MCQs 1of4 Flashcards

1
Q

A discount point is BEST described as a charge the borrower pays to

a. A lender to decrease the 
    interest rate on the 
    mortgage loan
b. A mortgage broker at the  time of application to obtain a favorable rate
c..The seller  as part of the closing costs of a loan
d. A lender to ensure against foreclosure
A

a. A lender to decrease the
interest rate on the
mortgage loan

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2
Q

A buyer has made an earnest money payment of $5,000. The buyer pays an additional $2,000. in option money to be credited at closing on a property with a sale price of $160,000. If the required down payment is 20%, how much additional money will the buyer need to provide toward the don payment at closing?

a. $32,000
b. $27,000
c. $30,000
d, $25,000

A

d, $25,000

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3
Q

If an applicant works 40 hours a week and is paid $13.52 per hour, what is the applicants monthly income?

a. $2,136.20
b. $2,343.47
c. .$2,379.52
d. $2,487.68

A

b. $2,343.47

Hourly x hours worked during week x weeks in a year (52) / 12 months

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4
Q

The requirements for private mortgage insurance is generally discontinued when the loan -to-value ratio falls below.

a. 20%
b. 50%
c..80%
d, 90%

A

c..80%

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5
Q

Which of the following documents itemizes all settlements costs including lender charges?

a. Agreement of Sale
b. HUD-1/Closing Disclosure
c..Form 1003
d, Forbearance agreement

A

b. HUD-1/Closing Disclosure

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6
Q

According to the Truth-in-Lending Act (TiLA), the term refinance applies to:

a. A change in payment 
    schedule
b. A reduction in annual 
    percentage rate
c..the renewal of a single 
    payment obligation with no 
    change in the original 
    terms
d, The satisfaction of an 
    existing obligation and its 
    replacement by a new 
    obligation
A

d, The satisfaction of an
existing obligation and its
replacement by a new
obligation

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7
Q

What does a loan originator use to determine the estimated value of a property based on an analytical comparison to similar property sales?

a. An appraisal
b. A market survey
c..An area survey
d, A cost-benefit analysis

A

a. An appraisal

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8
Q

Which of the following methods of disclosure does NOT meet the requirements of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA)?

a. E-mail
b. Mailed letter
c. Telephone
d, Faxed letter

A

c. Telephone

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9
Q

The term “20 basis points” expressed as a percentage is

a. 0.02%
b. 0.20%
c..2.00%
d, 20.00%

A

b. 0.20%

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10
Q

According to the Truth-in-Lending Act (TILA), which of the following fees is EXCLUDED from the calculation of the annual percentage rate?

a. Hazard insurance
b. Wire transfer
c..Prepaid interest
d, Mortgage insurance
premiums

A

a. Hazard insurance

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11
Q

FHA loans are:

a. Partially guaranteed
b. 100% insured
c. Exempt
d, Entitled

A

b. 100% insured

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12
Q

The late fee for a conventional loan is:

a. 3% of principle and interest
b. 4% of principle and interest
c. 5% of principle and interest
d, 10% of principle and interest

A

c. 5% of principle and interest

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13
Q

A funding fee is required for a:

a. FHA loan
b. VA loan
c. Jumbo loan
d, Conventional loan

A

b. VA loan

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14
Q

A Mortgage Insurance Premium is required on:

a. FHA loan
b. VA loan
c. Jumbo loan
d, Conventional loan

A

a. FHA loan

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15
Q

The Mortgagee is:

a. Borrower
b. Lender
c..Closing Agent
d, Mortgage broker

A

b. Lender

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16
Q

The borrower does NOT sign which document

a. Deed
b. HUD-1/Loan Disclosure
c..Mortgage
d, Note

A

a. Deed

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17
Q

Which document is usually NOT recorded?

a. Assignment of mortgage
b. Note
c..Deed
d, Mortgage

A

b. Note

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18
Q

A mortgage title insurance policy is NOT:

a. Based loan amount
b. Transferable
c..Optional
d, Required by the lender

A

c..Optional

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19
Q

Which parties sign the deed?

a. Grantor, Grantee and two 
    witnesses
b. Grantor and two witnesses
c. Grantee and two  
    witnesses
d, Grantee only
A

b. Grantor and two witnesses

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20
Q

When the mortgagor and the mortgagee title insurance policies are issued at the same time, this is known as:

a. Simultaneous issue
b. Concurrent issue
c. Subsequent issue
d, Dual issue

A

a. Simultaneous issue

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21
Q

A shrubbery is on example of an:

a. Encumbrance
b. Easement
c. Entitlement
d, Acceptable title
impediment

A

d, Acceptable title impediment

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22
Q

A loan on personal property only is known as:

a. Package mortgage
b. Chattel mortgage
c. Furnishing mortgage
d, Exotic mortgage

A

b. Chattel mortgage

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23
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Tenants in Common form of ownership

a. Equal shares
b. Buy at different times
c. Right of survivorship
d, Ability to share

A

c. Right of survivorship

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24
Q

PITI payments do NOT include which of the following:

a. Principal
b. Funding Fee
c. Hazard Insurance
d, Interest

A

b. Funding Fee

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25
Q

Who does Fannie Mae hold responsible for the quality of an appraisal?

a. Appraiser
b. Borrower
c. Mortgage
d, Lender

A

d, Lender

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26
Q

Which law is known as Regulation B?

a. Truth-in-Lending
b. Real Estate Settlement
Procedures Act
c. Equal Credit Opportunity
Act
d, Patriot Act

A

c. Equal Credit Opportunity

Act

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27
Q

which law prohibits discrimination by lenders?

a. Truth-in-Lending
b. Real Estate Settlement
Procedures Act
c. Equal Credit Opportunity
Act
d, Patriot Act

A

c. Equal Credit Opportunity

Act

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28
Q

A property sold for $200,000 and was appraised at 180,000. The borrower received a loan for 150,000. What is the loan-to-value

a. 75%
b. 83.3%
c. 90%
d, 92.4%

A

b. 83.3%

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29
Q

How many days does a lender have to send an adverse action notice?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 30
d, 60

A

c. 30

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30
Q

The GFE/Loan Estimate must be mailed or given to the borrower within how many days after receiving the signed application?

a. 3 business days
b. 7 business days
c. 10 business days
d, 30 business days

A

a. 3 business days

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31
Q

The enforcement of a lien is known as a:

a. Closing
b. Foreclosure
c. Warranty inspection
d, Police Action

A

b. Foreclosure

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32
Q

What minimum percentage of ownership is a related service requires a conflict of interest disclosure?

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d, 50%

A

b. 10%

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33
Q

What minimum percentage of
ownership qualifies an individual as self-employed?

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d, 50%

A

c. 25%

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34
Q

A salaried employee may have to produce which of the following documents to obtain a loan

a. 90 day pay stubs
b. 2 years W2s
c. Profit and Loss statement
d, Balance sheet

A

b. 2 years W2s

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35
Q

How many months must left on an automobile lease to include it as a debt?

a. 2 months
b. 5 months
c. 10 months
d, It is always included

A

d, It is always included

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36
Q

Which law defines the right of rescission?

a. Truth-in-Lending
b. Real Estate Settlement
Procedures Act
c. Equal Credit Opportunity
Act
d, Patriot Act

A

a. Truth-in-Lending

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37
Q

How long after the application date must social security payments continue to be received in order to count as income?

a. 3 months
b. 10 months
c. 2 years
d, 3 years

A

c. 2 years

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38
Q

Credit reports on new construction are good for how many days?

a. 90 days
b. 120 days
c. 180 days
d, 225 days

A

b. 120 days

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39
Q

Which clause in a mortgage allows a lender to increase the interest rate?

a. Defeasance
b. Escalation
c. Acceleration
d, Exculpatory

A

b. Escalation

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40
Q

Which clause in a mortgage prevents the lender from foreclosing unless the borrower is in default?

a. Defeasance
b. Escalation
c. Acceleration
d, Exculpatory

A

a. Defeasance

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41
Q

The lender has how may days to send the Satisfaction of Mortgage letter to the borrower once the loan balance is paid?

a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d, 120 days

A

b. 60 days

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42
Q

Which of the following increases cap rate?

a. Lower purchase price
b. Increase purchase price
c. Decrease cash flow
d, Increase interest rate

A

a. Lower purchase price

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43
Q

Who should applicants contact if they have questions about their credit score or credit information?

a. Credit reporting agency
b. Lender
c. Mortgage broker
d, Attorney

A

a. Credit reporting agency

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44
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining the national flood maps?

a. HUD
b. FEMA
c. FHA
d, VA

A

b. FEMA

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45
Q

THe VA appraisal is know as a:

a. CRV
b. Veteran appraisal report
c. Fannie Mae 1025
d, AVA

A

a. CRV

Certificate of Reasonable Value

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46
Q

Fannie Mae’s automated underwriting system is known as:

a. Fannie Mannie
b. Software helper
c. Desktop Underwriter
d, Loan Prospector

A

c. Desktop Underwriter

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47
Q

There are 10 days left in the month. The purchase price is $150,000, the loan amount is $100,000 and the interest rate is 6%. How much mortgage interest must the borrower pay at closing?

a. $164.38
b. $250.00
c. $440.20
d, $2,739.73

A

a. $164.38

Loan amount x interest rate/number days in year number of days left in month

100,000. x 0.06/365x10 =164.38

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48
Q

Private Mortgage Insurance is automatically canceled when the loan to value reaches what level?

a. 55%
b. 70%
c. 78%
d, 80%

A

c. 78%

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49
Q

Which types of loans are meant for rural areas?

a. VA
b. FHA
c. USDA
d, RAL

A

c. USDA

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50
Q

The purchase price of a home is $200,000 and the loan amount is $180,000. The borrower pays 6% interest with 1 discount point and 1 origination point. What is the cost of the points

a. $1,800
b. $2,000
c. $3,600
d, $4,000

A

c. $3,600

Discount points x loan amount = Point value

$180,000. x .02 = $3600.00

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51
Q

If the Gross Rent Multiplier (GRM) decreases, the property value:

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Does not change
d, Can increase or decrease

A

b. Decreases

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52
Q

What is the maximum amount of VA seller concessions

a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 4%
d, 5%

A

c. 4%

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53
Q

When a property increases in value for any reason this is known as:

a. Acceleration
b. Appreciation
c. Accumulation
d, Acclimation

A

b. Appreciation

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54
Q

Which appraisal approach is most suitable for an office building

a. Sales comparison 
    approach
b. Cost approach
c. Income capitalization 
    approach
d, Tenant collection approach
A

c. Income capitalization

approach

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55
Q

Which of the following is incorrect regarding an adjustable rate mortgage?

a. The index is fixed
b. The margin is fixed
c. There are rate caps on both
the adjustment period and
the life of the loan
d. LIBOR is a typical index
used

A

a. The index is fixed

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56
Q

Which of the following is NOT a fully amortized loan?

a. Term mortgage
b. Fixed-rate mortgage
c. Adjustable-rate mortgage
d, Bi-weekly mortgage

A

a. Term mortgage

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57
Q

Which of the following is a negatively amortizing loan?

a. Reverse mortgage
b. Balloon mortgage
c. Term mortgage
d, Wrap mortgage

A

a. Reverse mortgage

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58
Q

Fannie Mae does NOT require:

a. 6 months of bank 
    statements
b. Verifiable funds
c. 2 years of addresses
d, Stable 2 year work history
A

a. 6 months of bank

statements

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59
Q

A note is:

a. Document that coveys title
b. Pledge of the property as
collateral for the loan
c. Borrower’s IOU
d, Document that transfers
contractual rights to
another investor

A

c. Borrower’s IOU

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60
Q

A mortgage is the:

a. Document that conveys 
    title
b. Pledge of the property as 
    collateral for the loan
c. Borrower's IOU
d, Document that transfers 
    contractual rights to 
    another investor
A

b. Pledge of the property as

collateral for the loan

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61
Q

An adjustable-rate mortgage can adjust after 2 years with an adjustment cap of 3% per period and a lifetime cap of 7%. The starting interest rate is 4%. What is the maximum interest that can be charged at the time of the first adjustment

a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 10%
d, 11%

A

b. 7%

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62
Q

What is the FHA minimum down payment

a. $0
b. 3.5%
c. 5%
d, 10%

A

b. 3.5%

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63
Q

Which law is known as regulation C?

a. Real Estate Settlement 
    Procedures Act
b. Truth-in-Lending Act
c. Equal Credit Opportunity 
    Act
d. Home Mortgage 
    Disclosure Act
A

d, Home Mortgage Disclosure

Act

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64
Q

What is the minimum down payment for a USDA loan?

a. $0
b. 3.5%
c. 5%
d. 10%

A

a. $0

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65
Q

How many hours of continuing education are minimally required?

a. 8 hours every year
b. 14 hours every years
c. 14 hours every 2 years
d, 20 hours every 2 years

A

a. 8 hours every year

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66
Q

Who is responsible for completing the HUD-1/Loan Disclosure

a. The borrower
b. The closing agent
c. Loan originator
d, The Grantor

A

b. The closing agent

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67
Q

A mortgagor ‘s title insurance policy is:

a. Transferable
b. Required
c. Based on purchase price
d, Never used

A

C. Based on purchase price

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68
Q

The assignee of a mortgage and note is participating in the

a. Primary lending market
b. Capital market
c. Secondary mortgage
market
d, Options market

A

c. Secondary mortgage

market

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69
Q

VA loans are:

a. Partially guaranteed
b. Insured
c. Exempt
d, Entitled

A

a. Partially guaranteed

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70
Q

The late fee for a VA loan is

a. 3% of principle and interest
b. 4% of principle and interest
c. 5% of principle and interest
d, 10% of principle and interest

A

b. 4% of principle and interest

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71
Q

The purchase price of a home is $375,000 and the appraisal price is $350,000. If the first mortgage is in the amount of $200,000 and the second mortgage is $60,000. What is the combined loan-to-value ratio

a. 74.3%
b. 80.0%
c. 86.7%
d, 92.3%

A

a. 74.3%

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72
Q

The purchase price of a home is $375,000 and the buyer will assume a $175,000 first mortgage. The loan-to-value cannot exceed 85%. What is the maximum amount of the new second mortgage

a. $130,000
b. $143,750
c.$162,030
d, $171,260

A

b. $143,750

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73
Q

What clause in a mortgage allows the lender to call the entire loan balance due?

a. Defeasance
b. Escalation
c. Acceleration
d, Exculpatory

A

c. Acceleration

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74
Q

Which clause in a mortgage prevents the lender from recovering additional assets from the mortgagor if there is a shortfall in the foreclosure proceeds?

a. Forbearance
b. Escalation
c. Acceleration
d. Exculpatory

A

d. Exculpatory

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75
Q

What term describes the intentional delay of action on the part of the lender upon a borrower’s default?

a. Forbearance
b. Escalation
c. Acceleration
d. Exculpatory

A

a. Forbearance

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76
Q

Which of the following does not appear in a lock-in-agreement?

a. Expiration date
b. APR
c. Lock-in-fee
d, Interest Rate

A

b. APR

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77
Q

Freddie Mac was originally known as:

a. Federal Home loan 
    Mortgage Corporation
b. Federal National Mortgage 
    Association
c. Fair Discount Interest 
    Rates
d, Free Certificate of Deposits
A

a. Federal Home loan

Mortgage Corporation

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78
Q

Fannie Mae allows what amount of fees to be charged to a credit card?

a. 1% of the loan amount plus 
    $500 for the appraisal and 
    credit report
b. 2% of the loan amount plus 
    $500 for the appraisal and 
    credit report
c. 3% of the loan amount plus 
    $500 for the appraisal and 
    credit report
d, 4% of the loan amount plus 
    $500 for the appraisal and 
    credit report
A

a. 1% of the loan amount plus
$500 for the appraisal and
credit report

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79
Q

Loan Prospector can NOT be used for which type of loan

a. Conventional
b. VA
c. FHA
d, Commercial

A

d. Commercial

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80
Q

A five bedroom, one bathroom house is an example of

a. Appreciation
b. Functional obsolescence
c. Economic obsolescence
d. Residential allowance

A

b. Functional obsolescence

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81
Q

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a FHA loan?

a. Favorable interest rates
b. Low down payment
c. No monthly mortgage
insurance
d. Assumable

A

c. No monthly mortgage

insurance

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82
Q

A loan closes on May 14. When is the first mortgage payment due?

a. May 15
b. June 01
c. Jun 15
d. July 01

A

d. July 01

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83
Q

Alimony payments must continue to be received for how long after the application date if they are to be included as income?

a. 10 months
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

A

b. 2 years

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84
Q

Credit reports are good for how many days after they are pulled for qualifying purposes?

a. 60
b. 90
c. 120
d. 180

A

c. 120

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85
Q

When title is transferred and the buyer assumes no liability for the note, this type of transference is known as:

a. Free and clear
b. Subject to mortgage
c. Assumption
d. Novation

A

c. Subject to mortgage

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86
Q

Which of the follwoing is correct for an adjustable-rate mortgage?

a. index - margin = fully 
    indexed rate
b. Margin - index = fully 
    indexed rate
c. Index + Margin = fully 
    indexed rate
d. Index - margin = fully 
    indexed rate
A

c. Index + Margin = fully

indexed rate

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87
Q

The maximum term for a FHA loan is:

a. 15 years
b. 30 years
c. 40 years
d. 50 years

A

b. 30 years

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88
Q

Which of the following is not an involuntary lien?

a. IRS lien
b. Judgement lien
c. Mortgage lien
d. Mechanic’s lien

A

c. Mortgage lien

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89
Q

The most comprehensive form of ownership is:

a. Real Estate Investment  
    Trust
b. Fee simple absolute
c. Tenants in common
d. Joint tenancy
A

b. Fee simple absolute

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90
Q

Which is NOT a component of a valid contract

a. Agreement
b. Consideration
c. Two Witnesses
d. Competent parties

A

c. Two Witnesses

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91
Q

Which type of co-ownership permits the property to pass to an heir?

a. Collaboration
b. Tenants in common
c. Joint tenancy
d. Subordination

A

b. Tenants in Common

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92
Q

The economic concept which state that a knowledgeable buyer will pay no more for one property than they would pay for an equally desirable comparable property is:

a. Principle of Substitution
b. Principle of Highest and
Best Use
c. Principle of Market Value
d. Principle of Intelligent
Purchases

A

a. Principle of Substitution

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93
Q

Which law requires the interviewer to complete the Government Monitoring section on the 1003

a. Homeowner's Protection 
    Act
b. The Fair and Accurate 
    Credit Transaction Act
c. Truth-in-Lending
d. The Equal Credit 
     Opportunity  Act
A

d. The Equal Credit

Opportunity Act

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94
Q

Which law entitles an applicant to a copy of his property appraisal report?

a. Homeowner's Protection 
    Act
b. The Fair and Accurate 
    Credit Transaction Act
c. Truth-in-Lending
d. The Equal Credit 
    Opportunity  Act
A

c. Truth-in-Lending

Opportunity Act

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95
Q

Which law is also known as Regulation X

a. Truth-in-Lending
b. Real Estate Settlement
Procedures Act
c. Homeowner’s Protection
Act
d. The Equal Credit
Opportunity Act

A

b. Real Estate Settlement

Procedures Act

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96
Q

Which law protects an individual confidential information?

a. Truth-in-Lending
b. Real Estate Settlement
Procedures Act
c. Homeowner’s Protection
Act
d. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

A

d. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

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97
Q

Who Enforces RESPA violations

a. FTC
b. CFPB
c. FHA
d. FCC

A

b. CFPB

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98
Q

Which law requires that the Special Information booklet be given to borrowers?

a. Truth-in-Lending
b. Real Estate Settlement
Procedures Act
c. Homeowner’s Protection
Act
d. The Equal Credit
Opportunity Act

A
b. Real Estate Settlement 
    Procedures Act (RESPA)
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99
Q

What is the fine for violating the Federal Do Not Call rules

a. $5,000
b. $11,000
c. $42,350
d. $60,000

A

c. $42,350

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100
Q

Which of the following is NOT a loan origination activity?

a. Assisting in a refinance
b. Assisting in a purchase
loan
c. Assisting in a loan
modification
d. Changing the name of
debtors on an existing loan

A

c. Assisting in a loan

modification

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101
Q

A unilateral contract is binding on:

a. One party
b. Two parties
c. The neighbor
d. No one

A

a. One party

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102
Q

Loan originator organizations must keep compensation records for how many years?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

A

c. Three years

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103
Q

Mortgage companies must submit a residential loan origination report to the NMLSR every

a. Month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. Year

A

b. Three months

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104
Q

How many years must loan originator applicants wait after a felony fraud conviction in order to qualify for a license?

a. One year
b. Two years
c. Five years
d. They aren’t eligible for
licensing

A

d. They aren’t eligible for

licensing

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105
Q

How many years must loan originator applicants wait after having a loan origination license revoked in another state, in order to qualify for a license?

a. One year
b. Two years
c. They aren’t eligible for
licensing
d. They can qualify
immediately

A

c. They aren’t eligible for

licensing

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106
Q

Who chooses force-placed hazard insurance companies?

a. Lender
b. Homeowner
c. Attorney
d. Loan originator

A

a. Lender

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107
Q

Which of the following is required for an FHA Streamline refinance loan?

a. Credit verification
b. New appraisal
c. Current on mortgage
payments for the last three
month
d. Income and debt
verification

A

c. Current on mortgage
payments for the last three
month

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108
Q

What law addresses loan originators’ compensation issues

a. Truth-in-Lending
b. Loan Origination Rule
c. Equal Credit Opportunity
Act
d. Mortgage Compensation
Act

A

b. Loan Origination Rule

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109
Q

Commercial telemarketers are restricted to calling:

a. Only on weekends
b. Between 10 AM and 10 PM
c. Between 8 AM and 9 PM
d. There no restrictions

A

c. Between 8 AM and 9 PM

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110
Q

Commercial telemarketers must search the Do-Not-Call registry

a. Every 7 days
b. Every 31 days
c. Every 180 days
d. Once a year

A

b. Every 31 days

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111
Q

In order to send a fax advertisers must:

a. Have an established 
    business relationship with 
    recipient
b. Only fax t toll-free numbers
c. Include a personal cell 
    phone number on the 
    cover sheet
d. Not send faxes across state 
    lines
A

a. Have an established
business relationship with
recipient

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112
Q

The first page on an advertisers fax must include

a. Company’s mailing address
b. Company’s email address
c. Company’s phone number
d. Opt-out instructions

A

d. Opt-out instructions

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113
Q

What type of real estate co-ownership is only for married couples

a. Tenants in common
b. Joint tenancy
c. Tenancy by the entirety
d. Spousal tenancy

A

c. Tenancy by the entirety

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114
Q

Increasing neighborhood crime exemplifies what type of depreciation?

a. Economic obsolescence
b. Functional obsolescence
c. Physical deterioration
d. Unstable deterioration

A

a. Economic obsolescence

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115
Q

What agency was established to respond to consumer financial complaints?

a. Federal Deposit Insurance 
    Company
b. Federal Insurance office
c. Financial Stability Oversight 
    Council
d. Consumer Financial 
    Protection Bureau
A

d. Consumer Financial

Protection Bureau

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116
Q

What law protects homeowner from foreclosure-prevention scams?

a. Foreclosure Mediation Rule
b. Mortgage Assistance Relief
Services Rule
c. Truth-in-Lending Act
d. Homeowner’s Protection
Act

A

b. Mortgage Assistance Relief

Services Rule

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117
Q

Individuals must file a report when they transport how much cash out of the country?

a. $5,000 or more
b. $10,000 or more
c. $50,000 or more
d. $100,000 or more

A

b. $10,000 or more

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118
Q

What type of federal report is filed when financial institutions detect suspicious activity?

a. Suspicious Activity Report
b. Treasure Alert Report
c. Unaccounted Funds Report
d. Unexplained behavior
Report

A

a. Suspicious Activity Report

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119
Q

What agency becomes the receiver for some failing financial institutions?

a. Federal Deposit Insurance 
    Company
b. Federal Insurance Office. 
c. Financial Stability Oversight 
    Council
d. Consumer Financial 
    Protection Bureau
A

a. Federal Deposit Insurance

Company

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120
Q

The ability-to-repay regulation applies to:

a. Equity lines of credit
b. Reverse mortgages
c. Investment home
purchases
d. Construction loans

A

c. Investment home

purchases

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121
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of a qualified mortgage?

a. Positive amortization
b. 30 year maximum loan
term
c. Maximum debt-to-income
ratio of 50 percent
d. No interest only periods

A

c. Maximum debt-to-income

ratio of 50 percent

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122
Q

Individuals submit an annual Report of Foreign Bank and Financial Accounts to:

a. IRS
b. Mortgage lender
c. Federal Trade Commission
d. Fannie Mae

A

a. IRS

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123
Q

Which of the following is part of the Mortgage Assistance Relief Services Rule

a. Negotiators may be paid 
    an up-front fee
b. Borrowers must pay a fee 
    if they cancel their contract 
    with the negotiator
c. Negotiators can't interfere 
    with communication 
    between borrowers and 
    lenders
d. Negotiators only have to 
     present reasonable lender 
     offers to the borrower
A

c. Negotiators can’t interfere
with communication
between borrowers and
lenders

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124
Q

Loan originators are’t allowed to receive compensation:

a. Based on loan terms
b. From a consumer
c. From a lender
d. Based on the performance
of the loan

A

a. Based on loan terms

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125
Q

High-cost home loans require a borrower to:

a. Receive quotes from 
    multiple lenders
b. Receive homeownership 
    counseling 
c. Receive free flood 
    insurance
d. Receive 3% seller 
    concessions
A

b. Receive homeownership

counseling

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126
Q

The Truth-in-Lending Disclosure does NOT include

a. APR
b. Finance charge
c. Total amount of payments
d. Borrower’s credit score

A

d. Borrower’s credit score

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127
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of high-cost home loans?

a. Borrower must have a 
    documented ability to pay 
    the loan
b. Borrower must have a 
    minimum credit score of 
    650
c. Prepay penalties are 
    prohibited
d. Most balloon payments are 
    prohibited
A

b. Borrower must have a
minimum credit score of
650

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128
Q

Which of the following does NOT have zero variance between the GFE and HUD-1

a. Title insurance
b. Real estate transfer taxes
c. Loan origination fees
d. Interest Rate

A

a. Title insurance

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129
Q

Which of the following can have an unlimited variance between the GFE and HUD-1

a. Hazard insurance
b. Recording fees
c. Appraisal
d. Credit report fee

A

a. Hazard insurance

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130
Q

What happens if the acceptable variance between the GFE and HUD-1 is exceeded?

a. Loan originator faces 
    criminal penalties
b. The loan can't be funded
c. The excess is refunded to 
    the borrower with 30 days
d. The excess is refunded to 
    the borrower with 60 days
A

c. The excess is refunded to

the borrower with 30 days

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131
Q

Which law requires businesses to print only the last five card numbers on a credit card receipt?

a. Homeowner Protection Act
b. Fact Act
c. Gramm-Leach-Bliley
d. Dodd-Frank

A

b. Fact Act

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132
Q

What happens if the acceptable variance between the Loan Estimate and the Closing Disclosure is exceeded

a. Loan originator faces 
    criminal penalties
b. The loan can't be funded
c. The excess is refunded to 
    the borrower with 30 days
d. The excess is refunded to 
    the borrower with 60 days
A

d. The excess is refunded to

the borrower with 60 days

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133
Q

A higher-priced home loan is one that has

a. More than 5% in fees and 
    points
b. More than 8% in fees and 
    points
c. APR exceeds the average 
    prime rate by at least 1.5% 
    for the first-lien loans
d. Interest rate is higher than 
    10%
A

c. APR exceeds the average
prime rate by at least 1.5%
for the first-lien loans

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134
Q

What is the shortest time in which a mortgage purchase loan can close?

a. 3 business days
b. 7 business days
c. 14 days
d. 30 days

A

b. 7 business days

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135
Q

What type of loan gives a borrower money each month?

a. Graduated payment 
    mortgage
b. Reverse mortgage
c. Package mortgage
d. Wholesale mortgage
A

b. Reverse mortgage

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136
Q

What type of loan is a non-recourse loan

a. Graduated payment 
    mortgage
b. Reverse mortgage
c. Package mortgage
d. Wholesale mortgage
A

b. Reverse mortgage

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137
Q

A lender won’t lose money funding what type of loan?

a. FHA
b. VA
c. Conventional
d. Construction

A

a. FHA

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138
Q

A lender that offers mortgage loans directly to the public is a:

a. Participating lender
b. Private lender
c. Wholesale lender
d. Retail lender

A

d. Retail lender

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139
Q

Which disclosure can be initially sent to the borrower within 45 days after closing?

a. Affiliated Business 
    Arrangement
b. Good Faith Estimate
c. Truth-in-Lending
d. Initial Escrow Statement
A

d. Initial Escrow Statement

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140
Q

What type of loan is short-term with money advanced in stages?

a. Package
b. Construction
c. Wraparound
d. Balloon

A

b. Construction

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141
Q

A loan originator who accepts an upfront fee for negotiating a loan modification is violating which law

a. RESP
b. TILA
c. HMDA
d. MARS

A

d. MARS

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142
Q

A lender that works with licensed loan originators is a:

a. Participating lender
b. Private lender
c. Wholesale lender
d. Retail lender

A

c. Wholesale lender

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143
Q

What type of mortgage is not guaranteed or insured by the government

a. FHA
b. VA
c. USDA
d. Conventional

A

d. Conventional

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144
Q

What agency became the conservator of Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac

a. Federal Housing Finance 
    Agency
b. Consumer Financial 
    Protection Bureau
c. U.S. Department of  
    Housing 
    and Urban Development
d. Internal Revenue Service
A

a. Federal Housing Finance

Agency

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145
Q

HMDA requires lenders to submit their loan application register to the:

a. Library of Congress
b. Federal Financial
Institutions Examination
Council
c. Federal department of
Books and Records
d. Nationwide Mortgage
Licensing System and
Registry

A

b. Federal Financial
Institutions Examination
Council

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146
Q

MIP is associated with what type of loan?

a. FHA
b. VA
c. Interest-Only
d. Conventional

A

a. FHA

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147
Q

UFMIP is associated with what type of loan

a. FHA
b. VA
c. Interest-Only
d. Conventional

A

a. FHA

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148
Q

What law requires ARM borrowers to receive the Consumer Handbook on Adjustable Rate Mortgages?

a. RESP
b. ECOA
c. Gramm-Leach-Bliley
d. TILA

A

d. TILA

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149
Q

What law allowed the government to assume control over Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac?

a. Homeowners Protection 
    Act
b. Housing and Economic 
    Recovery Act
c. Home Mortgage Disclosure 
    Act
d. Truth-in-Lending Act
A

b. Housing and Economic

Recovery Act

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150
Q

What law passed in 2010 in response to the financial meltdown and recession?

a. Truth-in-Lending
b. Gramm-Leach-Bliley
c. Dodd-Frank Wall Street
Reform and Consumer Act
d. Home mortgage
Disclosures Act

A

c. Dodd-Frank Wall Street

Reform and Consumer Act

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151
Q

Lenders must maintain an escrow account for higher-priced mortgages for a:

a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. No escrow account is
required

A

c. 5 years

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152
Q

How much of a down payment does a borrower need if he doesn’t want to pay PMI?

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%

A

d. 20%

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153
Q

Borrowers with a high-cost loan can rescind the loan with how many business days?

a. 3
b. 7
c. 15
d. There is no rescission
period

A

a. 3

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154
Q

Acceptable income for loan qualification includes:

a. 1 year of sales commissions
b. Disability benefits with 2
years remaining
c. 1 year of unemployment
benefits
d. 2 years of bonuses

A

d. 2 years of bonuses

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155
Q

Who determines the underwriting guidelines for conforming loans?

a. Federal Housing Finance 
    Agency
b. Federal Trade Commission
c. U.S. Department of  
    Housing 
    and Urban Development
d. Fannie Mae
A

d. Fannie Mae

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156
Q

Which appraisal method subtracts a value for depreciation?

a. Sales Comparison
b. Cost
c. Income Capitalization
d. Gross Income Multiplier

A

b. Cost

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157
Q

What is the Fannie Mae appraisal report form?

a. USPAP
b. HVCC
c. USAPP
d. URAR

A

d. URAR

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158
Q

What lien has the highest priority and is paid off first when a property is sold?

a. Property tax
b. Senior mortgage lien
c. Mechanics lien
d. Judgement lien

A

a. Property tax

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159
Q

What document is assigned along with mortgage

a. Deed
b. GFE/Loan Estimate
c. HUD-1/Closing Disclosure
d. Promissory note

A

d. Promissory note

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160
Q

When does the borrower pay the first year of hazard insurance premium?

a. Each month for 12 months
b. Before or at closing
c. 6 months premium paid at
closing; 6 month premium
due 30 day after closing
d. Every 2 months for a total
of 6 payments during the
first year after closing

A

b. Before or at closing

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161
Q

How many times may a loan originator receive credit for the same continuing education coarse?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. No limit

A

a. 1

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162
Q

What type of valuation takes into account annual rent as well as other generated income?

a. Sales comparison
b. Cost
c. GRM
d. GIM

A

d. GIM

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163
Q

What term describes the process of a senior mortgage lien-holder voluntarily changing into a junior mortgage lien holder?

a. Demotion
b. Assignment
c. Alienation
d. Subordination

A

d. Subordination

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164
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate adjustment in a market data appraisal?

a. The comp has a two-car 
    garage and the subject has 
    a on-car garage. Subtract 
    $5,000 from the comp's 
    sale price
b. The subject has a pool and 
    the comp doesn't. Subtract 
    $15,000 from the subjects's 
     estimated value
c. The comp has a fireplace 
    and subject doesn't. Add 
    $1,200 to the comp's sale 
     price
d. The subject has a dirty 
    yard, and the comp is 
    professionally landscaped. 
    Add $8,000 to the 
    subjects estimated value.
A
a. The comp has a two-car 
    garage and the subject has 
    a on-car garage. Subtract 
    $5,000 from the comp's sale 
     price
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165
Q

Which of the following is NOT a valid component of a contract

a. Competent parties
b. Mutual agreement
c. Down payment
d. Legal object

A

c. Down payment

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166
Q

Which of the following is NOT a valid requirement for a deed

a. Names of the seller and the 
    buyer
b. Must be signed in blue ink
c. Legal description of the 
    property
d. Signed by grantor and two 
     witnesses
A

b. Must be signed in blue ink

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167
Q

Which of the following is NOT required for self-employed qualification?

a. 2 years business tax returns
b. 60 day pay stub
c. Company balance sheet
d. Company profit and loss
statement

A

b. 60 day pay stub

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168
Q

Ginnie Mae:

a. Buys and sells loans
b. Regulates loan originators
c. Guarantees Ginnie-Mae
Mortgage-backed
securities
d. Sets guidelines for
government loans

A

c. Guarantees Ginnie-Mae

Mortgage-backed securities

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169
Q

Which law requires lenders to train employees to recognize the Red Flags of Identity.

a. Homeowner's Protection 
    Act
b. Fact Act
c. Gramm-Leach-Bliley
d. Dodd-Frank
A

b. Fact Act

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170
Q

A California residential loan originator referred a borrower to a Florida residential loan originator. The California loan originator can receive a referral fee.

a. Only if he is also licensed in 
    Florida
b. Only if the Florida loan 
    originator is a licensed in 
    California
c. Only with written 
    permission from the lender
d. Never
A

d. Never

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171
Q

Which law requires loan originators to shred credit reports?

a. Homeowner's Protection 
     Act
b. Fact Act
c. Gramm-Leach-Bliley
d. No such law
A

d. No such law

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172
Q

Higher-priced loans for a flipped home require a second appraisal that is:

a. Performed by a different 
    appraiser at no charge to 
    the borrower
b. Performed by a different 
    appraiser and paid for by 
    the borrower
c. Performed by the same 
    appraiser using different 
    comparables at no charge 
    to the borrower
d. Performed by the same 
    appraiser using different 
    comparables and paid for 
    by the borrower
A

a. Performed by a different
appraiser at no charge to the
borrower

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173
Q

If a consumer makes an inquiry to a company, the company can call for:

a. 6 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 18 months

A

b. 3 months

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174
Q

Which of the following is NOT a loss mitigation option?

a. Loan modification
b. Refinance
c. Deed-in-leu
d. Foreclosure

A

d. Foreclosure

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175
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the primary mortgage market?

a. Commercial bank
b. Seller financier
c. Insurance company
d. Credit union

A

c. Insurance company

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176
Q

Which is NOT a possible indication of a short sale fraud?

a. Buyer is a business partner 
    of the seller
b. Seller has a poor credit 
    history
c. Seller has an excellent 
    credit history
d. The property appraised 
    significantly below 
    neighboring properties
A

b. Seller has a poor credit

history

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177
Q

An individual with a good credit history who is paid to represent himself as a buyer is a :

a. Straw buyer
b. Particular buyer
c. Promotion buyer
d. Demotion buyer

A

a. Straw buyer

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178
Q

A deficiency judgement occurs when a:

a. Borrower needs additional 
    down payment funds
b. Seller wins a breach of 
     contract lawsuit against 
     the buyer
c. Lender sues for borrower's 
    personal assets to pay 
    balance of the note
d. Borrower needs additional 
     private mortgage insurance
A

c. Lender sues for borrower’s
personal assets to pay
balance of the note

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179
Q

What type of fraud occurs when a loan originator submits and closes on loan application with multiple lenders?

a. Chunking
b. Equity skimming
c. Buy and bail
d. Phantom sale

A

a. Chunking

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180
Q

What type of fraud occurs when a loan originator changes a borrower’s birth date to make him appear older

a. Reverse mortgage
b. Equity skimming
c. Buy and bail
d. Phantom sale

A

a. Reverse mortgage

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181
Q

What type of of funding occurs when a lender borrows money from an investor and assigns the mortgage and note to the investor immediately after closing?

a. Warehouse
b. Table
c. Direct investor
d. Temporary

A

b. Table

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182
Q

What is the practice called when a real estate agent only shows Hispanic buyers properties in Hispanic neighborhoods?

a. Redlining
b. Steering
c. Blockbusting
d. Conversion

A

b. Steering

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183
Q

What is the practice called when a real estate agent spreads rumor that a specific ethnic group is planning to move into the neighborhood and advises residents to sell before property values drop?

a. Redlining
b. Steering
c. Blockbusting
d. Conversion

A

c. Blockbusting

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184
Q

What is the term used when a lender allows a tenant’s improvements to be applied toward down payment funds when the tenant purchase the home?

a. Home improvement funds
b. Restoration funds
c. Sweat equity
d. Good faith money

A

c. Sweat equity

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185
Q

Anything that affects title to a property such as liens, easements or restrictions is a (an):

a. Encumbrance
b. Barrier
c. Covenant
d. Egress

A

a. encumbrance

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186
Q

What is the general term for the security pledged for the payment of a loan?

a. Repository
b. Collateral
c. Transaction account
d. Good faith

A

b. Collateral

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187
Q

Purchase issues that must be resolved before closing are called

a. Dynamics
b. Resolutions
c. Contingencies
d. Operations

A

c. Contingencies

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188
Q

Local laws that control the use of the land are called:

a. Dynamics
b. Resolutions
c. Contingencies
d. Zoning

A

d. Zoning

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189
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a warranty deed?

a. Guarantees the seller is 
    true owner of the property
b. Guarantees the seller has 
     the legal right to sell
c. Guarantees that there are 
     no undisclosed lies on the 
     property
d. Guarantees that the sale 
     price is fair and reasonable
A

d. Guarantees that the sale

price is fair and reasonable

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190
Q

Monthly income before taxes and other deductions is known as:

a. Gross income
b. Net income
c. Assured income
d. Household income

A

a. Gross income

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191
Q

What protects lenders against losses when a borrower defaults on a loan?

a. Transactional account
b. Mortgage insurance
c. Deed restrictions
d. Title insurance

A

b. Mortgage insurance

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192
Q

Which federal agency guarantees mortgage back securities that are based on FHA and VA loans?

a. FHA
b. VA
c. Ginnie Mae
d. Fannie Mae

A

c. Ginnie Mae

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193
Q

The lowest possible interest rate for an ARM loan is known as the:

a. Floor
b. Basin
c. Basement
d. Ground

A

a. Floor

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194
Q

An FHA reverse mortgage loan is a:

a. FHARM
b. HECM
c. RMFHA
d. UFFHA

A

b. HECM

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195
Q

What type of deed transfers ownership without making any guarantee of clear title?

a. General warranty deed
b. Special warranty deed
c. Power of attorney deed
d. Quitclaim deed

A

d. Quitclaim deed

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196
Q

What is the difference between the purchase price and the mortgage amount

a. Good faith money
b. Escrow
c. Down payment
d. Discount points

A

c. Down payment

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197
Q

What is a claim against a property for the payment of a debt?

a. Lien
b. Title
c. Egress
d. Arbitration

A

a. Lien

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198
Q

What is the interest rate commercial banks charge their most creditworthy customers?

a. Partial rate
b. Prime rate
c. Premium rate
d. Preferred rate

A

b. Prime rate

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199
Q

What is the current name for the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation?

a. Fannie Mae
b. Freddie Mac
c. FHA
d. Fed

A

b. Freddie Mac

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200
Q

The most common mortgage that a private lender has is a conventional mortgage, but what exactly is this type of mortgage?

A. An insured mortgage.

B. A government-backed mortgage.

C. A private lender mortgage.

D. An endorsed FHA mortgage.

A

Correct answer: C
C is correct because a conventional mortgage is the most popular private
lender loan you can get for a home. Three factors best categorize a conventional mortgage: no government insurance, high-interest rates, and high credit rating requirements.

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201
Q

There are a host of reasons why a conventional mortgage is popular
with clients, these reasons are seen plainly in the following benefits:

A. The loan has no government insurance.

B. The loan has high income and credit score constraints.

C. Larger down payment requirements than a government loan with lower
fees.

D. A set interest rate that is often less than other loans.

E. All the above.

A

Correct answer: E
E is correct because a conventional mortgage has no government insurance
allowing an applicant to save money on paying for insurance on top of other
fees (if they pay 20% or more). It also comes with higher income and credit score requirements that leads to lower interest rates that are often set for a period. It is these benefits which make them perfect for the average person that wants to secure a home loan

202
Q

Despite not being a selling point, does a conventional mortgage still offer insurance?

A. Yes.

B. No.

A

Correct answer: AA is correct because although most borrowers that secure
a conventional mortgage have a high credit rating, lenders may want to
have some insurance that the loan will be paid back, so they will include
PMI in their mortgage fees. Known as PMI, this is insurance that will cover
the lender if the mortgage goes unpaid. Those that pay less than 20% on a
down payment will often need to pay PMI fees.

203
Q

It has been stated numerous times that conventional mortgages are very popular, but why is this the case when it isn’t the cheapest or lowest interest rates?

A. Most mortgage borrowers already have good credit scores, incomes, and
sufficient funds.

B. Conventional mortgages offer flexibility and various loan features.

C. Conventional mortgages have no loan limits.

D. They offer lower down payment rates than other mortgages on the market.

E. A & B.

A

Correct answer: E
E is correct because conventional mortgages offer a great range of benefits
for the average mortgage. This includes the fact that most people who
commit to a home loan have good credit scores, stable incomes, and
sufficient funds, so they are the perfect candidates for this mortgage. They
also offer flexibility and various loan features that other mortgages do not,
such as having fewer restrictions than government-backed loans and fewer
fees. C and D are incorrect, as conventional mortgages have loan limits and
encourage higher down payments of 20% or more to save on money paying
extra for house insurance.

204
Q

Conventional mortgages are a great loan option for the average
client that helps them save money. Of course, it isn’t just an option for
those that have a 20% down payment ready to go, so what are the
lowest down payment requirements for a conventional mortgage?
A. There are no limits.
B. 1%
C. 3%
D. Conventional loans are not very flexible, with a 20% limit.

A

Correct answer: C
C is correct because the lowest down payment a lender will accept on a
conventional mortgage is 3%. However, most choose 20% because larger
down payments of 20% or above mean you do not need to get the PMI
insurance set in place for the lender in case the borrower defaults on
payments. A, B, and D are incorrect as conventional mortgages have a
downpayment minimum of 3% or more, and it is a very flexible loan
despite these restrictions.

205
Q

A conventional mortgage gives borrowers the power to choose their down payment down to 3% of the total amount, but what is the requirement for paying 20% or less for a down payment?

A. That a borrower takes out private mortgage insurance (PMI).

B. That the borrower agrees to more significant repayments.

C. A borrowers agrees to make another down payment at an agreed-upon
date to make it 20%.

D. Any of the above.

A

Correct answer: AA is correct because lenders must ensure they are covered
if their applicant defaults on repayments. PMI is the private lender’s version
of government insurance, except if the applicant pays the 20% down payment, they do not need to opt into PMI if they desire. This is set to below 20% to encourage higher down payments to save both parties money in the long term. B through D are incorrect as a borrower cannot be forced
to make more repayments or a second down payment to ensure a 20% down
payment is achieved.

206
Q

It can be confusing what the exact requirements for a conventional
loan are exactly. So, what are the credit score requirements of conventional compared to government ones?

A. A low credit score.

B. A high credit score of 620 or above.

C. No credit history.

D. A & B

A

Correct answer: B
B is correct because although there is no set amount, the higher the credit score (620), a borrower will get approved for a conventional mortgage. Having no credit history will make it challenging to secure a conventional mortgage loan.

207
Q

Conventional loans offer many benefits to applicants who have great finances. Do conventional mortgages give borrowers high credit scores and low interest rates?

A. Yes.

B. No.

A

Correct answer: AA is correct because the higher the credit score, the
borrower has access to better mortgage loans that have lower interest rates.
However, the interest rates of conventional mortgages are higher than
government-insured loans by a small margin, so they do not offer ‘the
lowest.’ However, the upside is they don’t pay PMI if the downpayment is
20% or above.

208
Q

The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA is implemented as:

a. Regulation B
b. Regulation X
c. Regulation A
d. Regulation Z

A

b. Regulation X

209
Q

Which government agency enforces the RESPA regulations?

a. CFPB
b. FCC
c. FHA
d. FTC

A

a. CFPB; Consumer Financial Protection Bureau

210
Q

RESPA is concerned with:

a. Kickbacks
b. Credit reports
c. Triggering terms in ads
d. U.S. security

A

a. Kickbacks

211
Q

Good Faith Estimate/Loan Estimate must be sent to the borrower within how many business days of receiving a loan application?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

A

b. 3 days

212
Q

The special Information Booklet must be sen to to the borrower within how many business days of receiving a loan application?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

A

b. 3 days

213
Q

The mortgage Servicing Disclosure Statement must e sent to the borrower within how many business days of receiving a loan application?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

A

b. 3 days

214
Q

How often must a summary of escrow activity statement be sent to a borrower?

a. Once a month
b. Once every 3 months
c. Once every 6 months
d. Once every year

A

Once every year

215
Q

RESPA requires which of the following to be given to the borrower when the loan servicer changes?

a. Servicing Transfer 
    Statement
b. Good Faith Estimate
c. Truth in Lending Disclosure
d. Initial Escrow Statement
A

a. Servicing Transfer Statement

216
Q

When must a referring party give the affiliated Business Arrangement Disclosure to the consumer?

a. Within 3 days of loan 
    application
b. Within 15 days of the loan 
    application
c. At or prior to the time of 
    referral
d. At closing
A

c. At or prior to the time of

referral

217
Q

A borrower is entitled to request an obtain a copy of the HUD-1 Settlement Statement how many days before closing?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

A

a. 1 day

218
Q

After an escrow account analysis, money must be refuded if the over-paid amout equals or exceeds:

a. $50
b. $100
c. $250
d. $500

A

a. $50

219
Q

The servicer has how many days to notify the borrower if the servicing rights have been sold and are being transferred to another company?

a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

A

d. 15 days

220
Q

A borrower who makes a timely payment to the old servicer after a loan transfer, can be penalized after how many days if he still is not sending the payment to the correct servicer.

a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 120

A

b. 60 Days

221
Q

What is the maximum criminal penalty for a kickback violation?

a. $500 and 6 months in 
     prison
b. $1000 and 6 months in 
    prison
c. $10,000 and a year in 
     prison
d. $25,000 and a year in 
     prison
A

c. $10,000 and a year in prison

222
Q

The HUD-1 Settlement Statement is required for what type of transaction?

a. Cash purchase of a condo
b. Financed purchase of a
warehouse
c. Reverse mortgage
d. Cash purchase of a strip
mall

A

c. Reverse Mortgage

223
Q
The maximum escrow cushion that a lender can require is:
a. 1/6 of total yearly 
    disbursements
b. 1/3 of total yearly 
    disbursements
c. 1/2 of total yearly 
    disbursements
d. 3/4 of total yearly 
    disbursements
A

a. 1/6 of total yearly

disbursements

224
Q

The lender has how many days after settlement to refund any portion of charges on the HUD-1 that exceeded the acceptable variance?

a. 15
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60

A

b. 30 days

225
Q

The Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA) is implemented as:

a. Regulation B
b. Regulation X
c. Regulation A
d. Regulation Z

A

a. Regulation B

226
Q

ECOA allows an applicant to have a copy of his:

a. Credit score
b. Credit report
c. Property appraisal report
d. Bank records

A

c. Property appraisal report

227
Q

What government agency enforces ECOA?

a. FCC
b. HUD
c. CFPB
d. FHA

A

c. CFPB

228
Q

A lender can discriminate base on:

a. Age
b. Sex
c. Credit history
d. Race

A

c. Credit history

229
Q

How many days does a lender have after receipt of an application to notify the applicant of its action on the application?

a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60

A

c. 30 days

230
Q

How many days does an applicant have after receipt of an adverse notice to request a statement of reasons from the lender?

a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60

A

d. 60 days

231
Q

How many days does a lender have to send a statement of reasons for an adverse action after receiving a request from an applicant?

a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60

A

c.30 days

232
Q

The Truth-in-Lending Act (TILA ) is implemented as:

a. Regulation B
b. Regulation X
c. Regulation D
d. Regulation Z

A

d. Regulation Z

233
Q

The Truth-in-Lending Act (TILA) was implemented by the:

a. Federal Reserve Board
b. Fannie Mae
c. Federal Bureau of
Investigation
d. Federal Express

A

a. Federal Reserve Board

234
Q

The Truth-in-Lending Act (TILA) is administered by:

a. DVA
b. FCC
c. FHA
d. CFPB

A

d. CFPB

235
Q

The TILA disclosure must be given to the applicant within how many days after receiving the signed loan application for a reverse mortgaged?

a. 3 business days
b. 5 business days
c. 7 business days
d. 14 business days

A

a. 3 days

236
Q

Which of the following is NOT a trigger term?

a. 5% interest rate
b. 200 monthly payment
c. Lowest rates in town
d. 48 easy payments

A

c. Lowest interest rates in town

237
Q

The Right of Rescission does not apply to:

a. Refinance loans
b. Second Mortgage
c. Home improvement
d. First mortgage on a
purchase

A

d. First mortgage on a

purchase

238
Q

The TILA must be re-disclosed if the APR for a fixed-rate loan changes by more than:

a. 1/8%
b. 1/2%
c. 3/4%
d. 1%

A

a. 1/8%

239
Q

HOEPA considers a loan to be high cost if the total charges to the borrower exceed what percent of the loan amount?

a. 4%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 12%

A

b. 5%

240
Q

The Truth-in-Lending Disclosure must be delivered within how many business days prior to closing a reverse mortgage?

a. 3
b. 7
c. 10
d. 15

A

b. 7 days

241
Q

The APR must be finalized at least how many days before closing?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

A

b. 3 days

242
Q

The Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) was implemented by the:

a. Department of Housing and 
    Urban Development
b. Department of Veteran 
    Affairs
c. Federal Communication 
    Commission
d. Federal Reserve Board
A

d. Federal Reserve Board

243
Q

HMDA is also known as:

a. Regulation B
b. Regulation C
c. Regulation X
d. Regulation Z

A

b. Regulation C

244
Q

HMDA does NOT:

a. Send lending quotas for 
    protected classes
b. Require loan amounts to 
    be reported
c. Require the location of the 
    property to be reported
d. Require the race of the 
    borrower to be reported
A

a. Set Lending Quotas for

protected classes

245
Q

Which of the following is NOT required HMDA borrower information?

a. Loan amount
b. Gender
c. Race
d. Age

A

d. Age

246
Q

The Fair Credit Reporting Act is enforced by

a. HUD
b. FCC
c. FHA
d. FTC

A

d. FTC Federal Trade

Commission

247
Q

Bankruptcies can be kept in the credit report for:

a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years

A

d. 10 years

248
Q

Tax liens can be kept in the credit report for:

a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years

A

c. 7 years

249
Q

Which of the following is NOT a credit repository?

a. FICO
b. TransUnion
c. Experian
d. Equifax

A

FICO

250
Q

Borrows are entitled to a free credit report if the lender takes adverse action against them and they ask for their report with how many days of receiving notice of the action?

a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 120

A

b. 60 days

251
Q

Which Act includes provision to protect consumers personal financial information held by financial institutions?

a. Real Estate Settlement 
    Procedures
b. Fair and Accurate Credit 
    Transaction
c. Truth-in-Lending 
d. Gramm-Leach-Bliley
A

d. GLB, Gramm-Leach-Bililey

252
Q

Which Act requires companies to give consumers privacy notices?

a. Real Estate Settlement 
    Procedures
b. Fair and Accurate Credit 
    Transaction
c. Truth-in-Lending 
d. Gramm-Leach-Bliley
A

d. GLB, Gramm-Leach-Bililey

253
Q

What is the fine for Do Not Call violations?

a. $3,000
b. $49,000
c. $42,530
c. $60,000

A

c. $42,530

254
Q

A company with which a consumer has an established business relationship may call for how many months after the consumer’s last purchase?

a. 6
b. 13
c. 18
d. 24

A

c. 18 months

255
Q

If a consumer makes an inquiry or submits an application to a company, the company can call for how many months?

a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12

A

a. 3 months

256
Q

What organization is allowed to call numbers on the Do Not Call List?

a. Loan originators
b. Charities
c. Car dealerships
d. Dry cleaners

A

b. Charities

257
Q

The Fair Credit and Accurate Credit Transaction Act:

a. Prohibits kickbacks to title 
    companies
b. Provides that all 
    information in a credit 
    report is verified
c. Allows consumers one free 
    credit report per year from 
    each repository
d. Changes credit scoring to 
    a 1-5 ranking system
A

c. Allows one free credit report
per year from each
repository.

258
Q

Who does the consumer contact if he has questions about his credit score?

a. Credit Reporting Agency
b. Lender
c. Title company
d. Appraiser

A

a. Credit Reporting Agency (CRA)

259
Q

The range of possible credit scores is:

a. 200-900
b. 300-850
c. 400-700
d. 500-1000

A

b. 300-850

260
Q

The Red Flag Rule is:

a. Identity theft
b. kickbacks
c. Disclosure of the APR
d. Regulation of interest rates

A

a. Identity theft

261
Q

The Red Flag Rule is part of the:

a. Truth-in-Lending Act
b. Real estate Settlement
Procedures Act
c. SAFE Act
d. Fair and Accurate Credit
Transaction Act

A
d. Fair and Accurate Credit 
    Transaction Act (FACTA)
262
Q

Which of the following is a creditor as defined by the Red Flag Rule?

a. Mortgage broker
b. Beauty shop
c. Grocery store
d. Appraiser

A

a. Mortgage Broker

263
Q

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a company’s Red Flags program?

a. Be in writing
b. Identify and detect
warning signs of identity
theft
c. Detail appropriate
responses to the warning
signs
d. Managed by the Human
Resources department

A

d. Managed by the HR

department

264
Q

If a loan estimate is mailed, it must be mailed how many days before loan consummation?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

A

d. 7 days

265
Q

A lender has how many days to refund excessive variances on a Closing Disclosure?

a. 10
b. 30
c. 60
d. 90

A

c. 60 days

266
Q

A change to which of the following does NOT trigger a new 3 day waiting period?

a. Seller credits buyer money 
    for landscaping
b. APR
c. Loan product
d. Addition of a prepayment 
    penalty
A

a. Seller credits buyer money

for landscaping

267
Q

How many business days before loan consummation is a borrower entitled to see a revised Closing Disclosure that did not trigger an additional 3-day waiting period?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

a. 1 day

268
Q

How many days before loan consummation is a seller entitled to see the Closing Disclosure?

a. 0 (closing day)
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

A

a. 0 (Closing day)

269
Q

When a consumer requests the cancellation of their escrow account, the lender has how many business days prior to closing the account to deliver an Escrow Closing Notice?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 10
d. 30

A

b. 3 days

270
Q

When a lender cancels an escrow account for a reason other than default or termination caused by refinancing, refinancing, repayment or rescission, they have how many business days prior to closing the account to deliver an Escrow Closing Notice?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 10
d. 30

A

d. 30 days

271
Q

For how many years must a lender retain the Loan Estimate?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

b. 3 years

272
Q

For how many years must the lender retain the Closing Disclosure?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

d. 5 years

273
Q

For how many years must the lender retain the Escrow Cancellation Notice?

a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years

A

a. 2 years

274
Q

For how many years must a lender retain the Partial Payment Policy?

a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years

A

a. 2 years

275
Q

The borrower must receive the Closing Disclosure how many business days before the consummation?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

c. 3 days

276
Q

Which of the following is not delivered to a reverse mortgage applicant?

a. TILA Disclosure
b. Loan Estimate
c. Good Faith Estimate
d. HUD1

A

b. Loan Estimate

277
Q

Which of the following is not protected from discrimination by the Fair Housing Act?

a. HIV patients
b. Elderly
c. Pregnant women
d. Mexicans

A

b. Elderly

278
Q

ECOA requires that a loan application is retained for how long after a denial?

a. 6 months
b. 25 months
c. 26 months
d. 60 months

A

c. 25 months

279
Q

What should a loan originator do if an applicant refuses to disclose their nationality?

a. Leave it blank
b. Refuse the application
c. Select the box with their
best guess
d. Pester the applicant until
they answer

A

c. Select the box with their best

guess

280
Q

What should a loan originator do on a Loan Estimate address field when the borrower request a pre-approval?

a. Leave it blank
b. Enter one or more zip
codes of likely locations
c. enter the applicants
personal address
d. Deny the loan application

A

b. Enter one or more zip codes

of likely locations

281
Q

How many housing counseling agencies must be listed on the Housing Counseling Disclosure?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

A

d. 10

282
Q

What entity does HUD oversee?

a. Department of Health
b. Federal Housing
Administration
c. Department of Veterans
Affairs
d. Consumer Financial
Protection Bureau

A

b. Federal Housing

Administration

283
Q

What is the maximum term for A HOEPA balloon bridge loan?

a. 12 months
b. 24 months
c. 36 months
d. 60 months

A

a. 12 months

284
Q

A borrower must indicate an Intent to proceed within how many business days after receiving the Loan
Estimate?

a. 3
b. 10
c. 15
d. 30

A

b. 10 days

285
Q

Which law enacted mandatory cancellation of PMI under certain circumstances?

a. Truth-in-Lending
b. RESPA
c. Homeowner Protection Act
d. Equal Credit Opportunity
Act

A

c. Home Owner Protection Act

(HPA)

286
Q

What is the minimum number of hours for loan originator pre-licensing education?

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

A

b. 20 hours

287
Q

What is the minimum number of hours for annual loan originator continuing education?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 12

A

c. 8 hours

288
Q

Which of the following do NOT need to be a licensed loan originator?

a. Independent contractors 
    who are loan originators
b. Independent contractors 
    who are underwriters
c. Independent contractors 
    who are loan processors
d. Federally chartered bank 
     employees
A

d. Federally Chartered bank

employees

289
Q

Which of the following does NOT have to be submitted by a loan originator applicant?

a. Credit report authorization
b. Criminal background
check authorization
c. References
d. Finger prints

A

c. References

290
Q

Mortgage loan originator licenses renew

a. Every 6 months
b. Every year
c. Every 2 years
d. Every 3 years

A

b. Every Year

291
Q

The minimum passing score on the SAFE loan originator licensing exam is:

a. 65%
b. 75%
c. 80%
d. 90%

A

b. 75%

292
Q

What is the maximum number of times the SAFE exam can be consecutively taken?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

b, 3 times

293
Q

What is the minimum number of days a student must wait between his first two SAFE exam retakes?

a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60

A

c. 30 days

294
Q

After three consecutive attempts to pass the SAFE exam, what is the minimum amount of time a student must wait before trying again?

a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 9 months

A

c. 6 months

295
Q

Which of the following is NOT an immediate family member?

a. Adopted brother
b. Aunt
c. Grandfather
d. Stepmother

A

b. An Aunt

296
Q

What may be true of registered loan originators?

a. They are independent 
    contractors
b. They must take the 
     national loan originator 
     exam
c. They are bank employees
d. They are licensed loan 
    originators
A

c. They are bank employees

297
Q

Which of the following must be a licensed loan originator?

a. Commercial loan originator
b. Independent contractor
who is an underwriter
c. Supervised loan processor
employee
d. An individual who
negotiates the terms of his
own mortgage loan

A

b. Independent contractor who

is an underwriter.

298
Q

How often must a mortgage company submit a report on their financial condition?

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Annually
d. Every 2 years

A

c. Annually

299
Q

What is the maximum fine for a SAFE Act violation?

a. $1,000
b. $5,000
c. $15,000
d. $25,000

A

d. $25,000.00

300
Q

Returning MLOs must retake the national exam after how many years of ?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

A

d. 5 years

301
Q

The mortgagor is the:

a. Lender
b. Borrower
c. Mortgage broker
d. Real estate Agent

A

b. Borrower

302
Q

The mortgagee is the:

a. Lender
b. Borrower
c. Mortgage broker
d. Real estate agent

A

a. Lender

303
Q

Mortgages are a (n):

a. Involuntary lien
b. Voluntary lien
c. Special Assessment
d. Mechanics lien

A

b. Voluntary lien

304
Q

What establishes the lien position

a. Date and time of signing
b. Date and time the loan
was approved
c. Date and time of recording
d. Date and time of the title
search

A

c. Date and time of recording

305
Q

Junior mortgages are:

a. Involuntary liens
b. Limited to 30 year terms
c. Limited to a total of 2
d. Voluntary liens

A

d. Voluntary lien

306
Q

Which is NOT a promise by the mortgagor?

a. Keep the home in good 
    repair
b. Obey all state and county 
    laws
c. pay the hazard insurance
d. pay the mortgage payment
A

b. Obey all state and county

laws

307
Q

What is the enforcement of a lien?

a. Arrest
b. Bankruptcy
c. Foreclosure
d. Mediation

A

c. Foreclosure

308
Q

A lender may choose NOT to take a Legal action upon default and this is known as:

a. Forbearance
b. Exculpation
c. Fortitude
d. Deficiency

A

a. Forbearance

309
Q

Which clause allows the lender to increase the interest rate?

a. Acceleration clause
b. Escalation clause
c. Deficiency judgement
d. Exculpatory clause

A

b. Escalation

310
Q

Which is NOT beneficial to a developer?

a. Blanket mortgage
b. Subordination clause
c. Development clause
d. Partial release clause

A

c, Development clause

311
Q

Which is not essential for a valid contract

a. $2,000 in reserves
b. Competent parties
c. Consideration
d. Mutual agreement

A

a. $2,000 in reserve

312
Q

Tenancy in Common does NOT have:

a. Equal or unequal 
    ownership
b. Buy at same or different 
    times
c. Multiple owners
d. Right of survivorship
A

d. Right of survivorship

313
Q

How many days after settlement does the lender have to send the Satisfaction of Mortgage letter?

a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days

A

d. 60 days

314
Q

When there is no new note and the original buyer retains all the liability. this is known as transferring
title by

a. Creative financing
b. Assumption
c. Novation
d. Subject to the mortgage

A

d. Subject to the mortgage

315
Q

The assignor:

a. Transfers contract rights
b. receives contract rights
c. Must be a United States
citizen
d. Must b an attorney

A

a. Transfers contract rights

316
Q

Which of the following is not an involuntary lien?

a. Judgement lien
b. Mortgage lien
c. Mechanics Lien
d. IRS tax lien

A

b. Mortgage lien

317
Q

The pledging of property as collateral for a loan:

a. Defeasance
b. Hypothecation
c. Exculpation
d. Intermediation

A

b. Hypothecation

318
Q

The conveyor of the deed is the:

a. Grantor
b. Lender
c. Grantee
d. Mortgagor

A

a. Grantor

319
Q

The receiver of the deed is the:

a. Grantee
b. Grantor
c. Mortgagee
d. Assignee

A

a. Grantee

320
Q

Which document is not recorded?

a. Note
b. Satisfaction of Mortgage
c. Mortgage
d. Deed

A

a. The Note

321
Q

The borrower’s IOU is the:

a. Mortgage
b. Note
c. Loan-to Value Ratio
d. Equity

A

b. The Note

322
Q

A clause in some mortgages which allows subsequent mortgages on the same property to have a higher claim than the current mortgage is a:

a. Subordination clause
b. Penalty clause
c. Privilege clause
d. Inferior clause

A

a. Subordination clause

323
Q

Which of the following includes the Right of Survivorship?

a. Good faith Estimate
b. Tenants in Common
c. Joint Tenancy
d. Truth-in-Lending disclosure

A

c. Joint Tenancy

324
Q

The document conveying title from one party to another and guaranteeing that the title is good is known as a:

a. Good Faith
b. Warranty Deed
c. Usury limit
d. Red Flags document

A

b. Warranty Deed

325
Q

The mortgage lien on an entire tract of land is known as

a: Buy-down mortgage
b. Chattel mortgage
c. Blanket mortgage
d. Pillow mortgage

A

c. Blanket mortgage

326
Q

Liens which are subsequent to the first recorded mortgage lien are known as:

a. Junior liens
b. Unavailable lien
c. Estoppel liens
d. Homestead liens

A

a. Junior liens

327
Q

What percentage of of a FHA loan is insured?

a. 100%
b. Is partially guaranteed
c. Has a 5% late fee
d. Is not assumable

A

a. 100%

328
Q

FHA maximum loan amounts:

a. Are set by the U.S. 
    Department of State
b. Do not include the Up 
    Front Mortgage Insurance 
    Premium
c. Are set at $500,000
d. Are set at $1,000,000
A

b. Do not include the Up Font
Mortgage Insurance
Premium. (UFMIP)

329
Q

A VA mortgage does not include:

a. It is partially guaranteed
b. It has mortgage insurance
premium
c. It has a 4% late fee
d. No required down payment

A

b. Mortgage insurance

premium

330
Q

A VA appraisal is known as a:

a. Qualified appraisal
b. Certificate of reasonable
value
c. Certificate of market value
d. VA designated market
appraisal

A

b. Certificate of reasonable

value.

331
Q

A USDA loan has:

a. 100% financing
b. No income limits
c. A 5% late fee
d. Has no geographical
restrictions

A

100% financing

332
Q

A conventional mortgage does NOT have a

a. 3% minimum down 
    payment
b. 5% late fee
c. Due on sale clause
d. Borrower income limit
A

d. Borrower income limit

333
Q

Interest rates are set by:

a. FHA
b. Lenders
c. VA
d. Fannie Mae

A

b. Lenders

334
Q

A reverse mortgage is an example of

a. Positive amortization
b. Negative amortization
c. Lender error
d. Bridge loan

A

b. Negative amortization

335
Q

In an adjustable rate mortgage:

a. Index+Fulling indexed    
    rate= 
    margin
b. Fully indexed 
    rate+margin=index
c. Index+margin= fully index 
    rate
d. Index-margin= fully indexed 
    rate
A

c. Index + Margin = fully

indexed rate

336
Q

Which of the following is expressed as basis points in an adjustable rate mortgage

a. Index
b. Margin
c. Fully indexed rage
d. Term

A

b. Margin

337
Q

A 2/3/7 ARM ha a:

a. Lifetime cap of 2%
b. Lifetime cape of 3%
c. Lifetime cap of 7%
d. Lifetime cap of 10%

A

c. Lifetime cap of 7%

338
Q

If a 15 year ARM has a starting interest rate of 5% and has an adjustment rate cap of 2% and a lifetime cap of 8%, what is the maximum interest rate that can be charged for the first adjustment period?

a. 5 1/4%
b. 5 1/2%
c. 7%
d. 13%

A

c. 7%

339
Q

A term mortgage is NOT:

a. Non-amortizing
b. Interest only
c. Satisfied by a final lump
sum payment
d. Fully amortized

A

d. Fully amortized

340
Q

A graduated payment mortgage

a. Is for college graduates 
    only
b. Has payments that start 
    low and increase over time
c. Has payments that start 
    high and decrease over 
    time
d. Is only for borrowers with a 
    minimum age of 62
A

b. Has payments that start low

and increase over time

341
Q

Borrower’s equity equals

a. Appraised value-loan 
    balance
b. Appraised value-down 
    payment
c. Loan balance+down 
    payment
d. Loan balance-down 
    payment
A

a. Appraisal value - loan

balance

342
Q

Escrow impounds are collect by the:

a. Lender
b. Attorney
c. Police
d. Seller

A

a. Lender

343
Q

Private Mortgage Insurance (PMI) is required for:

a. FHA loans
b. VA loans
c. Jumbo loans
d. Conventional loans when
there is less than a 20%
down payment

A

d. Conventional loans when
there is less than a 20%
down payment

344
Q

What type of mortgage has a fixed interest rate and increasing payments?

a. Adjustable rate mortgage
b. Package mortgage
c. Growing equity mortgage
d. Wraparound mortgage

A

c. Growing equity mortgage

345
Q

The FHA is an agency with the:

a. Department of the Veterans Affairs
b. Department of HUD
c. Department of Fannie Mae
d. Private organization

A

b. HUD Department

346
Q

PITI is the acronym for:

a. Property, insurance, taxes 
    and interest
b. Property, interest, taxes 
     and insurance
c. Principle, insurance  taxes 
    and interest
d. Principle, interest, taxes, 
    and insurance
A

d. Principle, interest, taxes, and

insurance

347
Q

What are the indexes potentially used in an ARM?

a. CD rate
b. The London Inter-Bank
Offered Rate
c. The Chase Fluctuating
Index
d. The New York Times Index

A

b. London Inter-Bank Offered

Rate and the Treasury rate

348
Q

A bi-weekly mortgage is:

a. Is paid every 2 weeks
b. Is paid ever 2 months
c. Is not legal
d. Has no mandatory
payment schedule

A

a. Is paid every 2 weeks

349
Q

Which has the superior lien position?

a. Senior Mortgage
b. Junior Mortgage
c. Mortgages under $250,000
d. First signed mortgage

A

a. Senior Mortgage

350
Q

80 basis points equals what percentage of the loan amount?

a. .08%
b. .8%
c. 8%
d. 80%

A

a. .8%

351
Q

Which lien will most likely have the lowest lien position?

a. Property tax
b. Senior mortgage
c. Junior mortgage
d. IRS tax lien

A

d. IRS tax lien

352
Q

A gift letter does NOT include?

a. Donor,s name
b. amount of the gift
c. Terms of repayment
d. Donor’s address

A

c. Terms of repayment

353
Q

A partially amortized loan which consists of a lump sum payoff at the end of the term is:

a. Balloon mortgage
b. Package mortgage
c. Chattel mortgge
d. Buy-down mortgage

A

a. Balloon mortgage

354
Q

A mortgage with a payment due every 2 weeks is a

a. Package mortgage
b. Bridge loan
c. Bi-weekly mortgage
d. Blanket mortgage

A

a Bi-weekly mortgage

355
Q

A VA appraisal is known as a:

a. Certificate of Eligibility
b. Certificate of Occupancy
c. Certificate of Reasonable
Value
d. Certificate of Domicile

A

c. Certificate of Reasonable

Value

356
Q

The fluctuating economic indicator used in an ARM is
the:

a. Index
b. Margin
c. Collateral
d. Basis point

A

b. the Index

357
Q

A loan in which interest is subsidized for a stated period of time is a:

a. Buy-down mortgage
b. Term mortgage
c. Bridge loan
d. Collateral loan

A

a. Buy-down mortgage

358
Q

Who CANNOT contribute money towards the borrower’s down payment?

a. Employer
b. Real estate agent
c. Domestic partner
d. Borrower’s relative

A

b. Real estate agent

359
Q

What is the maximum FHA seller concession?

a. 3%
b. 4%
c. 6%
d. 9%

A

c. 6%

360
Q

What is the maximum VA seller concession?

a. 3% + standard closing  
    costs
b. 4% + standard closing costs
c. 6% + standard closing  
    costs
d. 9% + standard closing 
    costs
A

c. 6% + standard closing costs
( answer may be simply 4%
for national exam)

361
Q

What is the minimum down payment usually required for non-owner occupied rental property?

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%

A

d. 20%

362
Q

Borrowers must be notified of an ARM rate change how many months before the initial reset?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 9

A

6 months

363
Q

What is the cost of 2 3/4 discount points on s 450,000 loan?

a. $1,237.50
b. $3,375.00
c. $12,375.00
d. $13,750.00

A

c. $12,375.00 Discount points x loan amount

364
Q

There are 10 days left in the month when the loan closes. The purchase price is $325,000. and the loan amount is $280,000. at 6.75% interest. How much interest does the borrower owe for the remainder of the month?

a. $517.81
b. $601.03
c. $720.15
d. $813.22

A

a. $517.81 loan amount x

interest rate/365x10 =

365
Q

The purchase price is $300,000; and the appraisal value is $290,000., and the LTV is 80%. What is the loan amount?

a. $220,000
b. $232,000
c. $240,000
d. $248,000

A

b. $232,000. Loan amount or
appraised value whichever is
lower x the LTV

366
Q

The monthly PITI is $1,000. and the gross monthly income is $5,000. According to standard Fannie Mae guidelines, what is the Housing Expense ratio?

a. 5%
b. 20%
c. 36%
d. 50%

A

b. 20%, PITI x monthly income =

367
Q

An employee works 40 hours a week at 12.50 per hour. What is his gross monthly income?

a. $ 2,000.00
b. $2,166.67
c. $2,245.78
d. $2,400.00

A

b. $2,166.67, Hourly rate x
hours per week x 52 weeks
in a year/12 months=

368
Q

The borrowers October mortgage payment has not yet been received on October 17. He has a 175,000. VA loan; monthly P&I is $1,280.; Annual PMI is $1,800.; annual hazard insurance is 2,400., and annual property taxes are 3,350. What is the late charge?

a. $42.20
b. $48.00
c. $51.20
d. $64.30

A

c. $51.20, P&I x VA
allowable percentage rate
4% =

369
Q

A property originally closed in November 2012. A refinance of that property is closing in March 2013. How many months of hazard insurance will be collected at closing?

a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

A

c. 6 Number of months current
annual policy has been in
effect = 2 months cushion=

370
Q

How many years of home addresses are required on the typical loan application?

a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

A

b. 2 years

371
Q

How many years of employment history may be required on the loan application?

a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

A

b. 2 years

372
Q

What is usually NOT required by a loan applicant?

a. Photo ID
b. Personal references
c. 2 months of bank or
brokerage statements
d. 30 days previous pay stub

A

b. Personnel references

373
Q

Commission, bonus or dividend income is usually averaged over:

a. 1 years
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

A

b. 2 years

374
Q

In order to be counted as income, retirement income must continue for how long after the loan application is
signed?

a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

A

c. 3 years

375
Q

In order to be counted as income, alimony must continue for how long after the loan application is signed?

a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

A

c. 3 years

376
Q

If there is no minimum monthly credit card payment what percent of the balance is used in the calculation of monthly debt?

a. 1%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 10%

A

c. 5%

377
Q

How many months must be left on a car lease payment in order to be included as a debt?

a. More than 1 month
b. More than 5 month
c. More than 10 month
d. Automobile lease payments are always included

A

d. Automobile lease payments

are always included

378
Q

How many months must be left on an installment charge in order to be included as a debt?

a. More than 1 month
b. More than 3 month
c. More than 5 month
d. More than 10 month

A

d. 10 months

379
Q

Fannie Mae total Total Obligation Ratio is:

a. 10%
b. 26%
c. 36%
d. 46%

A

c. 36%

380
Q

Payment for alimony must continue for how long after the application date in order to be included as a debt?

a. 1 month
b. 10 months
c. 2 years
d. 3 years

A

b. 10 months

381
Q

A lock-in agreement does NOT include:

a. Interest rate
b. Expiration date
c. Lock-in-fee
d. APR

A

d. APR

382
Q

Which IRS form does a lender use to verify a applicants income?

a. 2071
b. 321-ml
c. 911-r
d. 4506-T

A

d. 4506-T

383
Q

Fannie Mae requires how many years of credit and public records review?

a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years

A

d. 7 years

384
Q

Bankruptcy can be kept on the credit report for a maximum of:

a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years

A

d. 10 years

385
Q

Credit reports for new construction cannot be older than:

a. 30 days
b. 90 days
c. 120 days
d. 180 days

A

c. 120 days

386
Q

FICO stands for:

a. Federal Interest  
    Corporation
b. Fair Isaac Corporation
c. Freddie,insurance  
    Company
d. Fannie's International Credit 
    organization
A

b. Fair Isaac Corporation

387
Q

If two credit scores are obtained for a single borrower the representative score that is usually used is;

a. The higher score
b. The lower score
c. It doesn’t matter
d. What is the policy of the
Mortgage Broker business

A

b. The lower score

388
Q

If three credit scores are obtained for a single borrower the representative score the is usually used is:

a. The higher score
b. The lower score
c. The middle score
d. What is the policy of the
Mortgage Broker business

A

c. The middle score

389
Q

The maximum age limit for a borrower is:

a. 65
b. 75
c. 85
d. There is no maximum age
limit

A

There is no maximum age limit

390
Q

A guarantor or co-signer signs the:

a. Mortgage
b. Note
c. Deed
d. Mortgage and the note

A

b. Note

391
Q

Which of the following is NOT a national credit repositories?

a. Experian
b. Fannie Mae
c. TransUnion
d. Equifax

A

b. Fannie Mae

392
Q

What minimum percentage of ownership of a business is required for an individual to be considered self-employed?

a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%

A

b. 25%

393
Q

Which of the following is NOT an escrow impound?

a. Title insurance
b. Property insurance
c. Flood insurance
d. Hazard insurance

A

a. Title insurance

394
Q

Fannie Mae generally wants how many months of liquid financial reserves after closing?

a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 4 months

A

b. 2 months

395
Q

A co-borrower whose income is used to qualify must sign the:

a. Mortgage
b. Note
c. Mortgage and the Note
d. They are not required to
sign anything

A

c. Mortgage and the Note

396
Q

Fannie Mae requires a non-qualifying spouse whose income is not used in qualifying to sign the:

a. Mortgage
b. Note
c. Mortgage and the Note
d. They are not required to
sign anything

A

a. Mortgage

397
Q

If a mortgage is secured by the primary residence, Fannie Mae allows how many total properties to be financed?

a. No limit
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

A

a. No limit

398
Q

Which form is used to summarize the information in the loan package?

a. Fannie Mae 1006- 
    Verification of Deposit
b. Fannie Mae 1005 - 
    Verification of Employment
c. Fannie Mae 1008 - 
    Transmittal Summary
d. Fannie Mae 1003 - Loan 
    Application
A

c. Fannie Mae 1008 -

Transmittal Summary

399
Q

Which form is used to verify employment information?

a. Fannie Mae 1006- 
    Verification of Deposit
b. Fannie Mae 1005 - 
    Verification of Employment
c. Fannie Mae 1008 - 
    Transmittal Summary
d. Fannie Mae 1003 - Loan 
     Application
A

b, Fannie Mae 1005 -

Verification of Employment

400
Q

Which form is used to verify bank accounts?

a. Fannie Mae 1006- 
    Verification of Deposit
b. Fannie Mae 1005 - 
    Verification of Employment
c. Fannie Mae 1008 - 
    Transmittal Summary
d. Fannie Mae 1003 - Loan 
    Application
A

a. Fannie Mae 1006 -

Verification of Deposit

401
Q

What piece of information is not required in order to have a legal loan application?

a. Consumer name
b. Consumer monthly income
c. Estimated property value
d. Consumer signature

A

d. Consumer signature

402
Q

Fannie Mae’s automated underwriting system is known as:

a. Loan Prospector (LP)
b. Desktop Underwriter (DU)
c. Daniels Underwriting
System (DUS)
d. Limited Portfolio (LP)

A

b. Desktop Underwriter (DU)

403
Q

Freddie Mac’s automated underwriting system is known as:

a. Loan Prospector (LP)
b. Desktop Underwriter (DU)
c. Daniels Underwriting
System (DUS)
d. Limited Portfolio (LP)

A

a. Loan Prospector

404
Q

Who makes the final decision as to whether a loan will be funded?

a. Automated underwriting 
    system
b. The lender
c. The real estate agent
d. The closing agent
A

b. The Lender

405
Q

The automated underwriting system can NOT be used for what types of loans?

a. FHA
b. VA
c. Conventional
d. Jumbo

A

d. Jumbo loans

406
Q

Who does Fannie Mae hold responsible for the quality of the appraisal?

a. Appraiser
b. Real estate agent
c. Lender
d. Title company

A

c. The lender

407
Q

An appraisal must be re-certified if it is older than:

a. 1 month
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months

A

b. 4 months

408
Q

The most probable price which a property should bring in an open market is:

a. Median price
b. Market value
c. Going rate
d. insurance value

A

b. Market value

409
Q

The highest and best use of the property is not:

a. Legally permissible
b. Physically possible
c. Financially feasible
d. Based on possible future
zoning changes

A

d. Based on possible future

zoning changes

410
Q

The appraisal approach that best applies to residential property is:

a. Sales Comparison 
    Approach
b. Cost Approach
c. Residential Approach
d. Income Capitalization 
    Approach
A

a. Sales Comparison Approach

411
Q

The appraisal approach that best applies to vacant land?

a. Sales Comparison 
    Approach
b. Cost Approach
c. Residential Approach
d. Income Capitalization 
    Approach
A

a. Sales Comparison Approach

412
Q

The appraisal approach that best applies to a school?

a. Sales Comparison 
    Approach
b. Cost Approach
c. Residential Approach
d. Income Capitalization 
    Approach
A

b. Cost Approach

413
Q

What is the minimum number of closed sales comparable that can be used in the Sales Comparison Approach?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 8

A

b. 3

414
Q

What is the most important type of comparable used in the Sales Comparison Approach?

a. Active
b. Pending
c. Closed
d. Expired

A

c. Closed

415
Q

The method used to value income producing properties based on the rental incomes and sales prices of similar properties is call the:

a. GRM
b. BBQ
c. CDR
d. TRA

A

a. GRM

416
Q

In a completion escrow account, what is the minimum estimated repair cost held in trust by the lender?

a. 50%
b. 90%
c. 120%
d. 200%

A

c. 120%

417
Q

A legally binding letter from the lender to the mortgagor stating the terms of the loan is:

a. A Commitment letter
b. A Letter of intent
c. A discover notice
d. A conditional letter

A

a. A commitment letter

418
Q

Who handles complaints regarding mortgage loan rejections?

a. FCC
b. FHA
c. VA
d. CFPB

A

d. CFPB

419
Q

All of the following apply to a mortgagor’s title insurance policy EXCEPT:

a. It is for the amount of the 
    purchase price
b. It is based on loan amount
c. It is optional
d. It is not transferable
A

b. It is based on loan amount

420
Q

Surveys are NOT certified to:

a. Lenders
b. Title insurers
c. Buyers
d. Real estate broker

A

d. Real Estate Broker

421
Q

What gives someone other than the owner the right to be on the property for a specific purpose?

a. Mechanics liens
b. Easement
c. Encumbrance
d. Declaration of intention

A

b. Easement

422
Q

What is a clause in the deed that limits the future use of a property?

a. Deed restriction
b. Encumbrance
c. Title lien
d. Owner’s privilege

A

a. Deed restriction

423
Q

The most common type of legal description for residential subdivision is:

a. Monument method
b. Lot and Block
c. Metes and bounds
d. Government land survey
method

A

b. Lot and Block

424
Q

A fee charged to the borrower for determining whether or not a property was in a flood zone is a:

a. Mapper fee
b. Flood certification fee
c. FEMA fee
d. Reviewer fee

A

b. Flood certification fee

425
Q

Which form is used as the standard settlement form?

a. HUD/1 Closing disclosure
b. FHA Closing Statement
c. U.S.A. Settlement
Statement
d. National Closing
Statement

A

a. HUD-1/Closing Disclosure

426
Q

The day of closing is May 15. When is the first loan payment due?

a. June 1
b. July 1
c. August 1
d. June 16

A

b. July 01

427
Q

The most accurate type of legal description for residential subdivision is:

a. Monument method
b. Lot and Block
c. Metes and bounds
d. Government land survey
method

A

c. Metes and bounds

428
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable source of funds at closing?

a. Sweat equity
b. Cash on hand
c. Personal check
d. Wire transfer

A

d. Wire transfer

429
Q

What type of funding occurs when a lender obtains funds from a line of credit at a commercial bank?

a. Credit lending
b. Table funding
c. Warehouse funding
d. Temporary funding

A

c. Warehouse funding

430
Q

The late fee for FHA and VA loans is:

a. 3% of principle and interest
b. 4% of principle and interest
c. 5% of principle and interest
d. 10% of principle and interest

A

b. 4%

431
Q

When a lender sells a mortgage loan to another lender this is called?

a. Assignment of mortgage
b. Note transfer
c. Vendor selling
d. Linking a mortgage

A

a. Assignment of mortgage

432
Q

When a assignor keeps the servicing rights this is known as:

a. Selling a loan with escrow 
    impounds
b. Selling a loan with 
    servicing released
c. Selling a loan with 
    servicing retained
d. Selling a loan pro norma
A

c. Selling a loan with servicing

retained

433
Q

Ginnie Mae does:

a. Buy loans
b. Sell loans
c. Fund loans
d. Guarantee loans

A

d. Guarantee loans

434
Q

Fannie Mae was established in:

a. 1914
b. 1938
c. 1962
d. 1980

A

b. 1938

435
Q

Fannie Mae will not purchase a mortgage secured by a :

a. Urban area residential 
    property
b. Orchard
c. Rural area residential 
    property
d. Suburban area residential 
    property
A

b. Orchard

436
Q

Which title insurance policy is transferable?

a. Mortgagor
b. Mortgagee
c. Restricted use
d. Conforming

A

b. Mortgagee

437
Q

The title company considers unpaid property taxes to be an:

a. Encroachment
b. Encumbrance
c. Easement
d. Engress

A

b. Encumbrance

438
Q

The principal of value that focuses on the most profitable, legal use to which a property can be put is:

a. Principle of Satisfaction
b. Principle of Substitution
c. Principle of Highest and
Best Use
d. Principle of Conformity

A

c. Principle of Highest and Best Use

439
Q

A Point of Beginning is used in what type of survey?

a. government land survey
b. Plat map
c. Metes and Bounds
d. Circle and Grid

A

c. Metes and Bounds

440
Q

A neighbors fence that crosses over on to another property is an example of an:

a. Encroachment
b. Encumbrance
c. Exculpation
d. Egress

A

a. Encroachment

441
Q

An outstanding claim on a property that limits the ability to sell the property is a:

a. Title defect
b. Subordination
c. Penalty
d. Fault fee

A

a. Title defect

442
Q

The national trade association and voice of the abstract and title insurance industry is:

a. TICOA
b. ATC
c. ALTA
d. TITLE NOW

A

c. ALTA

443
Q

Under the federal fair housing law, the seven protected classes include:

a. Race, color source of 
    income, handicap, national 
    origin, marital status, 
    religion
b. Race, color religion, sex, 
    handicap, familial status, 
    national origin
c. Race , sexual orientation, 
    sex, familial status, 
    handicap, age, national 
    origin
d. Race, color, age, religion, 
    sex, handicap, familial 
    status
A

b. Race, color, religion, sex,
handicap, familial status,
national origin

444
Q

Under RESPA , a real estate professional may give in return for the referral of real estate settlement service business a:

a. Caribbean cruise
b. $50
c. Thank you
d. Kickback

A

c. Thank you

445
Q

A real estate broker may pay a referral fee to:

a. A closing agent
b. A past customer
c. A mortgage broker
d. Another real estate
brokerage firm

A

d. Another real estate

brokerage firm

446
Q

Who can provide closed sales comparables to an appraiser?

a. Real estate agent
b. Underwriter
c. Mortgage broker
d. Lender

A

a. Real estate agent

447
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common type of mortgage fraud?

a. Rehabilitation
b. Equity skimming
c. Inflated appraisal s
d. Property flipping

A

a. Rehabilitation

448
Q

What is the mortgage fraud scam called when a broker invents borrowers properties?

a. Equity skimming
b. Air loan
c. Silent second
d. Property flipping

A

b. Air loan

449
Q

What are the 2 types of mortgage fraud the FBI investigates?

a. Fraud for profit and fraud 
    for housing
b. East coast and west coast 
c. Domestic and international
d. Appraisers and mortgage 
    brokers
A

a. Fraud for profit and fraud for

housing

450
Q

A lender’s refusal to lend in a particular neighborhood is known as:

a. Referential lending
b. Redemption
c. Railroading
d. Redlining

A

d. Redlining

451
Q

A fee charged for the use of money is:

a. Interest
b. Usury
c. Rent
d. Lease

A

a. Interest

452
Q

A mortgage on personal property is a(an);

a. Chattel mortgage
b. Reverse mortgage
c. Ad valorem mortgage
d. Participation mortgage

A

a. Chattel mortgage

453
Q

One discount point equals 1% of the:

a. Purchase price
b. Annual percentage rate
c. Loan amount
d. Appraisal value

A

c. Loan amount

454
Q

Net worth is defined as:

a. Cash plus real property
b. Cash plus stocks and
bonds
c. Assets minus liabilities
d. Liquid assets plus real
property

A

c. Assets minus liabilities

455
Q

The liquidation of a debt by regular, usually monthly installments of principal and interest is:

a. Amortization
b. Hypothecation
c. Assignment
d. Novation

A

a. Amortization

456
Q

The withdrawal of funds out of savings accounts and into stocks and bonds is known as:

a. Intermediation
b. Disintermediation
c. Acceleration
d. Exculpation

A

b. Disintermediation

457
Q

The condemnation of private property for public good is:

a. Eminent Domain
b. Escheat
c. Disintermediation
d. Interstate

A

a. Eminent Domain

458
Q

Notice which is not recorded is known as:

a. Construction notice
b. Actual notice
c. Selective notice
d. Lis pendens notice

A

b. Actual notice

459
Q

Notice which is recorded is known as:

a. Constructive notice
b. Actual notice
c. Selective notice
d. Lis pendens notice

A

a. Constructive notice

460
Q

The use of borrowed funds to increase yield is:

a. Leverage
b. Acceleration
c. Defeasance
d. forbearance

A

a. Leverage

461
Q

A mortgage note that does NOT limit recovery solely from the property is call a:

a. Note endorsed with 
    recourse
b. Hybrid loan
c. Multi-level Loan
d. Non-recourse Note
A

a. Note endorsed with recourse

462
Q

APOR stands for:

a. Average Price of Ratios
b. Annual Percentage of
Refinancing
c. Average Prime Offer Rate
d. Annual Percentage
Reimbursement

A

c. Average Prime Offer Rate

463
Q

A discount point costs?

a. $100
b. $1,000
c. 1 percent of loan amount
d. 10 percent of loan amount

A

1% of loan amount

464
Q

ECOA defines elderly as:

a. 55 years old
b. 62 years old
c. 65 years old
d. 70 years old

A

b. 62 years old

465
Q

The right to use land owned by another is an:

a. Easement
b. Acquisition
c. Exposition
d. Alienation

A

a. Easement

466
Q

The act of lowering the priority of a mortgage lien is:

a. Reduction
b. Subordination
c. Degradation
d. Subtraction

A

b. Subordination

467
Q

A loan offered to a consumer with poor credit is know as:

a. Subjugation
b. Alternative
c. Preliminary
d. Subprime

A

a. Subprime

468
Q

The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA is implemented as:

a. Regulation B
b. Regulation X
c. Regulation A
d. Regulation Z

A

b. Regulation X

469
Q

Which government agency enforces the RESPA regulations?

a. CFPB
b. FCC
c. FHA
d. FTC

A

a. CFPB; Consumer Financial Protection Bureau

470
Q

RESPA is concerned with:

a. Kickbacks
b. Credit reports
c. Triggering terms in ads
d. U.S. security

A

a. Kickbacks

471
Q

Good Faith Estimate/Loan Estimate must be sent to the borrower within how many business days of receiving a loan application?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

A

b. 3 days

472
Q

The special Information Booklet must be sen to to the borrower within how many business days of receiving a loan application?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

A

b. 3 days

473
Q

The mortgage Servicing Disclosure Statement must e sent to the borrower within how many business days of receiving a loan application?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

A

b. 3 days

474
Q

How often must a summary of escrow activity statement be sent to a borrower?

a. Once a month
b. Once every 3 months
c. Once every 6 months
d. Once every year

A

Once every year

475
Q

RESPA requires which of the following to be given to the borrower when the loan servicer changes?

a. Servicing Transfer 
    Statement
b. Good Faith Estimate
c. Truth in Lending Disclosure
d. Initial Escrow Statement
A

a. Servicing Transfer Statement

476
Q

When must a referring party give the affiliated Business Arrangement Disclosure to the consumer?

a. Within 3 days of loan 
    application
b. Within 15 days of the loan 
    application
c. At or prior to the time of 
    referral
d. At closing
A

c. At or prior to the time of

referral

477
Q

A borrower is entitled to request an obtain a copy of the HUD-1 Settlement Statement how many days before closing?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

A

a. 1 day

478
Q

After an escrow account analysis, money must be refuded if the over-paid amout equals or exceeds:

a. $50
b. $100
c. $250
d. $500

A

a. $50

479
Q

The servicer has how many days to notify the borrower if the servicing rights have been sold and are being transferred to another company?

a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

A

d. 15 days

480
Q

A borrower who makes a timely payment to the old servicer after a loan transfer, can be penalized after how many days if he still is not sending the payment to the correct servicer.

a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 120

A

b. 60 Days

481
Q

What is the maximum criminal penalty for a kickback violation?

a. $500 and 6 months in 
     prison
b. $1000 and 6 months in 
    prison
c. $10,000 and a year in 
     prison
d. $25,000 and a year in 
     prison
A

c. $10,000 and a year in prison

482
Q

The HUD-1 Settlement Statement is required for what type of transaction?

a. Cash purchase of a condo
b. Financed purchase of a
warehouse
c. Reverse mortgage
d. Cash purchase of a strip
mall

A

c. Reverse Mortgage

483
Q
The maximum escrow cushion that a lender can require is:
a. 1/6 of total yearly 
    disbursements
b. 1/3 of total yearly 
    disbursements
c. 1/2 of total yearly 
    disbursements
d. 3/4 of total yearly 
    disbursements
A

a. 1/6 of total yearly

disbursements

484
Q

The lender has how many days after settlement to refund any portion of charges on the HUD-1 that exceeded the acceptable variance?

a. 15
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60

A

b. 30 days

485
Q

The Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA) is implemented as:

a. Regulation B
b. Regulation X
c. Regulation A
d. Regulation Z

A

a. Regulation B

486
Q

ECOA allows an applicant to have a copy of his:

a. Credit score
b. Credit report
c. Property appraisal report
d. Bank records

A

c. Property appraisal report

487
Q

What government agency enforces ECOA?

a. FCC
b. HUD
c. CFPB
d. FHA

A

c. CFPB

488
Q

A lender can discriminate base on:

a. Age
b. Sex
c. Credit history
d. Race

A

c. Credit history

489
Q

How many days does a lender have after receipt of an application to notify the applicant of its action on the application?

a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60

A

c. 30 days

490
Q

How many days does an applicant have after receipt of an adverse notice to request a statement of reasons from the lender?

a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60

A

d. 60 days

491
Q

How many days does a lender have to send a statement of reasons for an adverse action after receiving a request from an applicant?

a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60

A

c.30 days

492
Q

The Truth-in-Lending Act (TILA ) is implemented as:

a. Regulation B
b. Regulation X
c. Regulation D
d. Regulation Z

A

d. Regulation Z

493
Q

The Truth-in-Lending Act (TILA) was implemented by the:

a. Federal Reserve Board
b. Fannie Mae
c. Federal Bureau of
Investigation
d. Federal Express

A

a. Federal Reserve Board

494
Q

The Truth-in-Lending Act (TILA) is administered by:

a. DVA
b. FCC
c. FHA
d. CFPB

A

d. CFPB

495
Q

The TILA disclosure must be given to the applicant within how many days after receiving the signed loan application for a reverse mortgaged?

a. 3 business days
b. 5 business days
c. 7 business days
d. 14 business days

A

a. 3 days

496
Q

Which of the following is NOT a trigger term?

a. 5% interest rate
b. 200 monthly payment
c. Lowest rates in town
d. 48 easy payments

A

c. Lowest interest rates in town

497
Q

The Right of Rescission does not apply to:

a. Refinance loans
b. Second Mortgage
c. Home improvement
d. First mortgage on a
purchase

A

d. First mortgage on a

purchase

498
Q

The TILA must be re-disclosed if the APR for a fixed-rate loan changes by more than:

a. 1/8%
b. 1/2%
c. 3/4%
d. 1%

A

a. 1/8%

499
Q

HOEPA considers a loan to be high cost if the total charges to the borrower exceed what percent of the loan amount?

a. 4%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 12%

A

b. 5%

500
Q

The Truth-in-Lending Disclosure must be delivered within how many business days prior to closing a reverse mortgage?

a. 3
b. 7
c. 10
d. 15

A

b. 7 days

501
Q

Which of the following does not include the Right of Survivorship?

a. Good faith Estimate
b. Tenants in Common
c. Joint Tenancy
d. Truth-in-Lending disclosure

A

B. Tenants in Common