Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATLS > MCQs > Flashcards

MCQs Flashcards

1
Q

Ratio of blood products

A

2 RBCs : 1 unit FFP

Once on 4th unit RBC -> platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What blood to ask for in major haemorrhage

A

1 unit O-ve
1 unit type specific
Rest fully crossmatched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

priorities in TBI

A

hyperoxaemia
maintain normal PaCO2
MABP > 90
neurosurgery consult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fluids in resuscitation

A

crystalloids (hartmann’s/saline)

No more than 1L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hypothermia level which increases bleeding x 2

A

35 degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1st marker haemorrhage shock

A 
pulse pressure
(vasoconstriction - increases diastolic pulse pressure - pulse pressure decreases)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

chest drain size pneumothorax

A

28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

chest drain size haemothorax

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

very distressed child

A

intranasal diamorphine 0.1mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

dermatomal/myotomal changes in C5 - where is the injury likely to include to

A

C3 (2 above)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

diaphragmatic supply

A

C3, C4, C5

keeps diaphragm alive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Low BP + low HR + warm

A

neurogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GCS - M total

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

GCS - V total

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GCS - E total

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

M6

A

obeys command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

M5

A

localises to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

M4

A

withdraws from pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

M3

A

abnormal flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

M2

A

abnormal extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

V5

A

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

V4

A

confused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

V3

A

inappropriate words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

V2

A

sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

E4

A

opens spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

E3

A

opens to voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

E2

A

opens to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

pain control chest drain

A

xylocaine - to muscular & nerve level as well as skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

needle decompression/finger thoracotamy/chest drain insertion site

A

5th ICS (nipple level/breast fold), anterior to midaxillary line, above rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

2nd rib at

A

manubrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Inspection for B

A

skin colour, use of accessory muscles, chest wall equally rising, obvious external injuries, seesaw pattern, neck veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Inspection from end of bed C

A

GCS, skin colour, pain/discomfort/agitation, sweating,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Inspection for A

A

foreign bodies, obvious fractures, blood/vomit, dentures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

temperature for warmed fluids

A

39 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Areas of major haemorrhage

A 
chest 
abdo 
pelvis
retroperitoneum 
long bones/limb amputation (on the floor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

TXA Dosing

A

1g within 3 hours

1g over 8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

immediately when walk into scenario

A

C-spine control
then: ask nurse for oxygen, observations, IV access & bloods
collar & blocks & tape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MIST

A

M – Mechanism of injury/illness
I – Injuries (sustained or suspected)
S – Signs, including observations and monitoring
T – Treatment given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bloods in trauma patient

A

VBG, FBC, U&Es, coagulation, G&S, crossmatch, glucose, pregnant test,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Exposure examination

A

perineum, rectum & vagina, log roll for back, MSK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

larynx/trachea injury

A

neck injuries
may cause obstruction due to swelling/bleeding
urgent definitive airway - may need early surgical airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

3Ps of indications for definitive airway

A

Provide - immediate - most qualified in room
Protect - urgent - most qualified in dept
Puff - soon - most qualified in hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

triad of symptoms laryngeal trauma

A

hoarseness, subcut emphysema, palpable fracture

- early definitive airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

triad of symptoms laryngeal trauma

A

hoarseness, subcut emphysema, palpable fracture

- early definitive airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

B examination pattern

A

look, feel (incl percuss), listen (incl HS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how to measure NPA

A

diameter same as little finger, usually right nostril, follow curve of NPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

paralytic for drug assisted intubation

A

1-2mg/kg/ succinylcholine IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

needle size for needle cricothryoidotomy

A

adults 12-14G (orange)
paed 16-18G (grey-green)
can use for 20 mins, 1sec on 4 sec off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

tube size for surgical cicothyroidotomy

A

5-7 in adult

not recommended for children < 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

pulse oximetry accuracy decreased by

A

profound anaemia/hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

sats of >95% correlate with PaO2 of

A

> 70mmHg or 9.3kPa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

shock =

A

loss of end organ perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

best treatment for haemorrhage shock

A

stop the bleeding!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

tachycardia in infant is

A

> 160

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

tachycardia in 1-5 year old

A

> 140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

tachycardia in 5-15

A

> 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

tachycardia in adults

A

> 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

types of shock

A 
haemorrhage 
cardiogenic incl cardiac tamponade/air embolus/MI
tension pneumothorax
neurogenic
septic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

normal adult blood volume is

A

7% of body weight (70kg = 5L) (78ml/kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

normal child blood volume is

A

8-9% of body weight (70-80ml/kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

class 1 haemorrhage approx blood loss

A

15% (750ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

class 1 haemorrhage signs

A 
normal HR
normal BP 
normal pulse pressure 
normal RR 
normal UO 
normal GCS 
base deficit 0 to -2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

class 1 haemorrhage management

A

monitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

class 2 haemorrhage approx blood loss

A

15-30% (750-1.5L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

class 2 haemorrhage signs

A 
normal/high HR
norma BP 
low pulse pressure 
normal RR
normal UO (20-30ml/hour)
normal GCS 
base deficit -2 to -6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

class 2 haemorrhage management

A

IV fluid bolus challenge (500ml-1L)

  • responder - fine leave
  • transient responder/responder - blood transfusion/major haemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

class 3 haemorrhage approx blood loss

A

31-40% (1.5L-2L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

best assessment of fluid ressusc in adults

A

urine output of 0.5ml/kg/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

most important principle for head injury

A

avoid hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

pads urine output target > 1 year

A

1ml/kg/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

succinylcholine onset of action

A

paralysis < 1 min
duration < 5 mins
can cause severe hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

starling’s law

A

muscle fibre length related to contractile properties of myocardial muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

class 3 haemorrhage signs

A 
high HR
normal/low BP
low pulse pressure 
normal/high RR
low urine output 
low GCS 
base deficit -6 to -10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

class 3 haemorrhage management

A

control the bleeding

major haemorrhage protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

class 4 haemorrhage approx blood loss

A

> 40% (>2L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

class 4 haemorrhage signs

A 
high HR
low BP 
low pulse pressure 
high RR 
low UO 
low GCS 
base deficit > -10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

class 4 haemorrhage management

A

control the bleeding
major haemorrhage protocol
anticipate arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

blood loss in tibia/humeral fracture

A

750ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

blood loss in femur fracture

A

1.5L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

blood loss in pelvic fracture

A

2L or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

remember gastric decompression!!

A

can cause unexplained hypotension & cardiac dysrhtymia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

pads < 40kg fluid resuscitation

A

20ml/kg (bolus with 10ml/kg initially)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

urine output target in < 1 year

A

2ml/kg/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

minimum size of need for IV access

A

18G (green)

- aim have grey (16G) or orange (14G) which are bigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

massive transfusion =

A

> 10 units within 24 hours or > 4 units in 1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Ohm’s law

A

BP is proportional to cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
BP (V) = CO (I) x SVR (R)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

tracheobronchial tree injury presentation

A 
LIFE THREATENING
haemoptysis
cervical subcut emphysema
tension pneumothorax 
cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

method for CXRs

A 
identify patient name, DOB, date of XR, & technically ok
outside in 
- foreign bodies
- soft tissues 
- pleura 
- diaphragm
- lungs 
- heart 
- mediastinum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

method for pelvic XRs

A

3 Os - pelvic & ischial
3 joints - pubic symphysis, SIJs & hips
3 lines - schentoins, pubic symphysis, trace bone outlines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

tracheobronchial tree injury diagnosis confirmation

A

bronchoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

how to confirm diaphragm rupture

A

pass NG tube and re XR - will not go below if ruptured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

tracheobronchial tree injury management

A

immediate airway - may require intubation of only the uninjured bronchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

open pneumothorax (sucking chest wound) management

A

dressing attached on 3 sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

massive haemothroax =

A

> 1.5L in one side of chest (if drained immediately/200ml for 2-4 4 hours -> thoracotomy)
- ensure IV access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

kussmaul’s sign

A

rise in venous pressure with inspiration when breathing spontaneously - consider tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

cardiac tamponade management

A

thoracotomy/sternotomy

- needle pericardioscentesis is temporising measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

VF give

A

epinephrine 1mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

causes fo cardiac arrest in trauma

A 
severe hypoxia 
tension pneumothorax 
profound hypovolaemia 
cardiac tamponade 
cardiac herniation 
severe myocardial contusion
severe brain injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

IO sizing

A

paeds - pink
bigger paed (>40kg) - blue
yellow - adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

warfarin reversal

A

FFP
Vit K
prothombin complex concentrate
factor VIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

herparin/LMWH reversal

A

protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

dabigatran reversal

A

idarucizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

DPL positive

A

GI contents, food, oil, >10cc blood in haemodynamically unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

indications for laoporotomy

A 
abdo trauma + HD unstable
GSW transversing peritoneum
evisceration
bleeding from stomach, rectum & GU tract following penetrating trauma
free air/rupture diaphragm 
CT findings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

common diaphragm injury

A

5-10 cm in length & involves posterolateral left hemidaphram

106
Q

open book pelvic fracture commonly in

A

petrol pessary - abrupt stop on motorcycle

107
Q

pelvic binder can stay on for

A

max 12 hours

108
Q

can stay on spinal board for max

A

2 hours

109
Q

monro-kellie doctrine

A

explains ICP (box has limited space)

110
Q

pulse pressure

A

systolic - diastolic

normal > 40mmg

111
Q

MABP

A

diastolic x 2 + systolic

divided by 3

112
Q

cerebral pulse pressure =

A

MAP - ICP

- MAP of 50-150mmhg is auto regulated for constant cerebral blood flow

113
Q

severe brain injury

A

GCS 3-8

114
Q

moderate brain injury

A

GCS 9-12

115
Q

mild brain injury

A

GCS 13-15

116
Q

admission indications for mild brain injury

A

no ct available but is required, CT abnormal, skull fracture, CSF leak
focal neurological deficit
GCS does not return to normal within 2 hours

117
Q

neurosurgery consultation for

A

moderate & severe brain injury

118
Q

CT head for

A

moderate & severe brain injury
mild with - GCS < 15 at 2 hours after, skull fracture suspected, vomiting (> 2), age > 65, anticoagulants, LOC (>5mins), dangerous mechanism, amnesia before impact

119
Q

severe brain injury management

A 
frequent examination 
PaCO2 35-40
mannitol if signs of herniation 
neurosurgery 
consider levetiracetam for seizures
120
Q

seizure in TBI

A

acute - phenytoin loading 1g IV (no faster than 50mg/min)

maintenance - phenytoin 100mg/8hours

121
Q

management of moderate BI

A 
CT
admit 
observe with frequent GCS for 12-24 hours 
neurosurgery 
consider repeat CT at 24 hours
122
Q

mannitol dose

A

1g/kg over 5 mins if signs of herniation

0.25-1g/kg for raised ICP

123
Q

burr hole

A

10-15mm drill hole in skull - use if neurosurgeons not readily available

124
Q

C5 dermatome

A

badge patch

125
Q

C6 dermatome

A

thumb

126
Q

C7 dermatome

A

middle finger

127
Q

C8 dermatome

A

little finger

128
Q

T4 dermatome

A

nipple

129
Q

T8 dermatome

A

xiphisternum

130
Q

T10 dermatome

A

umbilicus

131
Q

T12 dermatome

A

symphysis pubis

132
Q

L4 dermatome

A

medial aspect of calf

133
Q

L5 dermatome

A

webspace between 1st & 2nd toe

134
Q

S1 dermatome

A

lateral border of foot

135
Q

S3 dermatome

A

ischial tuberosity area

136
Q

S4 & S4 dermatome

A

perianal region

137
Q

C5 myotome

A

elbow flexion

138
Q

C6 myotome

A

wrist extension

139
Q

C7 myotome

A

elbow extension

140
Q

C8 myotome

A

finger flexors

141
Q

T1 myotome

A

finger abductors

142
Q

L2 myotome

A

hip flexors

143
Q

L3 myotome

A

knee extension

144
Q

L4 myotome

A

ankle dorsiflexion

145
Q

L5 myotome

A

big toe dorsiflexion

146
Q

S1 myotome

A

ankle plantar flexion

147
Q

S2, 3, 4

A

anal tone

148
Q

injury to what spinal level can cause impairment of sympathetic pathways

A

T6 and above (neurogenic shock)

149
Q

assessment of spine

A

look, feel, patient move

150
Q

corticospinal tract

A

anterior & lateral segments of cord

motor power on same side

151
Q

spinothalamic tract

A

anterolateral cord
pain & temperature on opposite side
- test by pinprick

152
Q

dorsal columns

A

posteromedial aspect
position and light touch on same side
- vibration & proprioception

153
Q

area of greatest flexion & extension in c-spine

A

C5-C6 (most vulnerable)

154
Q

image neck if

A

age > 65
dangerous mechanism
pareasthesia
unable to rotate neck through 45 degrees with no pain

155
Q

do not image neck if

A 
sitting in ED 
ambulatory at arrival 
delayed onset of neck pain 
no midline cervical tenderness
able to rotate neck through 45 degrees
no dangers mechanism 
young 
no neurology
156
Q

screen for carotid/vertebral artery injury

A

in c1-c3 fracture

157
Q

temporal lobe herniation would compress

A 
oculomotor nerve (CNIII)
- pupillary dilation (unopposed sympathetic)
158
Q

uncle herniation

A

corticospinal tract compression - weakness in opposite side of body

159
Q

basilar skull fracture

A

raccoon eyes
battle’s sign
CSF leak from nose/ear
dysfunction of CNs 7 & 8 - facial paralysis/hearing loss

160
Q

BP targets in brain injury

A

50-69years old systolic >100

15-59 years old & > 70 years systolic >110

161
Q

low PaCO2 in BI

A

cerebral vasoconstriction

162
Q

disproportionately greater loss of motor strength in arms & fingers compared to legs & feet
hyperextension injury in C-spine stenosis

A

central cord syndrome

163
Q

paraplegia & bilateral loss of pain & temperature

A

anterior cord syndrome

164
Q

brown-sequard syndrome

A

ipsilateral motor loss (corticospinal) & proprioception (dorsal)
contralateral loss of pain & temp (spinothalamic)

165
Q

metabolic acidosis, high potassium, low calcium, DIC

A

rhabdo

166
Q

ABPI

A

SBP of injured leg divided by SBP of uninjured arm

< 0.9 is abnormal

167
Q

open fracture wound < 1cm minimal contamination

A

cefazolin

if anaphylactic clindamycin

168
Q

open fracture wound 1-10cm, commuinuted fracture§

A

cefazolin

if anaphylactic clindamycin

169
Q

open fracture severe soft tissue damage, substantial contamination

A

cefazolin (if anaphylactic clindamycin) + gentamicin (2.5mg/kg in child, 5mg/kg in adult)

170
Q

open fracture contaminated with farmyard, soil, standing water

A

tazocin (piperacillin + tazobactam)

171
Q

nerve at risk in elbow injury

A

ulnar

- index & little finger abduction, little finger sensation

172
Q

nerve at risk in wrist fracture/dislocation

A

median distal

- thenar contraction with opposition, sensation to tip of index finger

173
Q

nerve at risks in supracondylar fracture of humerus

A

median, anterior interosseous

- index finger flexion

174
Q

Nerve at risk in distal humeral fracture/anterior shoulder dislocation

A

musculocutaenous

- elbow flexion, sensation of lateral forearm

175
Q

nerve at risk in anterior shoulder dislocation/proximal humeral fracture

A

axillary

- motor to deltoid, sensation to lateral shoulder

176
Q

nerve at risk in pubic rami fracture

A

femoral

- knee extension, sensation to anterior knee

177
Q

nerve at risk in obturator ring fractures

A

obturator

- hip adduction, medial thigh sensation

178
Q

nerve at risk in knee dislocation

A

posteror tibial

- toe flexion, sensory to sole of foot

179
Q

nerve at risk in fibular neck fracture/knee dislocation

A

superficial peroneal

- ankle eversion, sensory to lateral dorsal of foot

180
Q

nerve at risk in fibular neck fracture/compartment syndrome

A

deep peroneal

- ankle/toe dorsiflexion, sensation to dorsal 1st & 2nd toe web space

181
Q

nerve at risk in posterior hip dislocation

A

sciatic nerve

- ankle dorsiflexion/plantar flexion, sensation to foot

182
Q

nerves at risk in acetabular fracture

A

superior gluteal
- hip abduction, sensory to upper buttocks
inferior gluteal
- hip extension, sensory to lower buttocks

183
Q

acid or alkali burn worse

A

alkali

184
Q

carboxyhemoglobin < 20%

A

asymptomatic

185
Q

carboxyhemoglobin 20-30%

A

headache & nausea

186
Q

carboxyhemoglobin 30-40%

A

confusion

187
Q

carboxyhemoglobin 40-60%

A

coma

188
Q

carboxyhemoglobin >60%

A

death

189
Q

treatment of carboxyhemoglobin poisoning

A

100% oxygen (decreases T12 from 4 Horus to 40mins) & intubate

190
Q

fluids in shock in burns

A

2ml/kg/% of body surface area burned in first 24 hours
- give 1/2 in first 8 hours
- remaining in subsequent 16 hours
3ml/kg/% body surface burned in paeds

191
Q

fluids in electrical injury

A

4ml/kg/body surface burned

192
Q

repercussion syndrome

A

acidosis, hyperkalaemia, local swelling

193
Q

RR in infant

A

normal 30-40

194
Q

RR in older child

A

normal 15-20

195
Q

needle decompression in paeds

A

just above 3rd rib in midclavicular line - caution when using 14-18G needles
- chest drain same as adult but tunnel along rib

196
Q

< 1 normal HR

A

< 160

197
Q

< 1 normal BP

A

> 60

198
Q

< 1 normal RR

A

< 60

199
Q

< 1 normal UO

A

2ml/kg/hr

200
Q

1-2 yr normal HR

A

<150

201
Q

1-2yr normal BP

A

> 70

202
Q

1-2yr normal RR

A

> 40

203
Q

1-2yr normal UO

A

1.5ml/kg/hr

204
Q

3-5yr normal HR

A

< 140

205
Q

3-5yr normal BP

A

> 75

206
Q

3-5yr normal RR

A

< 35

207
Q

3-5yr normal UO

A

1.0 ml/kg/hr

208
Q

6-12yr normal HR

A

<120

209
Q

6-12yr normal BP

A

> 80

210
Q

6-12yr normal RR

A

< 30

211
Q

6-12yr normal UO

A

1.0ml/kg/hour

212
Q

> 13 normal HR

A

< 100

213
Q

> 13 normal BP

A

> 90

214
Q

> 13 normal RR

A

< 30

215
Q

> 13 normal UO

A

0.5 ml/kg/hr

216
Q

weight estimation paeds

A

(2 x age in years) + 10

217
Q

blood volume in infant

A

80ml/kg

218
Q

blood volume in child 1-3 yrs

A

75ml/kg

219
Q

blood volume in > 3 yrs

A

70ml/kg

220
Q

IO needle infant

A

18G

221
Q

IO needle > 3 yrs

A

15G

222
Q

damage control resuscitation in paeds

A
  1. 10ml/kg bolus crystalloid
    response - fine
    nonresponder/transient - 10-20ml/kg pRBCs + 10-20ml/kg FFPs
223
Q

V5 in < 4yrs

A

appropriate words, social smile, fixes & follows

224
Q

V4 in < 4yrs

A

cries but consolable

225
Q

V3 in < 4 yrs

A

persistently irritable

226
Q

V2 in < 4yrs

A

restless, agitated

227
Q

child tracks movement & holds head steady at

A

3 months

228
Q

child rolls over at

A

6 months

229
Q

child sits without support at

A

7 months

230
Q

child stands whilst cruising at

A

9 months

- should be saying mama/dada at 8 months

231
Q

child crawls at

A

10 months

232
Q

child stands without support for a few seconds at

A

11 months

233
Q

low normal PaCO2 in pregnancy (3.5-4.0)

A

impending resp failure

234
Q

examination mandatory in pregnancy

A

vaginal

235
Q

displace uterus to prevent vena cava compression

A

to the left

15-30 degrees

236
Q

normal fibrinogen in pregnancy

A

?early DIC (usually x2)

237
Q

3 vital signs of the eye

A

vision, pupils, intraocular pressure

238
Q

normal eye pressure

A

8-21mmHg

239
Q

anterior examination of eye

A

periorbita, extra ocular muscles, lids, lashes, lacrimal sacs, conjunctiva, sclera, cornea, iris, anterior chamber and lens

240
Q

posterior examination of eye

A

red reflex, optic nerve, retina

241
Q

decreased vision, elevated eye pressure, asymmetrical eye bulge, resistance to retropulsion and “rock hard eye” (tight eyelids agains globe)

A

retrobulbar haemorrhage with compartment syndrome

- need canthotomy & catalysis (call ophthalmologist)

242
Q

chemical burn to eye

A

1L of saline, connected to Morgan lens. rinse for 30 mins (or after each 1L) and assess pH for normal (7)

243
Q

test to locate small leaks of aqueous fluid from anterior chamber

A

seidel test

244
Q

mild hypothermia

A

32-35

245
Q

moderate hypothermia

A

30-32

246
Q

severe hypothermia

A

< 30

247
Q

mild hypothermia in injury

A

36

248
Q

moderate hypothermia in injury

A

32-36

249
Q

severe hypothermia in injury

A

< 32

250
Q

cardiac irritability occurs at what body temp

A

33

251
Q

VF occurs at what temp

A

below 28

252
Q

asystole occurs at what temp

A

below 25

253
Q

mild & moderate hypothermia management

A

mostly passive warming

254
Q

severe hypothermia management

A

active warming - warm fluid lavage, haemodialysis, bypass

255
Q

you are not dead until

A

you’re warm and dead

256
Q

heat exhaustion occurs at

A

39

257
Q

heat stroke occurs at

A 
> 40 
involves CNS (dizziness/confusion/seizures) 
and systemic inflammatory response (rhabdo, encephalopathy, ARDS)
258
Q

2 types of heat stroke

A 
classic 
nonexertional (heat waves, typically affecting young & old)
259
Q

exertion heat stroke

A

young, fit & healthy

strenuous exercise

260
Q

management of heat injuries

A 
A-E
100% O2
consider definitive airway
ABG, renal & urea nitrogen levels 
CXR
remember hypoglycaemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis
seizures - benzos
261
Q

goal temp decrease in heat stroke

A

decrease to < 39 in 30 mins

ATLS (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions