Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Fixed Prosthodontics > Mcqs > Flashcards

Mcqs Flashcards

1
Q

Degree of roughness with yellow colour:

Super fine
Extra fine
Fine
Standard-medium
Coarse
Super coarse
A

extra fine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Degree of roughness with black colour:

Super fine
Extra fine
Fine
Standard-medium
Coarse
Super coarse
A

super coarse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Degree of roughness with green colour:

Super fine
Extra fine
Fine
Standard-medium
Coarse
Super coarse
A

coarse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Degree of roughness with blue colour:

Super fine
Extra fine
Fine
Standard-medium
Coarse
Super coarse
A

standard-medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Degree of roughness with red colour:

Super fine
Extra fine
Fine
Standard-medium
Coarse
Super coarse
A

fine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Degree of roughness with white colour:

Super fine
Extra fine
Fine
Standard-medium
Coarse
Super coarse
A

super fine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Coding of burs takes into account the following:

A 
material
shape
roughness/ grain size
diameter
compatible handpieces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Speed definition:

A

= # or revolution per minute (rpm)

/ = the # of times a rotating instrument (ex: bur) wil make a full turn during a minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Slow speed rpm:

A

<12.000rpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Medium or intermediate speed:

A

12.000-20.000rpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

High speed:

A

20.000rpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Carbide bur used at a speed:

A

slow speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

UNC - 15 probe use:

A
  • used together w/ putty indices to measure reductions
  • periodontal pockets and biological width measurement
  • shoulder margin
  • cement removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Williams probe use:

A
  • periodontal pockets and biological width measurement
  • shoulder margin
  • cement removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

BPE probe use:

A
  • periodontal pockets and biological width measurement

- cement removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Straight probe:

A
  • mainly access the margins of a crown
  • w/ care to remove excess cement

NO pocket depths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Flat plastic use:

A
  • to remove the provision crown

- to shape provision crown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Front surface mirror:

A

produces a clear mirror image w/o distruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Concave mirror:

A

produces a magnified shape

can disort the image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Plane (flat) surface mirror:

A
  • produces a double images

- resists scratching and its durable b/c reflecting surface is on the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Retention form

A

=To prevent displacement of a cemented restoration along any its paths of insertion, including the long axis preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Resistance form

A

=To prevent displacement of a cemented restoration by apical or obliquely-directed forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Conservation form

A

=to avoid weakening unnecessarily the tooth and avoid pulp compromising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Structural Durability

A

=to prevent enough space for a crown which will be sufficiently thick to prevent fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why do we bevel the functional cusp?

A
  • gives space for the opposing cusp to move freely

- prevents working side interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is convergence angle?

A

=angle b/w 2 opposing walls

- 6 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Seating groove definition:

A
  • to avoid rotation

- to increase retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Construction of a temporary crown in a lab VS dental office

A

in lab: better aesthetics, expensive, more time consuming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Prefabricated crowns for anterior teeth:

celluloid
polycarbonate
metal aluminum

A

celluloid

polycarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Prefabricated crowns for posterior teeth:

celluloid
polycarbonate
metal aluminum

A

celluloid
polycarbonate
or metal aluminum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Advantages of temporary crowns:

A
  • protects open dentin tubules from micro leakage
  • maintain occlusal relationship
  • maintain interdental space and contacts
  • prevents gingival hyperplasia
  • protects cheeks,tongue,lips from trauma
  • maintains appearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Advantages of provisional crowns:

A

check:

  • changes in occlusion if acceptable
  • phonetics
  • appearance
  • mastication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Temporary VS Provisional crowns:

A

temporary will come to an end while provisional might not come to an end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In class we used this impression technique:

A

disposable triple tray impression

35
Q

Why subgingival preparations need gingival retraction?

A
  • prevent bleeding
  • acts as a physical barrier and retract gingival tissues
  • allow accurate impression of margin preparations
36
Q

Best method for soft tissue retraction and how?

A

chemomechanical: impregnated retraction cord (=soaked in a chemical sol)

  • enlarges sulcus
  • controls sulcular hemorrhage

solutions: ferric sulfate or aluminium sulfate

37
Q

Disadvantage of chemomechanical soft tissue retraction?

A

staining
systemic side effects
inflammation and tissue necrosis

38
Q

Plain retraction cord aim and disadvantage:

A

aim: sulcus enlargement
disadvantage: sulcular hemorrhage

39
Q

Copper band retraction cord aim and disadvantage:

A

aim: displace the gingivae, ensures finishing line is capsured in the impression
disadvantage: traumatic, not effective, not accurate

40
Q

Dual cord technique w/ impregnated retraction cord:

A

thin placed first, thick placed on top

41
Q

Retraction paste aim, example, advantage:

A

aim: to create space b/w prepared tooth and sulcus
ex: Al2Cl3
advantage: quicker and easier

42
Q

Surgical soft tissue retraction methods:

  • plain retraction cord
  • rotary curettage
  • electrosurgery
  • copper ring
  • impregnated retraction cord
  • crown lengthening
  • retraction paste
A
  • rotary curettage
  • electrosurgery
  • crown lengthening
43
Q

Contraindications with electrosurgery of soft tissue retraction?

A
  • patients with cardiac pacemakers
  • not used with topical anesthetics
  • not used with flammable aerosols
  • avoid contact with bone
  • avoid metal instruments or metal restorations
44
Q

Crown lengthening definition, advantages, disadvantages:

A

= surgical procedure involving bone removal and gingival re-contouring

advantages:

  • aesthetics
  • increases crown height
  • creates supragingival margins

disadvantages:

  • discomfort
  • need to allow time for healing
  • increased crown:root ratio
45
Q

Ante’s Law

A

=combined pericemental area of all abutment teeth supporting a fixed dental prosthesis should be EQUAL to or BIGGER in pericemental area than the tooth or teeth to be placed

46
Q

Pontic shapes:

A 
hygienic
ridge lap
modified ridge lap
bullet/conical
ovate
47
Q

What are the types of articulators?

A
  • simple hinge articulator
  • fixed/mean value condylar path articulator
  • adjustable condylar path articulators
    1. semi adjustable
    2. full adjastable
48
Q

What is the occlusal reduction of pfm crown?

49
Q

What is the occlusal reduction of all ceramic crown?

50
Q

What is the occlusal reduction of all metal crown?

51
Q

What is the occlusal reduction of zirconia crown?

52
Q

What is the occlusal reduction of porcelain fused to zirconia crown?

53
Q

What is the incisal reduction reduction of porcelain fused to zirconia crown?

54
Q

What is the incisal reduction reduction of pfm crown?

55
Q

What is the incisal reduction reduction of all ceramic crown?

56
Q

What is the incisal reduction reduction of all metal crown?

57
Q

What is the incisal reduction reduction of zirconia crown?

58
Q

What is the axial reduction of zirconia crown?

59
Q

What is the axial reduction of all ceramic crown?

60
Q

What is the axial reduction of all metal crown?

61
Q

What is the axial reduction of pfm crown?

62
Q

What is the axial reduction of porcelain fused to zirconia crown?

63
Q

What is canine guidance?

a. posterior disocclusion of teeth as mandible is retruted
b. posterior occlusion of teeth as maxilla is retruted
c. posterior disocclusion of teeth as mandible is protruded
d. anterior disocclusion of teeth as mandible is protruted

A

c. posterior disocclusion of teeth as mandible is protruded

64
Q

What is mutually protected occlusion?

A

=canine guidance

65
Q

What is RCP?

A

=retruted contact position

=its the first tooth contact happening when mandible closes in the terminal hinge axis position

66
Q

What is bilateral balanced occlusion?

A

=involves contacts on as many teeth as possible in all excursive movements

67
Q

What is unilateral balanced occlusion?

A

=group function; making contact w/ more than 1 tooth when you move your jaw in a sideways motion

68
Q

What are the condylar paths of movement?

A

orbiting condyle path
rotating condyle path
protrusive condyle path

69
Q

What is the diameter of biological width?

70
Q

What is biological width?

A

=distance b/w junctional epithelium and supra-alveolar CT

71
Q

How can you stabilise the restoration?

A

w/ Disclosing Wax

72
Q

What is the solution if seating of fixed partial denture is hindered?

A

light body layered on crown’s internal surface and placed over tooth or die

73
Q

Which side of articulating paper is placed on the restoration and which on opposing teeth?

A

red on restoration

black on opposing teeth

74
Q

What is a luting agent?

A

=dental cement which attached indirect restoration to tooth

75
Q

Types of luting agents?

A

definitive or

provisional

76
Q

When are provisionals cemented?

A

during preparation time

and during the time b/w preparation and delivery of the definitive prosthetics

77
Q

Advantages of provisionals:

A
  • good retention
  • good marginal seal
  • durability
  • easy to clean up
78
Q

Which cements do we use for aesthetic reasons?

A

resin cements

79
Q

Which cements do we use for luting metallic restorations and posts?

A

conventional glass ionomer

zinc phosphate cements

80
Q

How do we classify fixed partial dentures?

A

acoording to the site, material and missing teeth

81
Q

Bridge designs

A
  • fixed-fixed
  • fixed-supported
  • fixed-free bridge or cantilever bridge
  • spring cantilever bridge
  • combinations
82
Q

Where does fixed-fixed bridge have a rigid connector?

A

both ends of pontic

83
Q

Where does fixed-supported bridge have a rigid connector?

A

at the distal end of the pontic

84
Q

What is a cantilever bridge?

A

=bridge attaching to adjacent teeth on one side of it only

Fixed Prosthodontics (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions