MCQs Flashcards
1
Q
- API 577 is a recommended practice that specifically provides guidance for who?
A) All users of the API 577 document B) Both Welding Engineers/Inspectors C) API authorized inspectors only D) AWS Welding Inspectors only
A
C
Reference: Section 1 Scope
2
Q
- API 577 is a recommended practice that covers which of the following: A) Welding inspection for fabrication/repair of Oil & Gas industry pressure equipment B) Welding inspection for fabrication/repair of refinery/chem. plant equipment and piping C) Welding inspection for all activities performed on Oil & Gas industry pressure equipment D) Welding inspection for all activities performed on refinery/chem. plant equipment and piping
A
B
Reference: Section 1 Scope
3
Q
- Which of the following items of knowledge are not covered in API 577 to aid inspectors in fulfilling their role implementing API codes and standards?
A) Common welding processes/welding procedures B) Metallurgical effects from welding C) Welder qualifications D) Welding techniques
A
D
Reference: Section 1 Scope
Correct = Inspection techniques
4
Q
- Which of the following codes and standards of API are covered in API 577 to aid inspectors in fulfilling their role of implementing API codes and standard requirements?
A) API 510, API 570, and API STD 653 B) API 510, API 570, API STD 653, and API RP 582 C) API 510, API 570, API STD 653, API RP 582, and API 578 D) API 510, API 570, API STD 653, API RP 582, API 578, and API 580
A
B
Reference: Section 1 Scope
5
Q
- API 577 intends that welds selected for inspection, and the appropriate inspection techniques, should be determined by (who): A) Welding inspectors, engineers, or other responsible personnel using applicable codes/STDs B) Welding inspectors or other responsible personnel using applicable codes/STDs C) Welding inspectors using applicable codes/STDs D) None of the above are correct
A
A
Reference: Section 1 Scope
6
Q
- Who should be consulted on any critical, specialized or complex welding issues?
A) API Authorized Welding Inspector B) National Board Authorized Inspector C) Welding Inspector D) Welding Engineer
A
D
Reference: Section 1 Scope
7
Q
- Which of these statements are correct regarding all codes and standards referenced by API 577?
(All codes and standards are …) A) Subject to periodic revision, and the most recent revision available should be used B) Subject to periodic revision, and the revision used in construction should be used C) Subject to periodic revision and the most recent revision available shall be used D) Subject to periodic revision and the revision used in construction shall be used
A
A
Reference: Section 2
References Most recent revision should be used
8
Q
- Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers the detailed requirements for Hot Tapping or welding on In-Service Piping?
A) API Publication 2201 B) API Publication 2207 C) API Publication 2217A D) API 582
A
A
Reference: Section 2
References MUST KNOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
9
Q
- Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers the detailed requirements for preparing tank bottoms for hot work?
A) API Publication 2201 B) API Publication 2207 C) API Publication 2217A D) API 582
A
B
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
API Publications
10
Q
- Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers the detailed guidelines for work in inert confined spaces in the Petroleum Industry?
A) API Publication 2201 B) API Publication 2207 C) API Publication 2217A D) API 582
A
C
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
API Publications
11
Q
- Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers supplementary welding guidelines for the Chemical, Oil & Gas Industries?
A) API Publication 2201 B) API Publication 2207 C) API Publication 2217A D) API 582
A
D
Reference: Section 2
References MUST KNOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
12
Q
- Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers Inspection of Pressure Vessels?
A) API 510 B) API 572 C) API 574 D) NB 23
A
B
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
API Publications
13
Q
- Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers Inspection Practices for piping system components?
A) API 570 B) API 572 C) API 574 D) API 575
A
C
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
API Publications
14
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Maintenance, Inspection, Rating, Repair, and Alteration requirements for Pressure Vessels?
A) API 510 B) API 570 C) API 572 D) NB 23
A
A
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
API Publications
15
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and Rerating of In-Service Piping Systems?
A) API 510 B) API 570 C) API 572 D) API 574
A
B
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
API Publications
16
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Material Verification Program for New & Existing Alloy Piping Systems?
A) API 572 B) API 574 C) API 575 D) API 578
A
D
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
API Publications
17
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Process Piping?
A) ASME B31.1 B) ASME B31.3 C) ASME B31.4 D) API 570
A
B
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
ASME Publications
18
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Power Piping?
A) ASME B31.1 B) ASME B31.3 C) ASME B31.4 D) API 570
A
A
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
ASME Publications
19
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Pipe Flanges and Flanged Fittings?
A) ASME B16.5 B) ASME B16.9 C) ASME B16.34 D) None of these are correct
A
A
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
ASME Publications
20
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Factory-Made Wrought Steel Butt-welding Fittings?
A) ASME B16.5 B) ASME B16.9 C) ASME B16.34 D) None of these are correct
A
B
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
ASME Publications
21
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers flanged, threaded, and welding-end valves?
A) ASME B16.5 B) ASME B16.9 C) ASME B16.34 D) None of these are correct
A
C
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
ASME Publications
22
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the specifications for Welding rods, Electrodes, & Filler metals?
A) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part A B) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part B C) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part C D) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part D
A
C
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
ASME Publications
23
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the specifications and properties for Materials?
A) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part A B) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part B C) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part C D) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part D
A
D
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
ASME Publications
24
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers these respective items (Nondestructive Examination, Rules for Construction of Pressure Vessels, & Qualification Standard for Welding Procedures, Welders, and Welding Operators)?
A) ASME B&PVC Section V, Section VIII, & Section IX respectively B) ASME B&PVC Section IX, Section VIII, & Section V respectively C) ASME B&PVC Section VIII, Section V, & Section IX respectively D) ASME B&PVC Section II Part B, Section II Part C, and Section II, Part D respectively
A
A
Reference: Section 2
References Know the
ASME Publications
25
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the recommended practice for Personnel Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing?
A) ASNT Central Certification Program B) SNT-TC-1A C) CP-189 D) None of these
A
B
Reference: Section 2
References MUST KNOW THIS!!!!!!!!!
26
Q
- Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the standard for Qualification and Certification of Nondestructive testing personnel?
A) ASNT Central Certification Program B) SNT-TC-1A C) CP-189 D) None of these
A
C
Reference: Section 2
References MUST KNOW THIS!!!!!!!!!
27
Q
- The shortest distance between the weld root and the face of a fillet weld: A) Theoretical throat B) Fillet weld size C) Effective throat D) Actual throat
A
D
Reference = 3.1 actual throat
28
Q
- A carbon arc cutting process variation that removes molten metal with a jet of air: A) Air carbon arc cutting B) Carbon arc gouging C) AC carbon arc cutting D) DC carbon arc cutting
A
A
Reference = 3.2 air carbon arc cutting (CAC-A)
29
Q
- The deflection of an arc from its normal path because of magnetic forces. A) Arc fluctuation B) Arc length C) Arc blow D) Arc short circuiting
A
C
Reference = 3.3
Arc blow
30
Q
- The distance from tip of the welding electrode to adjacent surface of the weld pool is: A) Arc fluctuation B) Arc length C) Arc blow D) Arc short circuiting
A
B
Reference = 3.4
Arc length
31
Q
- A discontinuity resulting from an arc, consisting of any localized remelted metal, heat- affected metal, or change in the surface profile of any metal object is called: A) Arc fluctuation B) Arc length C) Arc blow D) Arc strike
A
D
Reference = 3.5
Arc strike
32
Q
- A group of welding processes that produces coalescence of work pieces by heating them with an arc. The processes are used with or without the application of pressure and with or without filler metal. This is called: A) Arc welding B) Arc gouging C) Arc blow D) Stud welding
A
A
Reference = 3.6
Arc Welding
33
Q
- A fusion weld made without filler metal is called: A) Arc weld B) Thermite weld C) Autogenous weld D) Stud weld
A
C
Reference = 3.7
Autogenous Weld
34
Q
- The removal of weld metal and base metal from the weld root side of a welded joint to facilitate complete fusion and complete joint penetration upon subsequent welding from that side is called: A) Air carbon arc cutting B) Back gouging C) Carbon arc gouging D) Carbon arc cutting
A
B
Reference = 3.8 back gouging
35
Q
- A material or device placed against the backside of the joint, or at both sides of a weld in welding, to support and retain molten weld metal. A) Insert B) Insert strip C) Consumable insert D) Backing
A
D
Reference = 3.9 backing
36
Q
- The metal or alloy that is welded or cut. A) Base metal B) Oxidized surface C) Carburized surface D) None of these are correct
A
A
Reference = 3.10 base metal
37
Q
- The angle between the bevel of a joint member and a plane perpendicular to the surface of the member is called: A) Bevel face B) Chamfer face C) Bevel angle D) Groove angle
A
C
Reference = 3.11 bevel angle
38
Q
- A non-standard term for excessive visible root reinforcement in a joint welded from one side or a hole through the root bead. Also, a common term used to reflect the act of penetrating a thin component with the welding arc while hot tap welding or in-service welding is called: A) Excessive Penetration B) Burn-Through C) Excessive Root Reinforcement D) None of these are correct
A
B
Reference = 3.12 burn-through
39
Q
- An arc welding power source with a volt-ampere relationship yielding a small welding current change from a large arc voltage change is called: A) Direct current electrode negative B) Direct current electrode positive C) Constant voltage power supply D) Constant current power supply
A
D
Reference = 3.13 constant current power supply
40
Q
- An arc welding power source with a volt-ampere relationship yielding a large welding current change from a small voltage change is called: A) Constant voltage power supply B) Constant current power supply C) Direct current electrode negative D) Direct current electrode positive
A
A
Reference = 3.14 constant voltage power supply
41
Q
- A fracture type discontinuity characterized by a sharp tip and high ratio of length and width to opening displacement is called: A) Hot cracking B) Longitudinal cracking C) Crack D) Lamellar tear
A
C
Reference = 3.15 crack
42
Q
- A discontinuity or discontinuities that by nature or accumulated effect render a part or product unable to meet minimum applicable acceptance standards or specifications, and the term designates rejectability … This is called a: A) Rejectable discontinuity B) Defect C) Recordable indication D) Reportable indication
A
B
Reference = 3.16 defect
43
Q
- The arrangement of direct current arc welding leads in which the electrode is the negative pole and work piece is the positive pole of the welding arc … is called: A) Reverse Polarity B) Positive polarity C) Direct current electrode positive D) Direct current electrode negative
A
D
Reference = 3.17
DCEN STRAIGHT POLARITY
44
Q
- The arrangement of direct current arc welding leads in which the electrode is the positive pole and the work piece is the negative pole of the welding arc … is called: A) Direct current electrode positive B) Direct current electrode negative C) Straight Polarity D) Positive polarity
A
A
Reference = 3.18
DCEP REVERSE POLARITY
45
Q
- An interruption of the typical structure of a material, such as a lack of homogeneity in its mechanical, metallurgical, or physical characteristics that is not necessarily a defect. A) Recordable indication B) Reportable indication C) Discontinuity D) Linear or rounded discontinuity
A
C
Reference = 3.19 discontinuity
46
Q
- The change in shape or dimensions, temporary or permanent, of a part as a result of heating or welding is called: A) Deflection B) Distortion C) Beyond yield stress (yielded) D) Annealed
A
B
Reference = 3.20 distortion
47
Q
- The metal or alloy to be added in making a welded joint … is called: A) Flux B) Fluxing agent C) Fluxing compound D) Filler metal
A
D
Reference = 3.21 filler metal
48
Q
- For equal leg fillet welds, the leg lengths of the largest isosceles right triangle that can be inscribed within the fillet weld cross section … is called: A) Fillet weld size B) Fillet weld throat C) Fillet weld actual throat D) Filler weld effective throat
A
A
Reference = 3.22 fillet weld size
49
Q
- A non-standard term for weld interface is called: A) HAZ B) Weld Heat affected zone C) Fusion line D) Grain boundary
A
C
Reference = 3.23 fusion line
50
Q
- The total included angle of the groove between work pieces is called: A) Bevel angle B) Groove angle C) Weld joint angle D) Fit up angle
A
B
Reference = 3.24 groove angle
51
Q
- The portion of the base metal whose mechanical properties or microstructure have been altered by the heat of welding or thermal cutting is called: A) Fusion line B) Grain boundary C) Weld overlap zone D) HAZ
A
D
Reference = 3.25 HAZ (heat affected zone)
52
Q
- Energy supplied by the welding arc to the work piece that is calculated using voltage, amperage, and weld travel speed … The Formula = (V x amperage) ÷ 60 weld travel speed given in inches/minute … is called: A) Heat input B) Welding supply C) Heat output D) None of these are correct
A
A
Reference = 3.26 Heat Input & Formula Expect a question on the formula
53
Q
- Cracking formed at temperatures near the completion of solidification is called: A) Shrinkage cracking B) Heat affected zone cracking C) Hot cracking D) Grain boundary cracking
A
C
Reference = 3.27 hot cracking
54
Q
- Entrapped foreign solid material, such as slag, flux, tungsten, or oxide is called: A) Lamination B) Inclusion C) Delamination D) None of these are correct
A
B
Reference = 3.28 inclusion
55
Q
- A weld discontinuity in which complete coalescence did not occur between weld metal and fusion faces or adjoining weld beads is called: A) Lack of penetration B) Incomplete joint penetration C) Incomplete joint fusion D) Incomplete fusion
A
D
Reference = 3.29 Incomplete fusion
56
Q
- A joint root condition in a groove weld in which weld metal does not extend through the joint thickness. A) Incomplete joint penetration B) Lack of penetration C) Incomplete joint fusion D) Incomplete fusion
A
A
Reference = 3.30 Incomplete joint penetration
57
Q
- An individual who is qualified and certified to perform inspections under the proper inspection code OR who holds a valid and current National Board Commission is an: A) Authorized Inspector B) Owner/User Inspector C) Inspector D) National Board Inspector
A
C
Reference = 3.31 Inspector
58
Q
- In a multipass weld, the temperature of the weld area between weld passes is called: A) Preheat temperature B) Interpass temperature C) Holding temperature D) None of these are correct
A
B
Reference = 3.32 interpass temperature
59
Q
- The term IQI means this and it is properly called a(n): A) Penetrameter B) Image Penetrameter C) Image Quality Indication D) Image Quality Indicator
A
D
Reference = 3.33 IQI = Image Quality Indicator
No longer a penetrameter
60
Q
- The distance the weld metal extends from the weld face into a joint, exclusive of weld reinforcement is called: A) Joint penetration B) Penetration C) Joint fusion D) Joint complete fusion
A
A
Reference = 3.34 Joint penetration
61
Q
- A weld joint classification based on five basic joint configurations such as a butt joint, corner joint, edge joint, lap joint, and t-joint … is called: A) Weldment B) Weld Joint Class C) Joint Type D) Weld Joint Category
A
C
Reference = 3.35 Joint type
62
Q
- A non-standard term indicating a weld discontinuity in which fusion did not occur between weld metal and fusion faces or adjoining weld beads is called: A) Incomplete joint penetration B) Lack of fusion C) Incomplete joint fusion D) Incomplete fusion
A
B
Reference = 3.36 Lack of Fusion (LOF)
63
Q
- A subsurface terrace and step-like crack in the base metal with a basic orientation parallel to the wrought surface caused by tensile stresses in the through thickness direction of the base metal weakened by the presence of small dispersed, planar shaped, nonmetallic inclusions parallel to the metal surface … is called: A) Lamination B) Transgranular crack C) Hydrogen Assisted Cracking D) Lamellar Tear
A
D
Reference = 3.37 Lamellar tear
64
Q
- A type of discontinuity with separation or weakness generally aligned parallel to the worked surface of a metal is called: A) Lamination B) Transgranular crack C) Hydrogen Assisted Cracking D) Lamellar Tear
A
A
Reference = 3.38 Lamination
65
Q
- A discontinuity with a length that is substantially greater than its width is called: A) Recordable indication B) Reportable indication C) Linear discontinuity D) Rounded discontinuity
A
C
Reference = 3.39 Linear discontinuity
66
Q
- A crack with its major axis orientation approximately parallel to the weld axis is called: A) Transverse Crack B) Longitudinal Crack C) Transgranular Crack D) Lamellar Tear
A
B
Reference = 3.40 Longitudinal
Crack
67
Q
- The act of determining suitability of some material or component for its intended purpose using techniques that do not affect its serviceability is called: A) Evaluation B) Assessment C) Suitability for Service D) NDE
A
D
Reference = 3.41 Nondestructive Examination or NDE
68
Q
- The protrusion of weld metal beyond the weld toe or weld root is called: A) Overlap B) Reinforcement C) Undercut D) Underfill
A
A
Reference = 3.42 Overlap
69
Q
- An oxygen gas cutting process variation that uses acetylene as the fuel gas is called: A) Air carbon arc cutting B) Carbon arc cutting C) Oxyacetylene cutting D) Acetylene cutting
A
C
Reference = 3.43 Oxyacetylene cutting
70
Q
- Any physical evaluation or test of a material (electrode, wire, flux, weld deposit, base metal, etc.), which has been or will be placed into service, to demonstrate it is consistent with the selected or specified alloy material designated by owner/user. These evaluations or tests may provide either qualitative or quantitative information that is sufficient to verify the nominal alloy composition … is called: A) Inspection B) Positive Materials Verification C) Material Receiving Inspection D) Quality Materials Verification
A
B
Reference = 3.44 Positive Materials Identification
71
Q
- The mechanical working of metals using impact blows is called: A) Hammering B) Needle gunning C) Cold working D) Peening
A
D
Reference = 3.45 Peening
72
Q
- Old terminology for IQI still in use today but not recognized by codes & standards is: A) Penetrameter B) Hole-Type IQI C) Wire-Type IQI D) Prenumbra
A
A
Reference = 3.46 Penetrameter
73
Q
- Cavity-type discontinuities formed by gas entrapment during solidification or in thermal spray deposit are called: A) Cold Lap (LOF) B) Rounded discontinuity C) Porosity D) None of these are correct
A
C
Reference = 3.47 Porosity
74
Q
- Metal temperature value achieved in a base metal or substrate prior to initiating the thermal operations is called: A) Interpass temperature B) Preheat temperature C) Ambient temperature D) None of these are correct
A
B
Reference = 3.48 Preheat
75
Q
- Recording on a data sheet of an indication or condition that does not necessarily exceed the rejection criteria but in terms of code, contract or procedure will be documented … is: A) Documented discontinuity B) Documented defect C) Reportable indication D) Recordable indication
A
D
Reference = 3.49 Recordable indication
76
Q
- Recording on a data sheet of an indication that exceeds the reject flaw size criteria and needs not only documentation, but also notification to the appropriate authority to be corrected … is called: A) Reportable indication B) Recordable indication C) Documented discontinuity D) Documented defect
A
A
Reference = 3.50 Reportable* indication
All reportable indications are
77
Q
- The portion of the groove face within the joint root is called: A) Root Opening B) Landing or land C) Root Face D) Groove Face
A
C
Reference = 3.51 Root Face*
was on 2011 exam!!!
78
Q
- A separation at the joint root between the work pieces is called: A) Root Face B) Root Opening C) Landing or land D) Groove Face
A
B
Reference = 3.52 Root Opening
79
Q
- Protective gas used to prevent or reduce atmospheric contamination is called: A) Purging Gas B) Seal Gas C) Acetylene Gas D) Shielding Gas
A
D
Reference = 3.53 Shielding Gas
80
Q
- A nonmetallic product resulting from the mutual dissolution of flux and nonmetallic impurities in some welding and brazing processes is called: A) Slag B) Slag Inclusion C) Porosity D) None of these are correct
A
A
Reference = 3.54 Slag
81
Q
- A discontinuity consisting of slag entrapped in the weld metal or at the weld interface is called: A) Elongated Slag B) Rounded Slag C) Slag Inclusion D) None of these are correct
A
C
Reference = 3.55 Slag Inclusion
82
Q
- Metal particles expelled during fusion welding that do not form a part of the weld are called: A) Arc Strikes B) Spatter C) Slag Inclusion D) Slag covering
A
B
Reference = 3.56 Spatter
83
Q
- A weld made to hold the parts of a weldment in proper alignment until the final welds are made is called: A) Fillet weld B) Groove weld C) Temporary weld D) Tack weld
A
D
Reference = 3.57 Tack weld
84
Q
- The distance from the beginning of the joint root perpendicular to the hypotenuse of the largest right triangle that can be inscribed within the cross-section of a fillet weld, and this dimension is based on the assumption that the root opening is equal to zero … is called: A) Weld theoretical throat B) Weld throat C) Weld actual throat D) Weld effective throat
A
A
Reference = 3.58 Theoretical throat
85
Q
- A crack with its major axis oriented approximately perpendicular to the weld axis is: A) Longitudinal crack B) Hot crack C) Transverse crack D) Lamellar tear
A
C
Reference = 3.59 Transverse
Crack
86
Q
- The angle less than 90 degrees between the electrode axis and a line perpendicular to the weld axis, in a plane determined by the electrode axis and the weld axis is called: A) Bevel angle B) Travel angle C) Groove angle D) Deposition angle
A
B
Reference = 3.60 Travel angle
87
Q
- A discontinuity consisting of tungsten entrapped in weld metal is called: A) Inclusion B) Slag C) Non-metallic inclusion D) Tungsten inclusion
A
D
Reference = 3.61 Tungsten inclusion
88
Q
- A groove melted into the base metal adjacent to the weld toe or weld root and left unfilled by weld metal is called: A) Undercut B) Underfill C) Lack of fusion (LOF) D) Incomplete fusion
A
A
Reference = 3.62 Undercut
89
Q
- A condition in which the weld joint is incompletely filled when compared to the intended design is called: A) Undercut B) Lack of fusion (LOF) C) Underfill D) Incomplete fusion
A
C
Reference = 3.63 Underfill
90
Q
- Written verification that a welder has produced welds meeting a prescribed standard of welder performance is called: A) Welder qualification B) Welder certification C) Welder performance demonstration D) None of these are correct
A
B
Reference = 3.64 Welder
Certification
91
Q
- A joining process that produces coalescence of base metals by heating them to the welding temperature, with or without the application of pressure or by the application of pressure alone, and with or without the use of filler metal is called: A) Thermite welding B) Arc welding C) Semi-automatic welding D) Welding
A
D
Reference = 3.65 Welding
92
Q
- An individual who holds an engineering degree and is knowledgeable and experienced in the engineering disciplines associated with welding is called: A) Welding Engineer B) Welding Specialist C) Quality Welding Specialist D) None of these are correct
A
A
Reference = 3.66 Welding Engineer
93
Q
- An assembly whose component parts are joined by welding is called: A) Weld Joint B) Joint type C) Weldment D) Groove weld or fillet weld
A
C
Reference = 3.67 Weldment
94
Q
- The junction of members or the edges of members which are to be joined or have been joined by welding is called: A) Weldment B) Weld joint C) Groove weld or fillet weld D) None of these
A
B
Reference = 3.68 Weld Joint
95
Q
- Weld metal in excess of the quantity required to fill a joint is called: A) Weldment excess B) Overlap C) Weldment overfill D) Weld reinforcement
A
D
Reference = 3.69 Weld Reinforcement
96
Q
- The junction of the weld face and the base metal is called: A) Weld toe B) Weld fusion zone C) Weld root D) Weld fusion line
A
A
Reference = 3.70 Weld Toe
97
Q
- Welding inspection is a critical part of an overall: A) Weld inspection plan B) Weld quality assurance program C) Quality assurance plan D) Inspection program
A
B
Reference: Section 4.1 Welding Inspection (General)
98
Q
- Welding Inspection includes much more than just the non-destructive examination of the completed weld. Many other issues are important & they include all of these below except: A) Review of specs & welding procedures B) Review of joint design C) Review of cleaning procedures D) Review of Material Verification Program
A
D
Reference: Section 4.1 Welding Inspection (General)
99
Q
- Welding inspection activities can be separated into three stages corresponding to the welding work process and include all of the following except: A) Prior to welding B) During welding C) During audits after weld inspections D) Upon completion of welding
A
C
Reference: Section 4.1 Welding Inspection (General)
100
Q
- What is the most important stage of welding to assure that welding problems are avoided and changes and corrections necessary are made?
A) In the planning and preparation stage before any welding on job begins B) Just immediately before the planned start of welding on a new job C) During the welding of initial production joints D) Either during welding or immediately after
A
A
Reference: Section 4.2 Tasks prior to Welding
101
Q
- Prior to welding, a review of drawings, standards, codes, and specifications is done to: A) Understand the requirements for the welding and identify any inconsistencies B) Ensure that the welder understands the specification and is qualified C) Ensure that the drawings meet the specifications D) None of these are correct per API 577
A
A
Reference: Section 4.2.1
Drawings,
Codes & Standards
102
Q
- Which of the following are NOT Quality Control items to assess prior to welding?
A) Welding symbols, weld sizes, weld joint designs, & weld dimensions are clearly specified B) Weld maps identify welding procedure specification (WPS) used for specific weld joints C) Dimensions are detailed and any potential for distortion has been addressed D) Welding consumables specified are the ones being used in the welding
A
D
Reference: Section 4.2.1.1 QC Items to
Assess Prior to Welding
103
Q
- Which of the following are NOT Quality Control items to assess prior to welding?
A) Proper handling of consumables, if any, has been identified B) Weather protection and wind break requirements have been defined. C) Mechanical properties are identified & required testing has been performed D) Base material requirements have been specified (regarding impact tested materials)
A
C
Reference: Section 4.2.1.1 QC Items to
Assess Prior to Welding
104
Q
- Which of the following are NOT Quality Control items to assess prior to welding?
A) Pressure testing requirements, if any, clearly specified B) Inspection hold-points/NDE requirements met by Contractor C) Preheat requirements and acceptable preheat methods defined D) Post-weld heat treatment (PWHT) requirements and acceptable PWHT method defined
A
B
Reference: Section 4.2.1.1 QC Items to
Assess Prior to Welding
105
Q
- Inspectors shall review requirements for the weldment with the personnel involved with executing the work (prior to work) and this can include all of the following entities except: A) Design engineer B) Welding engineer C) Welding organization D) Project Management organization
A
D
Ref: Sect. 4.2.2 Welding Inspection – weldment requirements Insp Org!
106
Q
- Inspectors shall review requirements for the weldments (prior to work) and this can include all of the following QC items to assess except: A) Competency of inspection organization to supervise work process B) Competency of welding organization to perform welding activities per Codes/STDs/Specs C) Roles/responsibilities of engineers/welding org & inspectors is defined/appropriate for work D) Independence of inspection organization from production organization is clear/demonstrated
A
A
Ref: Sect. 4.2.2.1 Weldment Requirements QC Items to
Assess!
107
Q
- Inspectors reviewing requirements for the weldments (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should take action as follows: A) Make a log entry on the matter and await welding results B) Document the deficiencies thoroughly and await welding results C) Highlight deficiencies and concerns with the organizations to appropriate personnel D) Highlight deficiencies/concerns to the appropriate personnel and demand corrective actions
A
C
Ref: Sect. 4.2.2.2 Weldment Requirements Potential Inspector
Action!
108
Q
- Inspectors shall review welding procedures (WPS) & qualification records (WPQs) prior to work to assure that: A) All procedures & qualification records are completed B) All procedures & qualification records are completed and acceptable for work C) All procedures & qualification records are completed and signed by the Engineer D) None of the above are correct
A
B
Ref: Sect. 4.2.3 Procedures & Qualification Records!
109
Q
- Inspectors reviewing welding procedures & qualification records (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should take all of the following actions EXCEPT: A) Obtain acceptable WPS(s) and PQR(s) for the work B) Qualify WPS(s) where required and witness qualification effort C) Qualify or re-qualify welders as required & witness a percentage of welder qualifications D) Qualify WPQs where required and any PQRs needed & witness a % of welder qualifications
A
D
Ref: Sect. 4.2.3.2 Procedures/Qual records potential inspector action!
110
Q
- Inspectors shall review NDE Information prior to work to assure that: A) Confirm the NDE procedure(s) from inspection organization are acceptable for the work B) Confirm the NDE examiner(s) from inspection organization are acceptable for the work C) Confirm the NDE equipment from inspection organization is acceptable for the work D) Confirm the NDE examiner(s) are certified to ASNT CP-189 standard
A
D
Ref: Sect. 4.2.4 NDE Information!
111
Q
- Inspectors reviewing NDE Information (prior to work) should assess all of the following Quality Control items except: A) NDE examiners are properly certified for the NDE technique B) Condition of the equipment is acceptable C) NDE procedures are current and accurate D) Calibration of NDE equipment is current
A
B
Ref: Sect. 4.2.4.1 NDE Information QC Items to
Assess!
112
Q
- Inspectors reviewing NDE Information (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should take which of these actions?
A) Identify & correct deficiencies in certifications & procedures & obtain calibrated equipment B) Identify & correct deficiencies in certifications & procedures C) Identify & correct deficiencies in certifications D) None of these are correct
A
A
Ref: Sect. 4.2.4.2 NDE Information Potential Inspector
Action!
113
Q
- Inspectors shall check Welding equipment & Instruments prior to work to: A) Confirm Welding equipment & Instruments operate properly and are in good condition B) Confirm Welding equipment & Instruments operate properly and are calibrated C) Confirm Welding equipment & Instruments operate properly D) Confirm Welding equipment & Instruments are calibrated
A
B
Ref: Sect. 4.2.5 Welding equipment & Instruments
114
Q
- Inspectors checking welding equipment & instruments prior to work should assess all of the following Quality Control items except: A) Welding machine calibration is current B) Instruments (ammeters, voltmeters, contact pyrometers) have current calibrations C) Welding cabinets for large quantity storage of hermetically sealed containers exists on job D) Welding consumable storage ovens operate (automatic heat control, visible temp indication)
A
C
Ref: Sect. 4.2.5.1 Welding Equip & Instruments QC Items to
Assess!
115
Q
- Inspectors checking welding equipment & instruments (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should ensure which of these actions is taken?
A) Calibrate equipment and instruments and reject any defective equipment and instruments B) Calibrate equipment and instruments and replace any defective equipment and instruments C) Recalibrate equipment and instruments and replace any defective equipment and instruments D) None of these are correct
A
C
Ref: Sec. 4.2.5.2 welding equip & instrument Potential inspector action
116
Q
- Inspectors shall check Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing procedures/associated equipment prior to work to in order to: A) Confirm Heat Treatment & Pressure testing procedures/associated equipment are acceptable B) Confirm Heat Treatment & Pressure testing associated equipment is acceptable C) Confirm Heat Treatment & Pressure testing procedures are acceptable D) None of these are correct
A
A
Ref: Sect. 4.2.6 Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing
117
Q
- Inspectors checking Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing procedures/associated equipment prior to work should assess all of the following Quality Control items except: A) Heat treatment procedure is available & appropriate & equipment calibrations are current B) Pressure testing equipment & gauges calibrated & meet appropriate test requirements C) Pressure testing procedures are available and detail the testing requirements D) Trained personnel to perform activities have been approved for the work
A
D
Ref: Sect. 4.2.6.1 Heat Treat & Press Testing QC Items to
Assess!
118
Q
- Inspectors checking Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing procedures/associated equipment (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should ensure which of these actions is taken?
A) Obtain calibrated equipment & identify & correct deficiencies in equipment & procedures B) Obtain calibrated equipment & identify & correct deficiencies in procedures C) Obtain calibrated equipment & identify & correct deficiencies in equipment D) None of these are correct
A
B
Ref: Sec. 4.2.6.2 Heat Treat & Press Testing Potential Inspector
Action
119
Q
- Inspectors shall check all Materials (for welding) prior to work to in order to ensure all of the following except: A) Ensure all filler metals, base materials, and backing ring materials are properly identified B) Ensure all filler metals, base materials, and backing ring materials are properly marked C) Ensure material traceability is maintained as per mandatory API 578 requirements D) Ensure PMI is performed (if required) to verify the material composition
A
C
Ref: Sect. 4.2.7 Materials
120
Q
- Inspectors checking Materials prior to work should assess all of the following Quality Control items except: A) Material test certifications are available & items properly marked (incl. back-up rings if used) B) Electrode marking/bare wire flag tags/identification on wire spools as-specified C) Filler material markings are visible and known to the welding organization D) Base metal markings are traceable to a material certification
A
C
Ref: Sec. 4.2.7.1 Matls QC Items to
Assess Filler matl to be traceable
121
Q
- Inspectors checking Materials prior to work should assess all of the following Quality Control items except: A) Paint striping color code meets requirements of PFI-ES-22 B) Recording of filler and base metal traceability information is performed C) Base metal stampings are low stress and not detrimental to the component D) PMI records supplement material traceability/confirm material of construction
A
A
Ref: Sect. 4.2.7.1 Matls QC Items
Color
Code =
Correct for material
122
Q
- Inspectors checking Materials (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should ensure which of these actions is taken?
A) Reject/quarantine non-traceable or improperly marked materials or inappropriate materials B) Have quarantined non-traceable or improperly marked materials or inappropriate materials C) Do not approve non-traceable or improperly marked materials or inappropriate materials D) Reject non-traceable or improperly marked materials and reject inappropriate materials
A
D
Ref: Sect. 4.2.7.2 Materials Potential Inspector
Action
123
Q
- Final tasks upon completion of the weldment and work should include those that assure final weld quality before placing the weldment in service & they include all of these except: A) Document Audit (Perform final audit of Insp dossier to identify inaccuracies/incomplete info) B) Appearance & finish (Verify post-weld acceptance, appearance & finishing of welded joints) C) NDE review (Verify NDE is performed at selected locations & review examiner’s findings) D) Identify non-conformances and defects and take immediate corrective actions
A
D
Ref: Sect. 4.4 (all) TASKS UPON
COMPLETION OF WELDING
124
Q
- Final tasks upon completion of the weldment and work should include those that assure final weld quality before placing the weldment in service & they include all of these except: A) Document Audit (Perform final audit of Insp dossier to identify inaccuracies/incomplete info) B) Appearance & finish (Verify post-weld acceptance, appearance & finishing of welded joints) C) NDE review (Verify NDE is performed at selected locations & review examiner’s findings) D) PWHT (Verify PWHT is performed to the procedure and produces acceptable results) E) Pressure Testing (Verify Pressure Test is performed to the procedure) F) All are incorrect … Time for smoke break because I never do it right
A
F
Ref: Sect. 4.4 (all) TASKS UPON
COMPLETION OF WELDING
125
Q
- If defects or non-conformances (Inspector has work issues) to specification are found by the Inspector, this should be handled when and in what manner (Identify False statement): A) Inspector takes actions on these issues at any time during the welding inspection B) Inspector takes actions on these issues after his welding inspections by report issuance C) Inspector takes steps to ensure correction of the issues before welding proceeds further D) Inspector brings issues to attention of those responsible before welding proceeds further
A
B
Ref: Sect. 4.5 NON-CONFORMANCES
AND
DEFECTS
126
Q
- Which of these statements are false regarding NDE Examiner Certifications?
A) ASME V may require examiners be qualified in accordance with ASNT SNT-TC-1A B) ASME V may require examiners be qualified in accordance with ANSI/ASNT CP-189 C) ASNT SNT-TC-1A & CP-189 are mandatory whenever ASME V code applies to welding D) ASNT SNT-TC-1A & CP-189 are guidelines & STDs for certification of NDE insp personnel
A
C
Ref: Sect. 4.6 NDE Examiner
Certifications
127
Q
- Which of these statements are false regarding Safety Precautions for Welding?
A) The arc is a source of both visible and infrared light, but not ultraviolet light. B) Eye protection using proper filters and proper clothing to cover the skin should be used C) Proper ventilation is necessary to remove air-borne particulates that include vaporized metal D) In areas of inadequate ventilation (confined space), filtered breathing protection may be req’d
A
A
Ref: Sec. 4.7 Safety Precaution Ultraviolet light may cause severe burn
128
Q
- Which of these statements are false regarding Safety Precautions for Welding?
A) Welding can produce sparks and other airborne debris that can burn the eyes B) Ventilation practices in confined spaces should be carefully reviewed before work begins C) Appropriate precautions around welding include eye protection/proper clothing to cover skin D) Use of gas-shielded processes in confined spaces can create a nitrogen-deficient environment
A
D
Ref: Sect. 4.7 Safety Precautions
129
Q
- The inspector should understand the basic arc welding processes most frequently used in the fabrication and repair of refinery and chemical process equipment. These processes include all of the following except: A) Shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) and gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW) B) Submerged arc welding (SAW) and Gas metal arc welding (GMAW) C) Cored flux arc welding (CFAW) D) Stud arc welding (SW)
A
C
Ref: Sect. 5.1 Welding Processes General
130
Q
- Which of these statements regarding SMAW is False?
A) SMAW uses arc heat (coming from tip of consumable covered electrode) to melt base metal B) SMAW shielding is provided from the decomposition of the electrode covering C) SMAW is the most widely used of the various arc welding processes D) SMAW uses an arc between a bare electrode and the weld pool.
A
D
Ref: Sect. 5.2 Welding Processes SMAW
131
Q
- Which of these statements regarding SMAW is False?
A) SMAW uses either ac or dc, depending on welding power supply & electrode selected B) SMAW power supply that is preferred is the CV or constant-voltage power supply C) SMAW is performed without the application of pressure D) SMAW is always a manual welding process
A
B
Ref: Sect. 5.2 Welding Processes SMAW
132
Q
- Limitations associated with the SMAW process include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Slag must be removed before depositing a weld bead adjacent to a previously deposited bead B) Slag must be removed before depositing a weld bead onto a previously deposited weld bead C) Deposition rates are lower than for all other processes (GTAW, GMAW, FCAW, SAW) D) Slag must be removed at stops and starts
A
C
Sec. 5.2.3 Welding Processes SMAW Limitations
such as GMAW is
133
Q
- Which of these statements regarding GTAW is False?
A) GTAW DCEN welding offers advantages of deeper penetration and faster welding speeds B) GTAW uses an arc between a consumable tungsten electrode and the weld pool C) GTAW is used with a shielding gas & without the application of pressure D) GTAW can be used with or without the addition of filler metal
A
B
Ref: Sect. 5.3 Welding Processes GTAW Non-consumable tungsten
134
Q
- Limitations associated with the GTAW process include all of the following EXCEPT: A) The welding equipment is more complex, more costly, and less portable than that for SMAW B) Deposition rates = lower than rates possible with consumable electrode arc welding processes C) GTAW has a low tolerance for contaminants on filler or base metals D) Difficult to shield the weld zone properly in drafty environments
A
A
Sec. 5.3.2 Processes Limitations of GTAW
A = GMAW limitation
135
Q
- Which of these statements regarding GMAW is False?
A) GMAW uses shielding from externally supplied gas and without the application of pressure B) GMAW uses an arc between continuous filler metal electrode and the weld pool C) GMAW uses CC power supply & either short circuiting/globular/spray method D) GMAW may be operated in semiautomatic, machine, or automatic modes only
A
C
Ref: Sect. 5.4 Welding Processes GMAW
C =
CV power supply used
136
Q
- Which of these statements regarding GMAW-S (Short-circuiting transfer) is not true?
A) It creates fast freezing weld pool best suited for joining thin sections/out-of position/root pass B) It covers lowest range of welding currents/electrode diameters associated GMAW processes C) Due to fast-freezing nature of this process, the potential for lack of sidewall fusion exists D) It results in a highly directed stream of discrete drops accelerated by arc forces
A
D
Sec. 5.4.1 Welding Processes
D = GMAW Spray transfer characteristic
137
Q
- Some commonly accepted advantages of the GMAW process include all of these except: A) Minimal post-weld cleaning is required due to absence of slag B) Deposition rates are significantly higher than those with SMAW C) Allows for the excellent control of the root pass weld penetration D) Only consumable electrode process used to weld most commercial metals/alloys
A
C
Sect. 5.4.4 Processes GMAW
Advantages
C = GTAW
Advantage
138
Q
- Limitations associated with the GMAW process include all of the following EXCEPT: A) GMAW has a low tolerance for contaminants on filler metals or base metals B) The welding arc should be protected from air drafts that will disperse the shielding gas C) When using the GMAW-S process, the weld is more susceptible to lack of adequate fusion D) The welding equipment is more complex, more costly, and less portable than that for SMAW
A
A
Sect. 5.4.5 Processes Limitations of GMAW
A = GTAW Limitation
139
Q
- Some commonly accepted advantages of the FCAW process include all of these except: A) Shielding is produced at the weld surface (more tolerant of stronger air currents than GMAW) B) Only consumable electrode process that can be used to weld most commercial metals/alloys C) Slag that supports and shapes the weld bead and flux that provides metallurgical benefits D) High deposition and productivity rates than other processes such as SMAW
A
B
Sect. 5.5.1 Processes FCAW
Advantages A = GMAW
Advantage
140
Q
- Qualified welding procedures detail the steps necessary to make a specific weld and generally consist of all of the following except: A) Details of weld mechanical properties B) Welding process variables C) Details of the weld joint D) A written description
A
A
Ref: Sect. 6.1 Procedures General A = Test data (given in the PQR)
141
Q
- As a minimum, welding procedures qualified to ASME Sect IX are required by all of the following examples where Codes are employed except: A) Construction codes used in fabrication of new equipment & piping (refinery, chemical plant) B) Construction codes used in fabrication of new equipment & piping (water treatment plants) C) API 510 inspection code (repair welding) D) API 570 inspection code (repair welding)
A
B
Ref: Sect. 6.1 Procedures General
B = Tricky
Scope Section 1
142
Q
- Regarding ASME Code requirements, the WPS provides direction to: A) The Inspector overseeing the production welding B) The Engineer overseeing the production welding C) The welder while making production welds D) None of these
A
C
Ref: Sect. 6.1 Procedures General
143
Q
- The PQR is all of the following except: A) Record of welding data used to weld a test coupon B) Record of welding variables used to weld a test coupon C) Record of test results used to qualify the welding procedure D) Record of the welding parameters to be used in the production welds
A
D
Ref: Sect. 6.1 Procedures General
D = WPS is this
Not the PQR!
144
Q
- The purpose of the PQR is to establish the: A) Properties of the weldment B) Suitability of the weldment C) Record for weldment construction D) None of these are correct per API 577
A
A
Ref: Sect. 6.1 Procedures General
145
Q
- The purpose of the WPQ is to: A) Establish welder is capable of welding B) Establish welder is capable of making a quality weld C) Establish welder is capable of making a quality weld using the WPS D) Establish welder is capable of making a quality weld using the WPS & the PQR
A
C
Ref: Sect. 6.1 Procedures General
146
Q
- ASME Section IX requires “WHO” to develop welding procedures?
A) Each owner/user Engineering Organization B) Each owner/user of the equipment C) Each manufacturer & contractor D) Each Inspection Organization
A
C
Ref: Sect. 6.2 Procedures WPS Section
147
Q
- Completed WPS for a welding process addresses: A) All essential variables in a given WPS for a given process. B) All essential and nonessential variables in a given WPS for a given process. C) All essential variables (Including supplemental essential variables if notch toughness is reqd) D) All essential & nonessential variables (supp. essential variables only if notch toughness reqd)
A
D
Ref: Sect. 6.2 Procedures WPS Section
148
Q
- Essential variables affect mechanical properties of the weld. If they are changed beyond what the reference code paragraph allows for the process, the WPS: A) May be used at the Inspector’s discretion B) Must be re-qualified (new PQR employed) C) May be used as the mechanical properties of the weld will not be affected D) May either be re-qualified (new PQR employed) or used at the Inspector’s discretion
A
B
Ref: Sect. 6.2 Procedures WPS Section
149
Q
- When nonessential variables are changed on the WPS, what must be done?
A) May be used at the Inspector’s discretion B) Must be re-qualified (new PQR employed) C) May be changed of the WPS and then used D) May either be re-qualified (new PQR employed) or used at the Inspector’s discretion
A
C
Ref: Sect. 6.2 Procedures WPS Section
150
Q
- Which of these statements are False regarding Supplementary essential variables?
A) They are associated with weld strength & ductility B) They apply when they are specified by the end user C) They are treated as essential variables when they apply D) They apply whenever notch toughness testing is required
A
A
Ref: Sect. 6.2 Procedures WPS Section
151
Q
- The PQR shall record all of the following items except: A) Manufacturer’s certification of accuracy in the qualification of a WPS B) The nonessential variables used to weld a test coupon C) The essential variables used to weld a test coupon D) Coupon test results
A
B
Ref: Sect. 6.3 Procedures PQR Section
152
Q
- Which of these statements are false regarding Mechanical Tests associated with a PQR?
A) Mechanical tests are required to qualify a WPS to demonstrate the properties of the weldment B) Guided bend tests determine the degree of soundness and ductility of a groove weld C) Notch toughness tests determine both the strength and toughness of a groove weld D) Tension tests determine the ultimate strength of a groove weld
A
C
Ref: Sect. 6.3 Procedures PQR Section
153
Q
- Which of these statements is false regarding review of a WPS & PQR per API 577?
A) Inspectors shall review the WPS & PQR to verify they are acceptable for welding to be done B) Initial step verifies WPS completion & Section IX/construction/repair code issues addressed C) 2nd step verifies PQR completion & Section IX/construction/repair code issues addressed D) 3rd step confirms WPS essential variable values properly support range specified in PQR
A
D
Ref: Sec. 6.4 Reviewing WPS & PQR
3rd Step reversed
PQR WPS
154
Q
- Base metals are assigned P-numbers in ASME Section IX to: A) Reduce the number of welding procedure qualifications required B) Reduce the number of welding procedure specifications required C) Reduce the number of welder performance qualifications required D) Reduce number of welding procedure and performance qualifications
A
A
Ref: Section 7.2 Materials P-Numbers
155
Q
- For ferrous base metals having specified impact test requirements, what types of numbers are assigned by ASME IX Code?
A) P-numbers are assigned only B) S-Numbers are assigned as a subgroup of the P-Numbers C) Group numbers within P-numbers are assigned (P-No 1, Group 1, 2, 3, etc) D) Group numbers within P-numbers are assigned (P-No 1, Group A, B, C, etc)
A
C
Ref: Section 7.2 Materials P-Numbers
156
Q
- P-Number assignments are based on all of the following comparable base metal characteristics except: A) Composition B) Weldability C) Mechanical properties D) Welding Process types
A
D
Ref: Section 7.2 Materials P-Numbers
157
Q
- Electrodes and welding rods are assigned F-numbers to: A) Reduce only the number of welder performance qualifications required B) Reduce number of welding procedure and performance qualifications C) Reduce the number of welding procedure qualifications required D) Reduce the number of welding procedure specifications required
A
B
Ref: Section 7.3 Materials F-Numbers
158
Q
- F-number groupings are based essentially on their usability characteristics, which fundamentally determine: A) The chemical composition of the electrode only B) The chemical composition of the electrode and the weldability C) The ability of welders to make satisfactory welds using similar composition filler metals D) The ability of welders to make satisfactory welds using a given process and given filler metal
A
D
Ref: Section 7.3 Materials F-Numbers
159
Q
- Regarding F-Numbers, those welders qualified using a single filler metal (assume E-7018 Electrode having F-4 designation without backing) are qualified to weld with: A) All electrodes having any F-number designation B) All electrodes having the same F-4 designation only C) All electrodes having F-4 designation and all F-1, F-2, & F-3 electrodes D) All electrodes having F-4 designation and all F-1, F-2, & F-3 electrodes (with backing limits)
A
D
Ref: Section 7.3 Materials F-Numbers
160
Q
- An AWS classification number identifies: A) All consumables listed within ASME IX B) Specific consumables listed within ASME IX C) Electrodes and welding rods specified in ASME II, Section C D) None of these
A
C
Ref: Section 7.4 Materials
AWS
Classification Numbers
161
Q
- Steel & Steel alloy filler metals are grouped in ASME IX according to A-numbers to: A) Reduce the number of welding procedure qualifications required B) Reduce the number of welding procedure specifications required C) Reduce the number of welder performance qualifications required D) Reduce number of welding procedure and performance qualifications
A
A
Ref: Section 7.5 Materials
A-Numbers
162
Q
- The A-number grouping in ASME Section IX, Table QW-442 is based on the: A) Chemical composition of the deposited weld metal and the base metal B) Chemical composition of the deposited weld metal C) Tensile strength of filler metal and base metal D) Chemical composition of the base metal
A
B
Ref: Section 7.5 Materials
A-Numbers
163
Q
- Which of these statements are false regarding consumable storage and handling?
A) Covered electrodes exposed to moisture become unstable due to moisture pickup by coatings B) Moisture is a hydrogen source & open consumables should be stored in warm holding ovens C) Low-hydrogen electrodes should be stored together with other types of electrodes in ovens D) Low-hydrogen & stainless steel electrodes are particularly susceptible to moisture pickup
A
C
Ref: Section 7.7 Materials
Consumable Storage & Handling
164
Q
- Welder performance qualification is to establish: A) Welder’s ability to deposit sound weld metal B) Welder’s general level of welding skills C) Welder’s general welding abilities D) None of these are correct
A
A
Ref: Section 8.1 Welder Qualification General
165
Q
- The welder qualification is limited by the: A) Process variables B) Welding position and diameter C) Essential variables given for each process D) None of these are correct
A
C
Ref: Section 8.1 Welder Qualification General
166
Q
- A welder may be qualified by all of the following methods except: A) Initial production welding only B) Bend tests of a test coupon only C) Radiography of a test coupon only D) Tensile tests of the test coupon only
A
D
Ref: Section 8.1 Welder Qualification General
167
Q
- The performance qualification test coupon is to be welded according to the qualified WPS, and the welding is to be supervised and controlled by: A) Owner/user of the facility B) The employer of the welder C) The manufacturer or fabricator D) None of these are correct per API 577
A
B
Ref: Section 8.2 Welder Qualification WPQ
168
Q
- A change in any essential variable listed for the welding process requires the welder to re-qualify for that process. QW-352 through QW-357 in ASME Section IX, list the essential variables and referencing code paragraphs for different welding processes. The variable groups addressed include which of the following: A) Joints, base & filler metals, positions, gas, and electrical characteristics B) Joints, base & filler metals, positions, diameters, gas, and electrical characteristics C) Joints, base & filler metals, positions, diameters, thickness, gas, and electrical characteristics D) None of the above is correct per ASME IX
A
B
Ref: Section 8.2 Welder Qualification WPQ
169
Q
- If radiographic exam is used for qualification of a welder or welding operator, the minimum length of coupon to be examined is any of the following items EXCEPT: A) 3 feet (0.91 meters) for welding operators (ASME IX Rule) B) 6 inches (152.4 mm) minimum in any case (ASME IX Rule) C) The entire circumference for their first three production joints (ASME B31.3 Case) D) The entire weld circumference for pipe coupons (Typically Size 2 NPS & Size 8 NPS used)
A
C
Ref: Section 8.2 Welder Qualification WPQ
170
Q
- Welder performance qualification expires if a welding process is not used during a: A) 3-month period B) Six-month period C) Nine-month period D) Twelve-month period
A
B
Ref: Section 8.2 Welder Qualification WPQ
171
Q
- Welder’s qualification can be revoked if: A) There is reason to question their ability to make welds (NDE results indicate repairs, etc) B) They violate their WPS more than once (includes high repair rates) C) They violate their WPS repeatedly (includes high repair rates) D) None of the above is correct per API 577
A
A
Ref: Section 8.2 Welder Qualification WPQ
172
Q
- What document can be used to verify welder’s qualifications are current?
A) Welder WPS log B) Quality Control log C) Welder Performance Qualification Report D) Welder’s log or Continuity report (ASME IX QW-484, NMA B)
A
D
Ref: Section 8.2 Welder Qualification WPQ
173
Q
- Prior to any welding, inspectors should review the welders’ WPQ to: A) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position & process B) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position, thickness and process C) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position, diameter and thickness D) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position/diam./thickness/process
A
A
Ref: Section 8.3.1 Welder Qualification Reviewing a WPQ
174
Q
- Lack of fusion (Per API 577, Table 6) can be corrected by (Practical Solution Column): A) Proper heat input & proper welding technique B) Reduce travel speed and control arc length C) Proper heat input & proper joint design D) None of these are correct
A
A
Ref: Section 9.1 NDE
Discontinuities (Table 6)
175
Q
- Undercut (Per API 577, Table 6) can be corrected by (Practical Solution Column): A) Proper heat input & proper welding technique B) Reduce travel speed and control arc length C) Proper heat input & proper joint design D) Reduce travel speed
A
D
Ref: Section 9.1 NDE
Discontinuities (Table 6)
176
Q
- Incomplete penetration (Per API 577, Table 6) can be corrected by (Practical Sol. Col): A) Proper heat input & proper welding technique B) Reduce travel speed and control arc length C) Proper heat input & proper joint design D) None of these are correct
A
C
Ref: Section 9.1 NDE
Discontinuities (Table 6)
177
Q
- During welding inspection, the inspector may need to verify the conformance of the base material and filler metal chemistries with the selected or specified alloyed materials. This may include reviewing all of the following EXCEPT: A) Reviewing stamps or markings on the components B) Performing visual material checks C) The certified mill test report D) Requiring PMI testing
A
B
Ref: Section 9.2 NDE Materials Identification
178
Q
- It is the responsibility of the owner/user to establish a written material verification program indicating the extent and type of PMI to be conducted. Guidelines for material control and verification are outlined in: A) API RP 572 B) API RP 574 C) API RP 577 D) API RP 578
A
D
Ref: Section 9.1 NDE Materials Identification
179
Q
- Standards (ASME Section V Article 9) specify lighting levels of (how much) foot candles (lux) at the examination surface?
A) 1000 foot candles (10000 lux) B) 100 foot candles (1000 lux) C) 10 foot candles (100 lux) D) None of these is correct
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.1 NDE VT Optical
Aids
180
Q
- Direct visual examination is conducted when access is sufficient to place the eye: A) Within 6 in–24 in (150–600 mm) of exam surface & at an angle not less than 20ᴼ to surface B) Within 6 in–12 in (150–300 mm) of exam surface & at an angle not less than 20ᴼ to surface C) Within 12in-24 in (300-600 mm) of exam surface & at an angle not less than 20ᴼ to surface D) None of these is correct
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.3 NDE VT Weld exam
Devices
A = 30ᴼ to surface
181
Q
- In the illustration above, what is the weld size?
A) Just below ½ inch (12.7mm) B) Right at ½ inch (12.7 mm) C) Slightly above ½ inch (12.7mm) D) None of these is correct
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.3.C & Fig 17/18 NDE VT Weld exam
Devices
182
Q
- In the illustration above, what is the name of the gauge being used?
A) Bridge Cam Gauge (GAL) B) Fillet Weld Gauge C) Weld Size Gauge D) None of these is correct
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.3.C & Fig 17/18 NDE VT Weld exam
Devices
183
Q
- In the illustration above, what is the actual throat measurement (throat size)?
A) 12.7 mm B) 12.7 mm x .707 = 9 mm C) Cannot be determined by the above D) None of these is correct
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.3.C & Fig 17/18 NDE VT Weld exam
Devices
184
Q
- Magnetic particle examination is effective in: A) Locating surface discontinuities of ferromagnetic materials B) Locating surface or near surface discontinuities of ferromagnetic materials C) Locating surface or near surface discontinuities of ferromagnetic and paramagnetic materials D) None of these are correct
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.4.1 NDE MT General
185
Q
- Which of the following statements is false regarding proper MT practice?
A) Particles used during the exam can be either dry or wet B) Best results are achieved when the lines of flux are perpendicular to the discontinuity C) If exam is performed with black light, color of particles should contrast with exam surface D) Two inspections are performed, one parallel to weld & one across (perpendicular to the weld)
A
C
Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 NDE MT General If performed in normal lighting
186
Q
- Figure 25 above (left) will detect which of these following discontinuities listed below?
A) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only B) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only C) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface only D) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface only
A
A
Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 25 NDE MT General
187
Q
- Figure 26 above (right) will detect which of these following discontinuities listed below?
A) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only B) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only C) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface only D) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface only
A
B
Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 25 NDE MT General
188
Q
- Which of the statements below is FALSE regarding Figure 21 above (left)?
A) Ferromagnetic particles applied to magnetized surface are attracted to magnetic field breaks B) Figure 21 shows the disruption to the magnetic field caused by a defect open to the surface C) Ferromagnetic particles will be drawn to the break in the flux field shown in Figure 21 D) Pattern of particles attracted in Fig. 21 will be less sharp & less distinct than Fig. 22
A
D
Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 21 NDE MT General
189
Q
- Which of the statements below is FALSE regarding Figure 22 above (right)?
A) Ferromagnetic particles applied to magnetized surface are attracted to magnetic field breaks B) Ferromagnetic particles will be drawn to the break in the flux field shown in Figure 22 C) Pattern of particles attracted in Fig. 22 will be more sharp and distinct than Fig. 21 D) Figure 22 shows disruption to a magnetic field caused by a sub-surface defect
A
C
Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 21 NDE MT General
190
Q
- Which of the following statements are false regarding ACFM technique?
A) It can work in a range of different materials and through coatings of varying thickness B) This technique is ideal for inspecting complex geometries such as nozzles & ring-grooves C) It is electromagnetic non-contacting and is able to detect and size surface breaking defects D) It requires extensive surface preparation & can be used at elevated temps up to 600°F (315°C)
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.5 NDE
ACFM
191
Q
- Which of these statements is false regarding the PT technique?
A) It is commonly employed on austenitic SS where MT exams are not possible B) It is capable of detecting surface-connecting discontinuities in nonferrous alloys only C) It can be used to examine weld joint surfaces/individual weld pass checks/completed welds D) Material certs on amounts of contaminants (chlorine, sulfur, and halogens) are to be checked
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.6 NDE PT
192
Q
- A limitation of PT is that standard penetrant systems are limited to a maximum of: A) 125°F (52°C) B) 120°F (49°C) C) 150°F (65°C) D) None of these are correct, because the limit can be exceeded
A
A
Ref: Sect. 9.6 NDE PT
193
Q
- Which of these statements are NOT true regarding techniques used in PT exam?
A) Liquid in any discontinuity bleeds out to stain the powder coating B) Test surface is cleaned & coated with a liquid that seeks surface-connected discontinuities C) After excess surface liquid is removed, a solvent-based developer is normally crush applied D) The greater the bleed out to surface opening ratio, the greater the volume of the discontinuity
A
C
Ref: Sect. 9.6 NDE PT Normally spray applied
194
Q
- Regarding PT exam evaluation, an indication of depth is possible if the Inspector: A) No indication of depth is possible because PT = Surface Exam Method (not volumetric exam) B) Observes and then compares the indication bleed out to the opening size visible at the surface C) Observes indication opening size visible at the surface and then estimates approximate depth D) Observes the indication bleed out at the surface and then estimates the approximate depth
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.6 NDE PT Shallow tight indications = light bleed out
195
Q
- General penetrant TECHNIQUES approved for use include which of the following?
A) Color contrast penetrant technique and the fluorescent penetrant technique B) Solvent removable technique, Water washable technique, & Post emulsifiable technique C) Solvent removable technique, Water washable technique, & Solvent emulsifiable technique D) Solvent removable technique, Water emulsifiable technique & Solvent emulsifiable technique
A
A
Ref: Sect. 9.6.1 NDE Liquid PT Techniques
196
Q
- General penetrant SYSTEMS approved for use include which of the following?
A) Color contrast penetrant technique and the fluorescent penetrant technique B) Solvent removable technique, Water washable technique, & Post emulsifiable technique C) Solvent removable technique, Water washable technique, & Solvent emulsifiable technique D) Solvent removable technique, Water emulsifiable technique & Solvent emulsifiable technique
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.6.1 NDE Liquid PT Techniques
197
Q
- For added sensitivity, which of the following PT techniques may be used to detect fine linear type indications?
A) Fluorescent penetrant (Used in exams in darkened areas with filtered black light) B) Color Contrast Solvent Removable Visible Dye Penetrant (Technique) C) Color Contrast Post emulsifiable Visible Dye Penetrant (Technique) D) Color Contrast Water washable Visible Dye Penetrant (Technique)
A
A
Ref: Sect. 9.6.1 NDE Liquid PT Techniques
198
Q
- Which of these statements are NOT true regarding Eddy Current inspection?
A) Its magnetic fields & material discontinuities alter induced fields/show them on unit’s display B) As with MT, ET is most sensitive (finds the defect) if a current is parallel to the discontinuity C) It can measure thickness of protective, nonconductive surface coatings & cladding thickness D) It detects surface & subsurface discontinuities (tubing, pipe) & is limited in weld inspection
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.7 NDE ET Technique
B
If current is perpendicular
199
Q
- Which of these statements are NOT true regarding Radiographic Testing (RT) method?
A) It uses the change in absorption of radiation by solid metal and in areas of a discontinuity B) It is a volumetric exam method capable of examining entire specimen, not just the surface C) Radiation sent reacts with film & permanent image is captured & processed into latent image D) Some methods are available that use electronics to create a digital image & are called filmless
A
C
Ref: Sect. 9.8.1 NDE RT General
Latent image is first captured
200
Q
- Which of these statements are NOT true regarding Radiographic Testing (RT) methods and examiners?
A) RT indications display a different density in contrast to a normal background image of a weld B) NDT examiner interprets/evaluates the film for differences in absorption/transmission results C) Radiographers ensure film is exposed by primary radiation source (not backscatter radiation) D) Film examiners (interpret/evaluate/report) should be certified ASNT Level I as a minimum
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.8.1 NDE RT General
Level II as a minimum
201
Q
- The exposure and processing of a radiograph is considered acceptable when it meets the required quality features in terms of: A) Density B) Sensitivity C) Sensitivity and density D) Sensitivity, density and film quality
A
C
Ref: Sect. 9.8.1 NDE RT General
202
Q
- Which of these statements is NOT true regarding Image Quality Indicators (IQIs)?
A) STDs for industrial RT require one or more IQIs used to determine required sensitivity is met B) IQI was previously called a penetrameter and this term is still being used in most of the codes C) To assess sensitivity, a required hole or wire (code specified) must be visible on finished film D) IQIs (penetrameter) are tools used in industrial radiography to establish the film quality levels
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.8.2 NDE RT IQI
Penetrameter no longer being used
203
Q
- Which of these statements is NOT true regarding Wire-Type IQIs?
A) Wire to be visible (standard specified) on an acceptable radiograph is called a sensitive wire B) Diameter of smallest visible wire (lighter-white image) indicates sensitivity of radiograph C) They are placed on and perpendicular to the weld prior to the exposure of a radiograph D) They are constructed of an array of six paralleled wires of specified diameters
A
A
Ref: Sect. 9.8.2 NDE RT
The “essential” wire must always be visible
204
Q
- Which of these statements is NOT true regarding Hole-Type IQIs?
A) They are sheets of metal (known thickness) with specified diameter holes drilled or punched B) An indication of film sensitivity = IQI thickness & diameter of smallest visible hole on film C) Their thickness is generally specified at 2 – 4 % of thickness of object being radiographed D) Holes in the IQI are projected on a radiograph as lighter (white or lighter) spots
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.8.2 NDE RT Projected as dark or gray spots
205
Q
- Diameter of holes in hole-type IQIs are a multiple of the thickness of a sheet. Common hole diameters are HOW MANY times the thickness of the IQI shown in Fig. 29?
A) 2% and 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mm B) 1%, 2% & 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mm C) 2% and 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mils (.015 inches) D) 1%, 2% & 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mils (.015 inches)
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.8.2 NDE RT IQIs Projected as dark or gray spots
206
Q
- IQIs (penetrameters) are selected based on which of the following values: A) Thickness of the base material B) Thickness of the base material and the code designation taken from table C) Thickness of the base material plus any code allowed weld reinforcement D) None of these is correct
A
C
Ref: Sect. 9.8.2 NDE RT IQIs
207
Q
- Which of the following statements are NOT true regarding IQIs & their placement?
A) Wire-type IQIs are most often placed perpendicular to weld center line B) Hole-type IQIs are placed next to weld always on a shim where T = the weld build-up C) Hole that is required to be visible on an acceptable radiograph is called the essential hole D) Hole-type IQIs are placed next to weld on a base metal or on a shim (with T = weld build-up)
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.8.2 NDE RT IQIs
208
Q
- Which of the following statements are NOT true regarding RT film?
A) Film must be long & wide enough to cover 25 mm on consecutive circumferential exposures B) Film must be long & wide enough to cover 19 mm coverage on either side of the weld C) Film should be stored in a cool, dry, clean area away from the exposure area D) Radiographic film Class I or II or III film are acceptable for use
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.8.3 NDE RT Film rules Only class I or II is OK
209
Q
- Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding RT film source selection?
A) X-ray machines must also be used in addition to sources with decaying radioisotopes B) For weld inspection, radioactive isotopes of Iridium 192 or Cobalt 60 are typically used C) Iridium 192 is normally used for RT on steel (thickness = 1.5 – 7.0 in. or 38 mm – 178 mm) D) Cobalt 60 is normally used for RT on steel (thickness = 0.25 – 3.0 in. or 6.3 mm – 76.2 mm)
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.8.4 NDE RT Film Source selection
210
Q
- Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding RT film processing?
A) Normal developing time is ten to twelve minutes at 68°F (20°C) B) When temps are higher or lower than 20°C, developing time is to be adjusted C) Exposed film can either be hand-processed, or examiner may use an automatic processor D) Chemicals used to process/develop/fix/rinse film are required to be changed on a regular basis
A
A
Ref: Sect. 9.8.5 NDE RT Film Processing
Five to eight minutes
211
Q
- Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding RT surface preparation?
A) Surface conditions (visual) that can mask a defect should be remedied after the exposure B) Weld ripples shall be removed so that RT images are not confused with any discontinuities C) Weld ripples should be removed so that RT images are not confused with any discontinuities D) Weld ripples should be removed to an extent so RT images are not confused with any defects
A
C
Ref: Sect. 9.8.6 NDE RT Surface Preparation
212
Q
- Which of the following statements is False regarding RT film identification (ID) on all radiographs?
A) ID information should be plainly & permanently produced B) Location markers will also appear on the film identifying the area of coverage C) ID information shall be traceable to contract/manufacturer/date/component/weld or part #s D) ID information will not obscure any area of interest (to prevent to proper film identification)
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.8.7 NDE RT ID To prevent proper film interpretation
213
Q
- Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the most effective RT Technique that can be used?
A) Most effective technique = double-wall exposure (film contacts surface opposite source) B) Most effective technique = single-wall exposure (film contacts surface opposite source) C) Most effective technique = double-wall exposure (film contacts surface nearest source) D) Most effective technique = single-wall exposure (film contacts surface nearest source)
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.8.8 NDE RT Techniques Single wall exposure (Fig 31)
214
Q
- Which of these RT Techniques should be used whenever practical?
A) Double-wall exposure where radiation passes through two walls of the material or weld B) Single-wall exposure where the radiation passes through only one wall of material or weld C) Single-wall viewing where radiation passes through 2 walls (weld & film sidewall viewed) D) Double-wall viewing where radiation passes through 2 walls (weld & film sidewall viewed)
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.8.8.1 NDE RT Techniques Single wall exposure (Fig 31)
215
Q
- When the single wall viewing technique is used (radiation passes through two walls) and only the weld (material) on the film sidewall is viewed for acceptance, what is the minimum number of exposures that should be taken (assume RT for circumferential welds)?
A) Minimum of one exposure is possible using the panoramic technique B) Minimum of two exposures is possible using the superimposed technique C) Minimum of four exposures taken at 90° to each other should be made as a general rule D) Minimum of three exposures taken at 120° to each other should be made as a general rule
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.8.8.2 NDE RT Techniques Single wall viewing
216
Q
- Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the evaluation of Radiographs?
A) The final step in the radiographic process is the evaluation of the radiograph B) Lack of fusion is typically narrow and linear and it tends to be straighter than a crack. C) Interpreters should know different welding processes & discontinuities associated by process D) Rounded indication (porosity/slag) will be less apparent than indication from crack or LOF
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.8.9 & RT Figures NDE RT Evaluation of Radiographs
217
Q
- Transmitted film density through the radiographic image through the body of the hole type IQI in the area of interest should be within what range?
A) 1.8 to 4.0 for x-ray and Gamma Radiography B) 2.0 to 4.0 for x-ray and Gamma Radiography C) 1.8 to 4.0 for x-ray and 2.0 to 4.0 for Gamma Radiography D) 2.0 to 4.0 for x-ray and 1.8 to 4.0 for Gamma Radiography
A
C
Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.3 NDE RT
Density of radiographs
218
Q
- Which of the following may be used to measure and estimate the density of the film?
A) Step wedge density comparison slides B) Density meters or density comparison slides C) Step wedge comparison film or densitometers D) None of these are correct
A
C
Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.3 NDE RT
Density of radiographs
219
Q
- Which of the following statements is correct regarding backscatter radiation?
A) If a dark image letter B appears on a radiograph, it shall be considered unacceptable B) If a light image letter B appears on a radiograph, it shall be considered unacceptable C) If a dark image letter B on a lighter background appears on a film, consider it unacceptable D) If a light image letter B on a darker background appears on a film, consider it unacceptable
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.4 NDE RT
Density of radiographs
220
Q
- A darker density band, with straight parallel edges, in the center of the width of the weld image is: A) Incomplete fusion B) Interpass slag inclusions C) Lack of sidewall fusion D) None of these are correct
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.5 NDE RT Interpretation Incomplete Penetration
221
Q
- Which of these statements is true regarding Ultrasonic display types?
A) A-scan is the most common display type using the y-axis (time of flight) and z-axis (distance) B) B-scan displays show a plan view of the object being tested C) C-scan displays show a cross section view of the object D) None of these are correct
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.9 NDE UT x & y axis
B = cross section,
C = plan view
222
Q
- Which of these statements is false regarding Ultrasonic calibration system checks?
A) Calibration system checks are usually performed every 4 hours (as a minimum) during exams B) Calibration system checks should always be performed prior to & at completion of all exams C) Calibration system checks are required with any change in search unit, cables, and examiner D) Calibration system checks are required whenever a UT examiner changes scanning technique
A
D
Ref: Sect. 9.9.1 NDE UT
223
Q
- Temperature of the calibration standard should be within: A) 25°F of part to be examined B) 50°F of part to be examined C) 75°F of part to be examined D) 100°F of part to be examined
A
A
Ref: Sect. 9.9.1 NDE UT
224
Q
- If calibration system checks determine UT equipment is improperly functioning, all areas tested since the last successful calibration: A) Shall be reexamined B) Should be reexamined C) Can be reexamined at examiners discretion D) Shall be reexamined if the UT procedure says to do so
A
B
Ref: Sect. 9.9.1 NDE UT
225
Q
- The welding process is similar to:: A) Making a forging in a foundry B) Making a casting in a foundry C) Making a rolled wrought pipe D) None of these are correct
A
B
Ref: Sect. 10.2 Metallurgy Structure of Metals &
Alloys
226
Q
- The welding process is similar to:: A) Making a forging in a foundry B) Making a casting in a foundry C) Making a rolled wrought pipe D) None of these are correct
A
B
Ref: Sect. 10.2.1 Metallurgy Structure of Metals &
Alloys
227
Q
A
