improve that balance-stabilization training does not?
Select one:
a. Maximal single-leg strength
b. Dynamic control in the mid-range of motion
c. Jumping and landing technique
d. Lower extremity rate-of-force production
b. Dynamic control in the mid-range of motion
A volleyball player who is new to training and wants to improve joint stability would start with which kind of exercises? Select one: a. Balance-stabilization b. Balance-power c. Balance-strength d. Balance-hypertrophy
a. Balance-stabilization
What compensation occurs when prime movers are weak? Select one: a. Joint receptor imbalance b. Autogenic inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance
d. Synergistic dominance
What is the appropriate timing for an athlete performing the single-leg lift and chop? Select one: a. 2/2/1 b. 3/2/1 c. 1/1/1 d. 4/2/1
d. 4/2/1
If an athlete fails to correctly perform a step-up to balance, which is the best regression option to use? Select one: a. Single-leg squat on foam pad b. Single-leg balance reach on foam pad c. Single-leg squat to overhead press d. Transverse plane single-leg hop
b. Single-leg balance reach on foam pad
What is the name for the conscious awareness of joint movement and joint position that results from proprioceptive input sent to the central nervous system? Select one: a. Transitional stabilization b. Proprioception c. Limits of stability d. Kinesthesia
d. Kinesthesia
What must be maintained for the central nervous system to allow maximum recruitment of the prime movers?
Select one:
a. Dynamic joint stabilization and postural control
b. Reciprocal inhibition and synergistic dominance
c. Maximal strength and speed-strength
d. Arthrokinematic inhibition and length-tension relationships
a. Dynamic joint stabilization and postural control
Reducing non-impact lower limb injury for soccer players would most likely be improved by having an athlete perform which exercise? Select one: a. Barbell squat b. Crunch c. Single-leg lateral hop d. Leg extension
c. Single-leg lateral hop
What negative adaptation is created when progressing balance training too quickly? Select one: a. Increased proprioception b. Neuromuscular efficiency c. Synergistic dominance d. Hypertrophy
c. Synergistic dominance
Through which of the following is kinesthesia largely mediated? Select one: a. Muscle spindles b. The range of mechanoreceptors c. Golgi tendon organs d. Proprioception
b. The range of mechanoreceptors
Once an athlete can easily perform a single-leg throw and catch, which exercise would you use after progressing him to the next phase of OPT? Select one: a. Single-leg Romanian deadlift b. Step-up to balance c. Single-leg squat d. Single-leg hop
c. Single-leg squat
Which of the following is a mechanoreceptor? Select one: a. Carotid afferent b. Vagus afferent c. Golgi afferent d. Gustation afferent
c. Golgi afferent
At which point are Golgi afferents most mechanically sensitive to tensile loads? Select one: a. Mid-range of motion b. Passive range of motion c. End range of motion d. Full range of motion
c. End range of motion
What do nociceptors sense? Select one: a. Weight of load b. Mechanical deformation. c. Movement direction d. Muscle compression
b. Mechanical deformation
A load is first applied during which phase of a plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Stabilization d. Amortization
a. Eccentric
The ability of muscles to exert maximal force in a minimal amount of time refers to which of the following? Select one: a. High-intensity b. Hypertrophy training c. Plyometric-stabilization d. Rate of force production
d. Rate of force production
Which exercise is considered a plyometric stabilization exercise?
Select one:
a. Two-leg proprioceptive plyometric progression: front to back
b. Repeat squat jumps
c. Box jump-up with stabilization: transverse plane
d. Repeat lunge jumps
c. Box jump-up with stabilization: transverse plane
Prior to progressing to plyometric training, an athlete will need proficient levels of which of the following? Select one: a. Quickness b. Core strength c. Metabolic efficiency d. Upper-body power
b. Core strength
Which exercise is considered a plyometric-strength exercise?
Select one:
a. Depth jump to squat jump
b. Repeat box jumps.
c. Box jump-down with stabilization: sagittal plane.
d. Frontal plane jump with stabilization
b. Repeat box jumps
Which of the following is the recommended number of plyometric-strength exercises for a workout? Select one: a. 0-2 b. 0-3 c. 0-6 d. 0-4
d. 0-4
What total volume is appropriate for low-intensity plyometric training? Select one: a. 300 foot contacts b. 400 foot contacts c. 200 foot contacts d. 350 foot contacts
b. 400 foot contacts
Plyometric training is defined as which of the following?
Select one:
a. A quick movement involving concentric contraction immediately followed by eccentric contraction
b. A dynamic, powerful movement involving concentric contraction followed by eccentric contraction
c. A dynamic, explosive movement involving concentric contraction followed immediately by eccentric contraction.
d. A quick, powerful movement involving eccentric contraction followed immediately by concentric contraction
d. A quick, powerful movement involving eccentric contraction followed immediately by concentric contraction
Which of the following is true about plyometric training? Select one: a. Decreases motor unit recruitment b. Increases rate of force production. c. Maintains motor unit recruitment d. Decreases rate of force production
b. Increases rate of force production.
During the amortization phase of a plyometric exercise, which movement pattern will achieve the most powerful response?
Select one:
a. A rapid switch from an eccentric contraction to a concentric contraction.
b. A slow switch from an eccentric contraction to a concentric contraction
c. An intermittent switch from an eccentric contraction to a concentric contraction
d. None of the above
a. A rapid switch from an eccentric contraction to a concentric contraction.
For which two phases of the OPT model may plyometric exercise not be necessary due to specific adaptation goals? Select one: a. 1 and 2 b. 4 and 6 c. 3 and 4 d. 2 and 5
c. 3 and 4
Plyometric training can occur in which phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. 2,3,4,5,6 b. 5,6 c. 1,2,3,4,5,6 d. 2,3,4
c. 1,2,3,4,5,6
What is the correct order of the three phases of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Eccentric, amortization, concentric. b. Amortization, eccentric, concentric c. Concentric, eccentric amortization d. Eccentric, concentric, amortization
a. Eccentric, amortization, concentric.
Which of the following is the recommended number of exercises for the plyometric stabilization phase of training? Select one: a. 0-2 b. 0-4 c. 0-3 d. 0-6
a. 0-2
Plyometric training involves which of the following muscle actions during the loading and unloading phases? Select one: a. Isometric/eccentric b. Isometric/concentric c. Eccentric/isometric d. Eccentric/concentric
d. Eccentric/concentric
Which of the following drills improves agility/MDS? Select one: a. Cycling B-skips b. T-drill c. Line-stop linear d. A-skips
b. T-drill
Which sport would benefit from 30-yard sprints with a jog recovery as part of a training plan? Select one: a. MMA b. Tennis c. Volleyball d. Soccer
d. Soccer
Which movement of the hip is an important component of a speed program? Select one: a. External rotation b. Abduction c. Adduction d. Extension
d. Extension
Which component of quickness training should be added to the speed of movement before beginning game-specific applications? Select one: a. General coordination. b. Game experience c. Linear movements d. Reactionary demands
d. Reactionary demands
At which part of the stride cycle is the foot first in contact with the ground? Select one: a. Supination phase b. Drive phase. c. Support phase. d. Recovery phase
b. Drive phase.
Which technique should be applied for improving multi-directional speed? Select one: a. Push-up sprints b. Lateral A-skips c. Resisted sprints d. Turn and grab card drills
b. Lateral A-skips
Which of the following is correct regarding SAQ programming?
Select one:
a. SAQ drills should be excluded from programing in Phase 4
b. SAQ drills should be performed before resistance training
c. SAQ technique drills increase in number as the athlete becomes more efficient.
d. SAQ drills duration should be at least 30 minutes of the workout
b. SAQ drills should be performed before resistance training
Sled pushes and uphill running are all examples of which type of SAQ training? Select one: a. Over-speed drills. b. Resisted speed drills. c. Maximal power drills. d. Assisted speed drills.
b. Resisted speed drills.
Turning SAQ drills into endurance training will result in which type of performance? Select one: a. Fast, continuous. b. Slow, explosive. c. Slow, continuous. d. Fast, explosive.
c. Slow, continuous.
Which of the following is a key component of agility/MDS training? Select one: a. Power and total response time b. Recognition and reaction. c. Joint mobility and flexibility d. Muscle and joint elasticity
b. Recognition and reaction.
Which SAQ drill is appropriate in the early phases of athletic development? Select one: a. Over-speed b. Skipping. c. Resisted speed d. Reactionary
b. Skipping.
Which alteration to the force-velocity curve is the goal of a speed training program? Select one: a. Move up & left b. Move down & left c. Move up & right d. Move down & right
c. Move up & right
Which range of SAQ exercises is recommended for Phase 3 of the OPT model? Select one: a. 5-7 speed of movement drills. b. 4-6 technique drills c. 1-2 technique drills d. 8-10 speed of movement drills
a. 5-7 speed of movement drills.
Which exercise is designed to improve acceleration? Select one: a. 1/3/5 wall drill b. Marches c. A-skips d. Push-up sprint
d. Push-up sprint
As strength levels improve from a resistance program, which type of training can improve the rate of force production in SAQ? Select one: a. Resisted b. Plyometric c. Quickness d. Over-speed
b. Plyometric
What resistance training system consists of a series of exercises that an athlete performs one after the other with little to no rest? Select one: a. Interval training b. Maximal strength training c. Olympic lifting d. Circuit training
d. Circuit training
An athlete performing a single-leg squat touchdown is most likely training for which of the following? Select one: a. Hypertrophy b. Maximal strength c. Stabilization. d. Power
c. Stabilization.
Which of the following is a protective process that could be considered an alarm reaction?
Select one:
a. An ability of the body to gain strength during DOMS as you replicate the exercises that caused the soreness
b. An ability to replicate the soreness-inducing exercises that contributed to the soreness
c. A limited ability to replicate the soreness-inducing exercises that contributed to the soreness.
d. A decrease of the neural recruitment to the muscles
c. A limited ability to replicate the soreness-inducing exercises that contributed to the soreness.
The weight and movements required of the body refer to which type of specificity? Select one: a. Metabolic specificity b. Mechanical specificity. c. Principle of specificity d. Neuromuscular specificity
b. Mechanical specificity.
Which of the following exercises is adequate for an athlete in the Power Phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Single-leg overhead press progression b. Supine barbell extension c. Standing barbell curl d. Lunge jumps
d. Lunge jumps
An athlete is producing energy primarily through anaerobic pathways during his workout. What type of training is he most likely performing? Select one: a. Endurance b. Powerlifting c. Steady-state metabolic d. Circuit
b. Powerlifting
What do connective tissues (i.e. ligaments and tendons) lack that cause them to adapt slower than muscles? Select one: a. Blood supply. b. Collagen c. Mechanoreceptors d. Elastin
a. Blood supply.
An athlete needs to gain 10 pounds to be more competitive next season. What type of resistance training would you have him perform to optimally accomplish that goal? Select one: a. Hypertrophy. b. Power c. Stabilization d. Maximal strength
a. Hypertrophy.
What muscle fiber type is resistant to fatigue and best for long-term contractions and postural control? Select one: a. Type IIa b. Type IIx c. Type I d. Type IIb
c. Type I
Type I motor units could best be described by which of the following in comparison to type II motor units?
Select one:
a. Type I motor units are faster than type II.
b. Type I motor units are recruited first.
c. Type I motor units are recruited after type II.
d. Type I motor units are larger than type II.
b. Type I motor units are recruited first.
Which training system is being used when an athlete performs a bench press immediately followed by a medicine ball chest pass? Select one: a. Superset. b. Split-routine c. Vertical loading d. Pyramid
a. Superset.
Great care should be taken to avoid which of the following responses to high-intensity resistance training? Select one: a. Muscular endurance b. Stabilization c. Exhaustion. d. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
Which of the following refers to the energy route required for a specific activity? Select one: a. Mechanical specificity b. Metabolic specificity. c. Neuromuscular specificity d. Principle of specificity
b. Metabolic specificity.
Which of the following best describes the General Adaptation Syndrome?
Select one:
a. During the resistance development stage, the body decreases its functional capacity to adapt to stressors
b. The body will not adapt in the anaerobic pathways
c. The body will adapt best without overload
d. The body adapts to the stresses placed upon it
d. The body adapts to the stresses placed upon it
What type of exercise is the seated dumbbell curl? Select one: a. Biceps-strength b. Biceps-power c. Biceps-endurance d. Biceps-stabilization
a. Biceps-strength
Which of the following represents correct posture when getting set for the snatch?
Select one:
a. Feet hip-width apart and slightly turned out
b. Hips lowered by squatting so the shins avoid touching the bar.
c. The cervical spine in a flexed position
d. Shoulders slightly ahead of the vertical plane of the bar
d. Shoulders slightly ahead of the vertical plane of the bar
Why are the power snatch and power clean lifts more widely accepted than the Olympic competition snatch and the clean and jerk lifts?
Select one:
a. Many athletes lack the necessary flexibility needed for the deep catch position
b. The power clean and power snatch develop higher levels of stability, strength, and power
c. Many athletes prefer the deep position necessary of the power snatch and power clean
d. The power snatch and power clean develop higher levels of functional movement and neuromuscular efficiency
a. Many athletes lack the necessary flexibility needed for the deep catch position
Which findings resulted from a 12-week study of the use of Olympic weightlifting among children 10 - 12 years of age?
Select one:
a. Children saw better results with traditional resistance training than with Olympic weightlifting.
b. Children saw better results with traditional resistance training and plyometric training and significantly higher injury rates with Olympic weightlifting.
c. Children saw similar results with Olympic weightlifting compared with traditional resistance and plyometric training.
d. Children saw better results with plyometric training, but similar results with traditional resistance training.
c. Children saw similar results with Olympic weightlifting compared with traditional resistance and plyometric training.
During which phase of the clean and jerk exercise does the barbell elevate from the knees to an area between the upper thigh and the pubic bone? Select one: a. Shift b. First pull. c. Top pull d. Amortization and catch
a. Shift
When is the rate of force development measured? Select one: a. During a concentric contraction. b. During an eccentric contraction c. During an isometric contraction d. During an isokinetic contraction
c. During an isometric contraction
Which of the following is the best way to measure the explosive power of the lower body? Select one: a. Box jump. b. Deadlift c. Vertical jump d. Power clean
c. Vertical jump
What characterizes the deep catch position?
Select one:
a. Maximal ankle plantar flexion
b. Maximum flexion of the ankles, knees, and hips.
c. Catching the bar in a half squat
d. Touching the glutes to the floor
b. Maximum flexion of the ankles, knees, and hips.
Which of the following has been shown to be correlated with playing ability in football? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. 1 rep max c. Pull-up performance d. Vertical jump
d. Vertical jump
Which of the following describes a ready response to a stimulus? Select one: a. Maximum strength b. Power endurance c. Maximum flexibility d. Reactive strength
d. Reactive strength
Which step in the performance of the clean and jerk requires a powerful extension of the hips, knees, and ankles to forcibly eject the bar off the upper thigh into a rapid ascent? Select one: a. Catch b. First pull c. Amortization. d. Top pull
d. Top pull
Which of the following is considered a prerequisite for an athlete to safely and correctly perform Olympic lifts? Select one: a. 90-degrees knee flexion b. Advanced balance skills c. Maximum hip extensor strength d. Maximum ankle dorsiflexion
d. Maximum ankle dorsiflexion
Which is true about proper lifting posture?
Select one:
a. Proper lifting posture should be trained using blocks, moderate load, and low repetitions until the neuromuscular system can reproduce proper positions.
b. Proper lifting posture must be trained with high repetitions and low load until the neuromuscular system can reproduce proper positions.
c. Proper lifting posture should be trained with moderate load and high repetitions until the neuromuscular system can reproduce proper positions.
d. Proper lifting posture must be trained using blocks, high load, and low repetitions to give the neuromuscular system time to reproduce proper positions.
b. Proper lifting posture must be trained with high repetitions and low load until the neuromuscular system can reproduce proper positions.
Which movement of the snatch exercise occurs when the knees extend and the barbell is lifted from the floor to knee height? Select one: a. Top pull. b. Shift c. Amortization and catch d. First pull
d. First pull
When performing the snatch, which step places the lifter in a squat position with arms extended overhead? Select one: a. Shift b. First pull c. Top pull d. Catch
d. Catch
During the clean and jerk, what is the appropriate stance right before doing the dip?
Select one:
a. Feet hip-width apart and toes pointed slightly outward
b. Feet hip-width apart and toes pointed straight
c. Feet hip-width apart, weight in the balls of feet, and toes pointed slightly outward
d. Feet slightly wider than hips and feet pointed slightly outward
d. Feet slightly wider than hips and feet pointed slightly outward
For a beginner athlete, which of the following could occur if the individual is asked to perform at a high-intensity level after a prolonged recovery period? Select one: a. Improved performance b. Improved power output c. Increased risk of injury. d. Body fat reduction
c. Increased risk of injury.
According to the volume continuum, a range of 12-20 total repetitions per exercise is appropriate for which level of training? Select one: a. Power b. Strength c. Hypertrophy d. Stabilization
a. Power
What are the appropriate flexibility techniques used in the warm-up of Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program? Select one: a. SMR and functional b. SMR and active-isolated c. SMR and dynamic d. SMR and static
d. SMR and static
What two primary factors are increased for an athlete progressing from Phase 2 to Phase 3 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Intensity and volume b. Sets and reps c. Frequency and rest period. d. Tempo and duration
a. Intensity and volume
What is an appropriate stretching exercise that addresses a low back arch in an athlete who is training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance? Select one: a. Active 90/90 hamstring stretch b. Active kneeling hip flexor stretch. c. Active supine biceps femoris stretch d. Active pectoral stretch
b. Active kneeling hip flexor stretch.
Which phase of training is also known as an anatomical adaptation? Select one: a. Stabilization. b. Strength endurance c. Maximal strength d. Hypertrophy
a. Stabilization.
What is the term for the number of training sessions performed over a specified period of time? Select one: a. Training intensity b. Training volume c. Training frequency. d. Training duration
c. Training frequency.
Which of the following best describes corrective exercise used with athletes?
Select one:
a. Helping an athlete increase his endurance
b. Fixing sport-specific technique before a game
c. Helping reduce the risk of injury before power training
d. Fixing muscle imbalances at the end of a season
d. Fixing muscle imbalances at the end of a season
You recommend that your athlete perform 0-3 plyometric-strength exercises during her workout. What phase of strength training is she currently in? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Strength Endurance c. Maximal Strength. d. Hypertrophy
c. Maximal Strength.
Which acute variables BEST elicit the adaptation of stabilization endurance?
Select one:
a. 1-5 repetitions, 4-6 sets, 85-100% of one-rep max (1RM)
b. 6-12 repetitions, 3-5 sets, 75-85% of one rep max (1RM)
c. 1-10 repetitions, 3-6 sets, 30-45% of one rep max (1RM)
d. 12-20 repetitions, 1-3 sets, 50-70% of one rep max (1RM)
d. 12-20 repetitions, 1-3 sets, 50-70% of one rep max (1RM)
What is the name for the form of training designed to correct muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, neuromuscular deficiencies, and postural distortion patterns the athlete may have developed during the season? Select one: a. Performance enhancement b. Strength endurance c. Dynamic flexibility d. Corrective exercise
d. Corrective exercise
Following the exercise progression continuum, which is appropriate for the lower body?
Select one:
a. Staggered-stance stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg stable
b. Two-leg stable, staggered-stance stable, single-leg stable.
c. Two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, staggered-stance stable.
d. Single-leg unstable, staggered-stance unstable, two-leg unstable
b. Two-leg stable, staggered-stance stable, single-leg stable.
At what point in his training plan would an athlete spend a period of time performing corrective exercise training? Select one: a. Off-season b. Pre-season c. In-season d. Post-season
d. Post-season
What type of relationship exists between sets, repetitions, and intensity? Select one: a. Inverse. b. Direct c. Proportional d. Indirect
a. Inverse.
What tempo is used for the strength exercise of Phase 2 supersets? Select one: a. X/X/X b. 2/0/2 c. 4/2/1 d. 1/1/1
b. 2/0/2
Which of the following is a risk factor for abnormal tracking of the patella?
Select one:
a. Decreased strength in the hip musculature
b. Abduction of the femur relative to the hip
c. Maximum of 135 degrees of knee flexion
d. A small Q angle
a. Decreased strength in the hip musculature
According to the Centers for Disease Control, which type of sports injury is becoming an epidemic? Select one: a. PFP syndrome b. Concussion c. Ankle sprain d. Shoulder impingement
b. Concussion
What percentage of ACL injuries are non-contact in nature, occurring during rapid deceleration? Select one: a. 20-30% b. 10-15% c. 40-55% d. 70-75%
d. 70-75%
Which of the following is recommended programming for the prevention of ACL injuries?
Select one:
a. Proprioception-balance and plyometric-agility training.
b. Surgical intervention to correct misaligned joints
c. Muscular endurance training in the upper and lower leg areas
d. Strength training, especially for the quadriceps and hamstrings
a. Proprioception-balance and plyometric-agility training.
What is the most common risk factor for a lateral ankle sprain? Select one: a. Stretching before activity b. Having a previous ankle sprain. c. Ankle joint laxity d. Limb dominance
b. Having a previous ankle sprain.
Which of the following is a requirement for an injured athlete to complete her rehabilitation protocol? Select one: a. Close to pre-injury strength levels b. Little to no swelling remaining c. Pain-free movement. d. At least 90% joint ROM
c. Pain-free movement.
A client reports feeling pain in her heel that gets worse when she gets out of bed in the morning. Which condition is most likely affecting this client? Select one: a. Achilles tendonitis. b. Lateral ankle sprain c. Metatarsal stress fracture. d. Plantar fasciitis
d. Plantar fasciitis
Which of the following muscle weaknesses are a known contributor to low back pain?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi and external obliques
b. Transverse abdominus and multifidus
c. Erector spinae and iliocostals
d. Rectus abdominus and quadratus lumborum
b. Transverse abdominus and multifidus
What is the frequency of ankle injuries per season in high school sports? Select one: a. 1 injury per 26 athletes b. 1 injury per 29 athletes c. 1 injury per 8 athletes d. 1 injury per 17 athletes
d. 1 injury per 17 athletes
Which of the following is a recommended beginning treatment plan for patellofemoral pain syndrome?
Select one:
a. Lengthening the quadriceps and calves in non-weight-bearing positions.
b. Strengthening the hips and quadriceps with multi-joint weight-bearing exercises
c. Refer the patient to an orthopedic doctor for surgery
d. Performing plyometric-agility exercises such as jumping and hop-to-stabilization
b. Strengthening the hips and quadriceps with multi-joint weight-bearing exercises
Which of the following is a risk factor for shoulder pain?
Select one:
a. Degenerative changes in the spine
b. Repetitive overhead movements.
c. Neck extension and rounded shoulder posture.
d. Excessive soft tissue mobilization of the shoulder complex
b. Repetitive overhead movements.
What percentage of people diagnosed with PFP reported continued knee pain up to 18 years from the original presentation of symptoms? Select one: a. 19% b. 63% c. 91% d. 36%
c. 91%
Which of the following is an ideal transition from a warm-up to an activity phase?
Select one:
a. 10-15 minute rest period when the body is allowed to cool slightly
b. 5-10 minute rest period without cooling the body
c. 15-20 minute rest period without cooling the body
d. 1-2 minute rest period without cooling the body
b. 5-10 minute rest period without cooling the body
Which of the following exercises is ideal for preventing further shoulder injury in a tennis player with a history of rotator cuff injury? Select one: a. Weighted overhead carry. b. Squat to row c. Pull-ups d. Bench press
b. Squat to row
Which of the following is a thick, fibrous band of tissue that runs from the calcaneus and fans out to insert on the metatarsal heads of the foot? Select one: a. Peroneus longus b. Achilles tendon c. Plantar fascia d. Anterior talofibular ligament
c. Plantar fascia
To reduce post-exercise soreness, it is best to consume which nutrient? Select one: a. Fatty acids b. Branch chain amino acids. c. Fiber d. Carbohydrates
b. Branch chain amino acids
For supercompensation to happen, athletes should progress to a higher carbohydrate diet for how many days before competition? Select one: a. 3 days b. 2 days c. 4 days d. 6 days
a. 3 days
Which of the following is appropriate for sports performance professionals to discuss with athletes? Select one: a. Nutritional assessments b. Individual dietary advice c. USDA MyPlate d. Specific meal plans
c. USDA MyPlate
Greater disturbance in which of the following functions can result when an athlete competes in a carbohydrate-depleted state? Select one: a. Cardiac function b. Immune function c. Digestive function d. Cognitive function
b. Immune function
At what percent of dehydration will aerobic exercise performance decrease? Select one: a. 4% b. 2% c. 3% d. 5%
b. 2%
The ability to calculate, counsel, or prescribe individualized nutrition or weight management plan is best referred to which professional? Select one: a. Athletic trainer b. Sports performance professional c. Registered dietitian. d. Personal trainer
c. Registered dietitian.
To maximize recovery, athletes should consume which ratio of carbohydrates to protein 30-45 minutes after exercise? Select one: a. 4:1 b. 6:1 c. 3:2 d. 5:2
a. 4:1
For which time frame might athletes require a higher protein intake due to accelerated hypertrophy rates? Select one: a. The first 0-3 months of training. b. Months 6-9 into training c. The entire off-season d. The first 3-6 months of training
d. The first 3-6 months of training
How many grams of carbohydrates should athletes consume for optimal performance? Select one: a. 6-10g/kg/day b. 4-5g/kg/day c. 8-12g/kd/day d. 15-20g/kg/day
a. 6-10g/kg/day
Consuming which antioxidant nutrient may help reduce muscle soreness and damage caused by exercise-associated oxidative stress? Select one: a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin C
Which time frame requires refueling to prevent liver glycogen depletion? Select one: a. 18 hours b. 15 hours c. 12 hours d. 24 hours
b. 15 hours
What is the term used when calories expended exceed calories ingested? Select one: a. Hypernatremia b. Gluconeogenesis c. Positive energy balance. d. Negative energy balance
d. Negative energy balance
The production of hormones and absorption of many vitamins are two important roles of which nutrient? Select one: a. Calcium b. Protein c. Glucose d. Fat
d. Fat
During which time frame of endurance exercise does fat oxidation become stimulated? Select one: a. After 15-20 minutes. b. After 25-30 minutes c. After 30-45 minutes d. After 10-12 minutes
a. After 15-20 minutes.
Which of the following is defined as a fatty acid that has one double bond? Select one: a. Polyunsaturated b. Hydrogenated c. Monounsaturated d. Saturated
c. Monounsaturated
Which of the following supplements could be ergolytic for a high-intensity sprinter? Select one: a. Creatine b. BCAA's c. Carb loading d. Caffeine
c. Carb loading
Although excessive intake can damage health, for which of the following is moderate supplementation shown to be safe for all adults? Select one: a. Ephedrine b. Nitric oxide boosters c. Multivitamins. d. HMB
c. Multivitamins.
What is the first place a trainer or coach should go to determine whether or not a supplement is banned by the sport an athlete plays? Select one: a. World Anti-Doping Agency. b. NCAA c. Fitness magazines d. FDA
a. World Anti-Doping Agency
What can excessive intake of vitamin A lead to?
Select one:
a. Reduced bone mineral density and decreased fracture risk
b. Increased bone mineral density and increased fracture risk
c. Increased bone mineral density and decreased fracture risk
d. Reduced bone mineral density and increased fracture risk
d. Reduced bone mineral density and increased fracture risk
Increased occurrences of acne, body hair growth, and appetite are all side effects of what type of ergogenic aid? Select one: a. Stimulants b. Androgenic-anabolic steroids. c. Creatine d. HMB
b. Androgenic-anabolic steroids.
2 hours before a competition, an athlete asks which ergonomic aid will have an immediate positive effect on her performance. Which would you suggest? Select one: a. Creatine b. HMB c. DHEA d. Caffeine
d. Caffeine
A client shared with you that he is on antidepressant medication and would like to start using an ergogenic supplement. What should you recommend he do first? Select one: a. Contact a registered dietician b. Contact friends and family c. Contact the fitness manager d. Contact his primary care physician
d. Contact his primary care physician
What is the purpose of blood doping? Select one: a. Increase blood hormone levels b. Increase insulin concentrations c. Increase VO2max d. Increase blood sugar
c. Increase VO2max
As a high school strength coach, you are asked which supplement(s) are safe for the players to use during the season. Which of the following would you recommend?
Select one:
a. Carbohydrate gels and electrolyte drinks
b. Energy drinks and water
c. Nitric oxide boosters and protein powders
d. Creatine and caffeine
a. Carbohydrate gels and electrolyte drinks
Which substance can affect mental and physiological functions shortly after ingestion? Select one: a. Carbohydrates b. Caffeine. c. Salt d. Water
b. Caffeine.
Which substance has been banned by all major sporting associations because it is a form of blood doping that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the body? Select one: a. HGH b. EPO c. ATP d. DHEA
b. EPO
Which substances are thought to reduce the breakdown of muscle tissue by protecting muscle protein and promoting the building and maintaining of muscle mass? Select one: a. Stimulants b. Anticatabolic substances. c. Androstenedione d. Tribulus Terrestris.
b. Anticatabolic substances.
What ergogenic aid increases the body's acid buffering capacity, allowing athletes to work at higher levels for longer? Select one: a. Creatine b. Beta-alanine c. Citrulline d. Arginine
b. Beta-alanine
For athletes using caffeine to enhance their performance, what is the recommended dose when ingested about 1 hour before exercise? Select one: a. 4 to 7 mg/kg b. 3 to 6 mg/kg c. 2 to 5 mg/kg d. 1 to 4 mg/kg
b. 3 to 6 mg/kg
For active girls and women, the Female Athlete Triad is of concern. Which of the following factors contribute to a disrupted menstrual cycle and bone loss?
Select one:
a. Low energy intake and low energy output
b. Low energy intake and low calcium intake
c. High energy intake and high energy output.
d. High energy intake and high calcium intake
b. Low energy intake and low calcium intake
Which of the following strategies essentially holds a mirror up to the athlete to reflect his or her progress compared to his or her goals? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Self-awareness c. Self-talk d. Self-efficacy
a. Self-monitoring
Which of the following is defined as maintaining awareness of relevant cues over a period of time and shifting focus when necessary? Select one: a. Relaxation response b. Somatic anxiety reduction c. Concentration d. Intrinsic motivation
c. Concentration
Which of the following is considered a relevant cue for a baseball player during a game?
Select one:
a. Wondering how many fans are in attendance
b. Knowing who is pitching.
c. Planning where to eat after the game.
d. Worrying whether his wife is watching on TV
b. Knowing who is pitching.
An athlete who is able to systematically overcome the physical and mental stressors placed on her demonstrates which of the following? Select one: a. Coping. b. Situational awareness c. Progressive relaxation d. Self-monitoring
a. Coping.
Which of the following is the critical variable for athletes interpreting their arousal as facilitative rather than debilitative? Select one: a. Sense of control. b. Teammate support c. Previous experience. d. Arousal intensity
a. Sense of control.
A quarterback's ability to know what down it is, what play to call, how many yards are needed, and what routes his receivers are running demonstrates which of the following? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Imagery c. Situational awareness. d. Limited channel capacity
c. Situational awareness.
A volleyball player who bounces the ball three times and spins it in her left hand before she serves demonstrates which performance-enhancing technique? Select one: a. Routines. b. Self-monitoring c. Imagery d. Self-talk
a. Routines.
Which of the following questions would be beneficial to ask a pitcher who is struggling to throw strikes?
Select one:
a. “What is going on with you today?”
b. “Where is your fastball from Tuesday’s game?”
c. “Are you focusing on your release point?”
d. “Is your dad here today?”
c. “Are you focusing on your release point?”
Which of the following argues that somatic-based techniques produce the best results for athletes with high levels of physiological anxiety?
Select one:
a. The matching hypothesis
b. Hanin’s individual zones of optimal functioning.
c. The interactional model of motivation
d. Positive self-monitoring
a. The matching hypothesis
Which of the following terms refers to the direction and intensity of one's efforts? Select one: a. Limited channel capacity b. Selective attention. c. Motivation d. Attentional focus
c. Motivation
A coach who encourages an athlete to believe in his or her own ability is using which of the following strategies? Select one: a. Training hard and smart b. Task focus c. Positive focus and orientation. d. Time management
c. Positive focus and orientation.
A coach may observe an athlete in low-pressure, mid-level, and high-pressure situations in practices and competitions to identify which of the following? Select one: a. Optimal arousal level. b. Task focus c. Progressive relaxation d. Extrinsic motivation
a. Optimal arousal level.
Which of the following techniques involves cycles of tensing and releasing specific muscles from one muscle group to another? Select one: a. The matching hypothesis b. Breath control c. Progressive relaxation. d. Cognitive relaxation response
c. Progressive relaxation.
Which of the following techniques produces the best response to cognitive anxiety? Select one: a. Relaxation response b. Progressive relaxation c. Breath control d. Somatic anxiety reduction.
a. Relaxation response
Which of the following terms explains WHY it is important for an athlete to eliminate inappropriate cues and pay attention to relevant cues to achieve optimal performance? Select one: a. Limited channel capacity b. Positive self-monitoring c. Attentional focus d. The matching hypothesis
a. Limited channel capacity
Which of the following exercises provides an example of a muscle's ability to use stored energy? Select one: a. Squat b. Lunge c. Deadlift d. Vertical jump
d. Vertical jump
According to NCAA Division 1 bylaw, which ergogenic aids can be provided to athletes by a university? Select one: a. Carbohydrate/electrolyte drinks b. Caffeine c. Anti-catabolic substances d. Nitric oxide boosters
a. Carbohydrate/electrolyte drinks
When bracing is performed, which of the following has been activated? Select one: a. Anterior oblique subsystem b. Global stabilization system c. Local stabilization system d. Lateral subsystem
b. Global stabilization system
Which of the following best describes an athlete training in a vertically loaded workout?
Select one:
a. Performing one set for each muscle group, moving from upper to lower body, then repeating
b. Low volume exercises characterized by one- to two-minute bouts with active recovery
c. Performing three sets of a chest exercise followed by three sets of a back exercise.
d. Exercising different major muscle groups on different days of the week
a. Performing one set for each muscle group, moving from upper to lower body, then repeating
Which predictable pattern best describes the adaptation to stress the body follows to maintain a state of physiological balance (or homeostasis)? Select one: a. Tolerable upper intake pattern b. General Adaptation Syndrome c. Peripheral heart action system d. A pattern of individualization
b. General Adaptation Syndrome
Which of the following is the recommended calcium intake for an amenorrheic athlete? Select one: a. 1,400 mg/day b. 1,600 mg/day c. 1,500 mg/day d. 1,700 mg/day
c. 1,500 mg/day
Which specialized strength exercise for speed improves hip flexion? Select one: a. Supine heel push b. Reverse calf raises c. Resisted knee drive d. Tube walking
c. Resisted knee drive
Single-leg front-to-back hops might be done by an athlete in which phase of OPT? Select one: a. 2 b. 5 c. 3 d. 1
b. 5
A team focused on winning and being better than others operates in which kind of environment? Select one: a. Relationship-oriented b. Outcome-oriented c. Emotion-focused d. Problem-focused
b. Outcome-oriented
The integrated performance paradigm states that in order to move with precision, forces must be loaded, stabilized, and unloaded in which order?
Select one:
a. Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded concentrically
b. Loaded concentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded eccentrically
c. Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isotonically, unloaded concentrically
d. Loaded concentrically, stabilized isotonically, unloaded eccentrically
a. Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded concentrically
Which of the following happens to improve soft-tissue extensibility during self-myofascial release? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Arthrokinetic dysfunction c. Autogenic inhibition d. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Autogenic inhibition
Which of the following ranges represents cardiac output during maximal exercise? Select one: a. 40-45 L/min b. 5-10 L/min c. 10-15 L/min d. 20-25 L/min
d. 20-25 L/min
If the squat jump exercise is performed with a 3-5 second hold upon landing, in which level of the OPT model does it belong? Select one: a. Power b. Strength c. Stabilization d. Functional
c. Stabilization
Which is the foundation from which a progressive sports performance training program is built? Select one: a. Flexibility training b. Core training c. Balance training d. Integrated training
b. Core training
Which coordinated muscle action does balance-stabilization training improve? Select one: a. Co-contraction b. Rapid acceleration c. Dynamic deceleration d. Reciprocal inhibition
a. Co-contraction
Which nutrient becomes the dominant fuel source when athletes train and compete at 65% or greater of their VO2max? Select one: a. Fat b. Fiber c. Carbohydrate d. Protein
c. Carbohydrate
Which of the following techniques is critical for maintaining stability in the sacroiliac joint? Select one: a. Single-leg balance b. SMR c. Drawing-in maneuver d. Bracing
c. Drawing-in maneuver
Training the muscle and tendon’s ability to load eccentrically and rapidly release energy concentrically is known as which of the following? Select one: a. stretch-shortening cycle b. Load-torque curve c. Force-velocity curve. d. Stride cycle
a. stretch-shortening cycle
What type of tissue develops in the body following an injury? Select one: a. Muscle b. Sensory c. Fascia d. Scar
d. Scar
Which of the following is a common postural compensation when performing a clean and jerk with the bar overhead? Select one: a. Reduced shoulder extension b. Reduced shoulder flexion c. Excessive lumbar flexion d. Excessive lumbar extension
d. Excessive lumbar extension
Which exercise can help decrease perturbation and help achieve neuromuscular control? Select one: a. Sled push b. Deadlift c. Squat on a wobble board d. Bench press
c. Squat on a wobble board
If a beginner athlete sprints 15 yards during week 1 of Phase 1 SAQ training, how many yards should he be running by week 4? Select one: a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 20
d. 20
Which antioxidants play a role in balancing the oxidative stress produced by free radicals during exercise? Select one: a. C, E, beta carotene, selenium b. C, D, E, resveratrol c. C, D, fish oil, selenium d. C, B complex, beta carotene, selenium
a. C, E, beta carotene, selenium
Symptoms such as stress fracture, muscle strain, joint and muscle pain, and emotional fatigue are largely due to which of the following? Select one: a. Periodization b. General Adaptation Syndrome c. Exhaustion d. The multiple-set system
c. Exhaustion
Which type of training is designed to enhance power and power endurance while allowing the metabolic systems ample time to recover between each repetition? Select one: a. Repeated sprint b. Half effort c. Steady-state. d. Maximal distance
a. Repeated sprint
Which of the following is an example of a core-strength exercise? Select one: a. Back extension b. Pullover throw c. Woodchop throw d. Quadruped arm raise
a. Back extension
If a coach removes cones from a W or box drill and replaces them with an auditory cue, which training is utilized? Select one: a. Agility b. Quickness c. Speed d. Stabilization
b. Quickness
When should light to moderate sport-specific metabolic training primarily occur? Select one: a. In-season b. Post-season c. Preseason d. Off-season
a. In-season
Which is the most commonly injured ligament in the ankle? Select one: a. Calcaneofibular b. Anterior talofibular c. Posterior talofibular d. Anterior cruciate
b. Anterior talofibular
Which muscular system is predominantly involved in joint support and stabilization, and is not movement specific? Select one: a. Global b. Deep longitudinal c. Anterior oblique d. Local
d. Local
What is the current upper intake limit for sodium for the average person as established by the Institute of Medicine? Select one: a. 3,000 mg/day b. 1,000 mg/day c. 1,600 mg/day d. 2,300 mg/day
d. 2,300 mg/day
What impact will taking an antidepressant have on an athlete's heart rate(HR)? Select one: a. HR goes down b. HR stays the same c. HR goes up d. HR becomes erratic
c. HR goes up
Which of the following is an input that the Human Movement System uses to establish balance? Select one: a. Visual b. Ampullary c. Olfactory d. Auditory
a. Visual
When using skinfold calipers to assess body composition, what is the increased risk of error with being as much as an inch from the appropriate site? Select one: a. 50% b. 75% c. 10% d. 25%
d. 25%
When training in Phase 4: Maximal Strength, how many times per week should an athlete participate in resistance training? Select one: a. 2 to 4 b. 5 to 7 c. 5 to 6 d. 3 to 7
a. 2 to 4
During the snatch, which of the following refers to the barbell being elevated from the knees to the area between mid-thigh and the pubic bone? Select one: a. First pull b. Top pull c. Catch d. Shift
d. Shift
For NON-vegetarian strength athletes, how many g/kg body weight are recommended for protein intake? Select one: a. 1.2 to 1.4 b. 1.3 to 1.5 c. 1.6 to 1.7 d. 1.4 to 2.0
c. 1.6 to 1.7
Which types of training are known to improve speed, agility, and quickness by allowing greater force in less time? Select one: a. Strength and power b. Flexibility and maximal power c. Cardiorespiratory and core d. Balance and resistance
a. Strength and power
Which of the following exercises is performed in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Squat to shoulder press c. Step-up to biceps curl d. Ball lift and chop
a. Ice skaters
What is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscle? Select one: a. Epimysium b. Endomysium c. Perimysium d. Perineurium
a. Epimysium
What type of stretching helps improve soft tissue extensibility by taking the muscle to the point of tension and holding it for 30 seconds? Select one: a. PNF b. Active c. Static d. Dynamic
c. Static
What principle states that when a muscle is stimulated to contract, it contracts completely? Select one: a. All-at-once b. Complete c. All-or-none d. Total contraction
c. All-or-none
Which integrated training variable utilizes tubing, cable machines, or dumbbells? Select one: a. Balance modality b. Body position c. Base of support d. External resistance
d. External resistance
Which type of feedback is used after the completion of an exercise to help inform the athlete about the outcome of what was just performed? Select one: a. Knowledge of performance b. Knowledge of repetition c. Knowledge of proprioception d. Knowledge of results
d. Knowledge of results
Which of the following is true regarding casein? Select one: a. 80% of the proteins in milk b. Highest BV of any protein c. A by-product of cheese making d. Considered a "fast" protein
a. 80% of the proteins in milk
The transverse abdominis is best activated by performing which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Prone iso-abs b. Floor crunch c. Pullover throw d. Reverse crunch
a. Prone iso-abs
The focus of a core training program must be on which of the following? Select one: a. Intensity b. Repetitions c. Function d. Strength
c. Function
A coach focused on initiating structure and accomplishing a set of objectives and goals is using which type of leadership style? Select one: a. Task-oriented b. Problem-focused c. Emotion-focused d. Relationship-oriented
a. Task-oriented
Which of the following describes the motivational climate that has been proven to produce more adaptive motivational patterns, including positive attitudes and effective learning strategies? Select one: a. Outcome-oriented b. Problem-oriented c. Solution-oriented d. Mastery-oriented
d. Mastery-oriented
Which of the following is considered a balance modality? Select one: a. Bench b. Stability ball c. Sport beam d. Wall
c. Sport beam
What type of training incorporates skills and movements that mimic what happens in competition? Select one: a. Integrated b. Functional c. Sport-specific d. Resistance
c. Sport-specific
Plyometric strength exercises are designed to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Improve reactive joint stabilization
b. Improve dynamic joint stabilization
c. Improve reactive strength
d. Improve dynamic neuromuscular efficiency
b. Improve dynamic joint stabilization
Which of the following refers to the training used to provide optimal dynamic joint support and maintain correct posture during all movements? Select one: a. Power b. Strength c. Endurance d. Stabilization
d. Stabilization
Which of the following injuries often goes unrecognized and unreported? Select one: a. Shoulder impingement b. Concussion c. Ankle sprain d. PFP syndrome
b. Concussion
Which of the following must be taken over a period of weeks in conjunction with training to demonstrate an ergogenic effect? Select one: a. Amino acids b. Caffeine c. Citrulline d. Creatine
d. Creatine
What is the recommended protein intake for strength and power athletes? Select one: a. 1.2-1.4 g/kg/day b. 2.0-2.2 g/kg/day c. 0.8 g/kg/day d. 1.6-1.8 g/kg/day
d. 1.6-1.8 g/kg/day
Supplementation of which nutrient has been shown to reduce the incidence of post-marathon upper respiratory infection in runners? Select one: a. Cellulose b. Pectins c. Inulin d. Beta-glucans
d. Beta-glucans
What muscles are probably overactive when an athlete’s low back arches during an overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, biceps femoris (short head)
b. Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae
c. Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi
d. Gluteus maximus, hamstring, intrinsic core stabilizers
c. Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi
What is the primary fuel for anaerobic ATP production for activities lasting 45-120 seconds? Select one: a. Fatty acids b. Calcium c. Oxygen d. Muscle glycogen
d. Muscle glycogen
The quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external obliques, portions of the internal obliques, rectus abdominus, gluteus medius, and adductor complex are classified as which of the following? Select one: a. Global core stabilizers b. Local core stabilizers c. Global movement stabilizers d. Movement system stabilizers
a. Global core stabilizers
Which stage of cardio training should mark the gradual inclusion of repeated sprint training? Select one: a. Stage 3 b. Stage 1 c. Stage 4 d. Stage 2
a. Stage 3
How likely is an athlete with a hamstring strain at risk to experience re-injury?
Select one:
a. 6-8 times
b. 3-4 times
c. 1-2 times
d. The athlete is not at risk of re-injury
a. 6-8 times
Which of the following is correct when preparing for a back squat?
Select one:
a. Lifter faces away from the rack, takes a wide grip, places bar evenly across the top of the scapula
b. Lifter faces away from the rack, takes a shoulder-width grip, places the bar on shoulders, and takes 3 skater steps forward
c. Lifter backs up into the bar, takes a wide grip, and places bar across the top two thoracic vertebrae
d. Lifter faces the rack, takes a comfortable grip, and steps forward under the bar
d. Lifter faces the rack, takes a comfortable grip, and steps forward under the bar
Which of the following best describes muscular endurance?
Select one:
a. Muscular endurance is the ability to produce force in a very short time.
b. Muscular endurance is the ability to produce and maintain force production over prolonged periods of time.
c. Muscular endurance is resistance training with low repetitions at heavy resistance.
d. Muscular endurance is the ability to produce high force over short bursts of time.
b. Muscular endurance is the ability to produce and maintain force production over prolonged periods of time.
What is the proper progression for plyometric strength exercises?
Select one:
a. Power step-ups, lunge jumps, repeat box jumps.
b. Repeat squat jumps, lunge jumps, power step-ups
c. Lunge jumps, power step-ups, repeat box jumps
d. Lunge jumps, power step-ups, repeat squat jumps
b. Repeat squat jumps, lunge jumps, power step-ups
Which of the following is the principle that states that faster motor units with larger axons are recruited second when more force and power are needed? Select one: a. Resistance development principle b. Henneman's size principle c. Progressive outcome principle. d. Periodization principle
b. Henneman’s size principle
Which of the following is a key role of protein?
Select one:
a. Effects on the circulating blood glucose and insulin levels
b. Function and elasticity of cell membranes
c. Supporting growth and maintenance of body tissues
d. Production of hormones
c. Supporting growth and maintenance of body tissues
Which of the following techniques should a coach teach an athlete who struggles with physiological anxiety in pressure situations? Select one: a. Relaxation response b. Training hard and smart c. Breath control d. Self-motivation
c. Breath control
What exercises involve little joint motion of the balance leg to improve reflexive joint stabilization contractions and joint stability? Select one: a. Balance-strength b. Balance-stabilization c. Balance-power d. Balance-functional
b. Balance-stabilization
Which muscle functions as a stabilizer while an athlete performs a bench press? Select one: a. Anterior deltoid b. Pectoralis major c. Triceps d. Rotator cuff
d. Rotator cuff
Which grade is recommended in downhill running for assisted speed drills? Select one: a. 9-10% b. 7-8% c. 3-4% d. 5-6%
d. 5-6%
What do you risk creating if an athlete is put into a level of balance training for which they are unprepared? Select one: a. Co-contraction b. Central processing c. Feet-forward control d. Synergistic dominance
d. Synergistic dominance
Which of the following is a major benefit of the bent-knee Achilles tendon stretch?
Select one:
a. The stretch isolates the anterior tibialis
b. The stretch isolates the gastrocnemius
c. The Achilles tendon is less likely to tear
d. The gastrocnemius and the soleus are both stretched
d. The gastrocnemius and the soleus are both stretched
Which type of training overloads the stretch-shortening cycle to enhance neuromuscular efficiency, improve the rate of force production, and reduce neuromuscular inhibition? Select one: a. Circuit b. Plyometric c. Hypertrophy d. Core
b. Plyometric
Which of the following is a typical resting heart rate? Select one: a. 50 beats per minute b. 70 beats per minute. c. 90 beats per minute d. 110 beats per minute
b. 70 beats per minute.
What is the term for the systematic approach to program design using the General Adaptation Syndrome and the principle of specificity to produce adaptations? Select one: a. Periodization b. Neural demand c. Exercise selection d. Proprioception
a. Periodization
Which sport would benefit from the inclusion of assisted drills in an SAQ program? Select one: a. Hockey b. Football c. Volleyball d. Basketball
b. Football
What is the most common sports-related injury, and the number one injury for time lost? Select one: a. ACL sprain/tear b. Metatarsal stress fracture c. Plantar fasciitis d. Ankle sprains
d. Ankle sprains
When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, around which of the following axes does the movement occur? Select one: a. Anterior-posterior b. Longitudinal c. Contralateral d. Coronal
b. Longitudinal
Which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate for an athlete training in the Strength Level (Phases 2,3,4) of the OPT model? Select one: a. Single-leg balance reach. b. Two-arm medicine ball chest pass c. Bench press d. Medicine ball oblique throw
c. Bench press
Which phase of the OPT model supersets a traditional strength exercise (e.g. barbell squats) with a plyometric/power exercise of similar joint mechanics (e.g. squat jumps) to enhance prime mover strength and rate of force production? Select one: a. Phase 4: Maximal Strength b. Phase 6: Maximal Power c. Phase 3: Hypertrophy d. Phase 5: Power
d. Phase 5: Power
Many of the issues surrounding an athlete's functional qualification for the use of Olympic lifts can be determined by performing which assessment? Select one: a. Overhead squat assessment b. Shark skills test c. Davies test d. Bench press assessment
a. Overhead squat assessment
In which phase of a plyometric exercise must a muscle switch from overcoming force to producing it? Select one: a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Amortization d. Unloading
c. Amortization
What refers to the rate at which any individual nerve fiber transmits impulses per unit of time? Select one: a. Neuromuscular efficiency b. Rate coding c. Elastic limit d. All-or-none principle
b. Rate coding
According to the text, which type of mental imagery is MOST effective for improving sports performance? Select one: a. Olfactory b. Kinesthetic c. Visual d. Auditory
b. Kinesthetic
A tempo of 4/2/1 is appropriate when training in which phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Power b. Hypertrophy c. Stabilization Endurance d. Maximal Strength
c. Stabilization Endurance
Winning the Stanley Cup is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Goal setting b. Self-motivation c. Extrinsic motivation d. Positive self-monitoring
c. Extrinsic motivation
Which answer is an example of how the continuum of function should be progressed? Select one: a. Eyes closed to eyes open b. Simple to complex c. Fast to slow d. Unknown to known
b. Simple to complex
What is probably underactive for an athlete demonstrating low back arching during the pulling assessment? Select one: a. Psoas b. Latissimus dorsi c. Intrinsic core stabilizers d. Erector spinae
c. Intrinsic core stabilizers
What assessment is appropriate to determine the lateral speed and agility of an athlete?
Select one:
a. BEEP test
b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
c. Shuttle test
d. Single-leg STAR excursion test
b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Which of the following is a serious risk associated with blood doping? Select one: a. Glucose intolerance b. Low hematocrit c. Bacterial infections d. Erythrocythemia
c. Bacterial infections
Which programming is optimal for SAQ training in order to decrease fatigue and maximize effectiveness?
Select one:
a. Completed as an effective cool-down after strength training
b. Completed on days in between strength training
c. Completed as a progressive warm-up before strength training
d. Completed as a specific station during the strength training
b. Completed on days in between strength training
During functional movements, which of the following is responsible for providing stabilization and eccentric control of the core? Select one: a. Global stabilization system b. Deep longitudinal subsystem c. Local stabilization system d. Anterior oblique subsystem
a. Global stabilization system
When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, which of the following motions is occurring? Select one: a. Internal/external rotation b. Flexion/extension c. Adduction/abduction d. Eversion/inversion
a. Internal/external rotation
Sports-specific, integrated, progressive, and systematic are characteristics of which type of program? Select one: a. Weight loss b. Linear c. Functional d. Rehabilitation
c. Functional
Why do females have a greater risk of ACL injury compared to males?
Select one:
a. Males exhibit more knee valgus than females.
b. Females have higher relative loads on the ACL than males.
c. Females typically have tighter quadricep musculature than men.
d. Males are more likely to pronate their feet than females.
b. Females have higher relative loads on the ACL than males.
Which of the following is 70% of an athlete's age subtracted from in the HRmax regression formula? Select one: a. 208 b. 232 c. 240 d. 220
a. 208
What is the duration that the average athlete will spend training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance? Select one: a. 4 weeks b. 5 weeks c. 6 weeks d. 3 weeks
a. 4 weeks
Which Olympic lift moves the load from the ground to overhead in one single effort? Select one: a. Clean and jerk b. Snatch c. Power clean d. Front squat
b. Snatch
