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MCQ Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A 30-year-old woman of unknown blood group requires an emergency blood transfusion. Which Blood group would be selected?

a) Group AB Rh D positive
b) Group O Rh D positive
c) Group AB Rh D negative
d) Group O Rh D negative

A

d) Group O Rh D negative

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2
Q
  1. Normal neutrophil percentage average in an adult male is:

a) 20%
b) 30%
C) 50%
d) 80%

A

C) 50%

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3
Q

The main function of blood lymphocytes is:

a) phagocytosis of extracellular infections agents
b) antibodies production
c) migration to site of inflammation
d) histamine release

A

b) Antibody production

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4
Q
  1. Low neutrophil count is associated with:

a) Typhoid fever
b) Glucocorticoid therapy
c) Hemorrhage
d) Vigorous exercise

A

a) Typhoid fever

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5
Q
  1. According to the Egyptian national standards, the minimum acceptable hemoglobin level for an adult male to donate blood is.

a) 10.0 g/dl
b) 11.0 g/dl
c) 12.0 g/dl
d) 13.0 g/dl

A

d) 13.0 g/dl

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6
Q
  1. The following conditions may be associated with thrombocytopenia, EXCEPT.

a) Autoimmune diseases
b) Pregnancy
c) Acute blood loss
d) Hypersplenism

A

c) Acute blood loss

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7
Q
  1. Which is NOT a determinant of risk of transmission of viruses from needle stick injury?

a) Prevalence of virus in population
b) Site of exposure
c) Type of exposure
d) Immune status of exposed individual

A

b) Site of exposure

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8
Q
  1. Cryoprecipitate is a good choice for the treatment of bleeding in patients with.

a) 1TP
b) hypoprothrombinemia
c) Marivan (Warfarin) toxicity
d) dysfibrinogenemia

A

d) dysfibrinogenemia

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is an error in the lab process?

a) The physician labels the request as “Urgent” if the results are needed as soon as possible
b) A sample was kept in sampling area for 5 hours then sent to the lab
c) A sample for CBC was put in a serum vacutainer
d) A STAT sample results in slowdown of the testing process of other patients.

A

b) A sample was kept in sampling area for 5 hours then sent to the lab

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10
Q
  1. In countries where health insurance is applicable, which of the following is TRUE?

a) The physician should make sure to order as much tests as possible
b) Minimum retesting interval should be applied
c) The physician should not order any tests to the patient and use his clinical skill
d) All Tests can be ordered every day to follow up the patients’ condition

A

b) Minimum retesting interval should be applied

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11
Q
  1. Which condition is among the causes of sterile pyuria?

a) Bacterial endocarditis
b) Enteric fever
c) Diabetes
d) Leptospirosis

A

c) Diabetes

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12
Q
  1. Which respiratory infection may be diagnosed by microbial examination of gastric aspirate?

a) Diagnosis of viral pneumonia in young children
b) Diagnosis of fungal pneumonia in adults
c) Diagnosis of pneumococcal pneumonia in children
d) Diagnosis of tuberculous pneumonia in young children

A

d) Diagnosis of tuberculous pneumonia in young children

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13
Q
  1. An ascitic fluid sample is found to be cloudy with numerous cells and high protein level. What is the next step in laboratory investigation?

a) No further testing
b) Microscopic examination
c) Repeating chemical analysis
d) Serological testing

A

b) Microscopic examination

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14
Q
  1. Which chemical is used before examining unstained preparations from specimens of cutaneous mycoses?

a) 4 - 8% Sodium hydroxide
b) 5 - 10% Sodium hydroxide
c) 10% Acetyl cysteine
d) 10 - 20% Potassium hydroxide

A

d) 10 - 20% Potassium hydroxide (KOH)

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15
Q
  1. What is the febrile condition commonly diagnosed by Paul Bunnel test?

a) Brucellosis
b) Infectious mononucleosis
c) Cytomegalovirus infection
d) Rheumatic fever

A

b) Infectious mononucleosis

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16
Q
  1. How many passages are possible to conduct in diploid cell lines?

a) 5-10 passages
b) 10 - 50 passages
c) 50- 100 passages
d) >100 passages

A

c) 50 - 100 passages

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17
Q
  1. Pyrexia of undetermined origin may be caused by?

a) Bordetella pertussis
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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18
Q
  1. Which organism is liable to be harmed if the microbiological sample is refrigerated?

a) Escherichia coli
b) Neisseria meningitides
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

b) Neisseria meningitides

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19
Q
  1. What is the medium used for isolation of fungi?

a) Modified Thayer Martin medium
b) Chocolate agar
c) MacConkey’s agar
d) Sabaraud’s dextrose agar (SDA)

A

d) Sabouraud’s dextrose agar (SDA)

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20
Q
  1. Choose the proper tube for blood glucose testing

a) Blue topped
b) Lavender topped
c) Green topped
d) Grey topped

A

Grey topped

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21
Q
  1. Estimated risk of HIV infection following Needle Stick Injury is.

a) 30%
b) 3%
c) 0.3%
d) 0.03%

A

c) 0.3%

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22
Q
  1. The most frequently ordered test in the hematology lab, is.

a) Prothrombin Time and concentration
b) Complete blood count
c) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) Blood Group

A

b) Complete blood count

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23
Q
  1. The following are examples of poor transport conditions that can result in a wrong lab
    result, EXCEPT.

a) A Parathormone sample arrived at the lab in a chilled container
b) A blood gas sample was left on bench for an hour
c) A blood chemistry’ sample that was left in the refrigerator overnight
d) A sample kept shaken vigorously on the way to the lab

A

a) A Parathormone sample arrived at the lab in a chilled container

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24
Q
  1. As regard to the venous sampling procedure, choose the correct answer:

a) The sampling site is cleansed using 100% alcohol
b) The patient should sign a written consent before sampling
c) The skin is penetrated at a 90° angle
d) The vein should be anchored firmly

A

d) The vein should be anchored firmly

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following samples are NOT analyzed in the clinical pathology laboratory?

a) Blood specimens; Venous, arterial, and capillary
b) Urine, stool, sputum, nasal discharge
c) skin biopsies
d) Seminal and prostatic fluids

A

c) skin biopsies

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26
Q
  1. Which situation of the following requires as quickly as possible (within hours) post
    exposure prophylactic treatment following needle stick injury (NSI)?

a) NSI with blood of 11CV antibody +ve patient
b) NSI with blood of IIBV antibody +ve patient
c) NSI with blood of HIV antibod} +ve patient
d) All of the above

A

c) NSI with blood of HIV antibod} +ve patient

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27
Q
  1. In clinical pathology labs a variety of tests are covered. These can be categorized in
    different processing units. Which of the following is right?

a) Microbiology unit is responsible of Anti-Nuclear anti body testing.
b) Immunology unit is responsible of prothrombin time testing.
c) Chemistry unit is responsible of Growth hormone testing.
d) Hematology unit is responsible of urine culture and culture for tuberculosis.

A

c) Chemistry unit is responsible of Growth hormone testing

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28
Q
  1. All of the follow ing is an anticoagulated tube, EXCEPT

a) Blue topped
b) Lavender topped
c) Green topped
d) Red topped

A

d) Red topped

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29
Q
  1. How is a shorter turnaround time achieved for STAT samples?

a) All other samples processing is stopped and a particular urgent sample is prioritized
b) A shortened time for sample analysis by using a faster machine for analysis
c) The sample is moved by a courier
d) The time is shortened by using software to deliver the results

A

a) All other samples processing is stopped and a particular urgent sample is prioritized

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30
Q
  1. Choose a valid reason for ordering a lab test:

a) A physician orders a coagulation test for as a part of a general check-up
b) A physician orders a panel of tests since the patient will be drawing blood any way
c) Measuring Hb level in all school children as a part of an initiative to screen for anemia
d) Screening for cancer in a healthy asymptomatic individual

A

c) Measuring Hb level in all school children as part of an initiative to screen for anemia

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct regarding the estimated risk of infection following
    needle stick injury with HCV infected blood?

a) 30%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 3%

A

d) 3%

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32
Q
  1. Leukoreduction reduces the risk of:

a) Bacterial contamination
b) HLA-sensitization
c) Transfusion associated graft versus host disease
d) Transfusion associated circulatory overload

A

b) HLA-sensitization

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33
Q
  1. The most common cause of anemia in a 30 year old female is:

a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) B12 deficiency anemia
c) Thalassemia
d) Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

a) Iron deficiency anemia

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34
Q
  1. Inherited coagulation disorder may be due to:

a) Factor VIII deficiency
b) Liver disease
c) Warfarin therapy
d) Repeated blood transfusion

A

a) Factor VIII deficiency

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35
Q
  1. Which cerebrospinal fluid finding does not match with septic meningitis?

a) High protein level
b) Low glucose level
c) Predominant lymphocytes
d) Total leucocyte count between 200-20000

A

c) Predominant lymphocytes

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36
Q
  1. Which condition is a criterion for rejection of a microbial specimen?

a) Transport media contain minimal nutrients.
b) Gastric biopsy is put in sterile saline.
c) Cerebrospinal fluid sample is refrigerated.
d) Urine is held at room temperature less than 2 hours.

A

c) Cerebrospinal fluid sample is refrigerated.

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37
Q
  1. Which organism is considered a likely cause of atypical pneumonia?

a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Legionella pneumophila
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

c) Legionella pneumophila

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38
Q
  1. What is the most commonly used method to diagnose rotavirus diarrhea in children?

a) Detection of rotavirus particles in stool culture
b) Detection of rotavirus IgM antibodies in stools
c) Detection of rotavirus antibodies in serum
d) Detection of rotavirus antigen in stools

A

d) Detection of rotavirus antigen in stools

39
Q
  1. Which criterion accurately distinguishes an exudate from a transudate?

a) Glucose content
b) Protein content
c) Red cell count
d) White cell count

A

d) White cell count

40
Q
  1. Choose the answer that represents 4 CONSECUTIVE steps of the total testing process
    arranged in the correct order:

a) Specimen collection, test ordering, transportation, analysis
b) Test selection, analysis, report review, result interpretation
c) Clinical question, result interpretation, specimen processing, analysis
d) Specimen preparation, analysis, report review, result reporting

A

a) Specimen collection, test ordering, transportation, analysis

41
Q
  1. Ordering a test with no likelihood of being abnormal;

a) Is a criteria of an appropriate test selection
b) Exposes the patient to the risk of false test results
c) Coincides with the test being justifiable
d) Should be done when the patient has health insurance coverage

A

b) Exposes the patient to the risk of false test results

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct regarding test result interpretation?

a) Comparing the test result to the provided reference interval mathematically and if the result is not within the reference interval then the patient is sick
b) The provided value for comparison is based on studies on healthy individuals
c) Each lab should have data regarding the uncertainty of its measurements
d) laboratory Tests are 100% specific and sensitive

A

c) Each lab should have data regarding the uncertainty of its measurements

43
Q
  1. Which situation of the following requires immediate (within hours) post exposure prophylactic treatment following needle stick injury (NSI)?

a) NSI with blood of HCV antibody +ve patient
b) NSI with blood of HBV antibody +ve patient
c) NSI with blood of HIV antibody +ve patient
d) All of the above

A

c) NSI with blood of HIV antibody +ve patient

44
Q
  1. What shall be immediately done after a needle stick injury exposure?

a) Wash area with soap and water
b) Report injury to supervisor
c) Use bleach immediately
d) Both a & b

A

d) Both a & b

45
Q
  1. According to the Egyptian national standards, which of the following is not a mandatory
    screening test in blood banks?

a) HIV
b) HCV
c) HBV
d) CMV

A

d) CMV

46
Q
  1. A 14-year-old patient with beta-thalassemia major was scheduled to transfuse one unit of PRBCs, five minutes after transfusion has been started, the patient becomes anxious and complains of back pain and pain along the infusion site. The first intervention should be:

a) Stop the transfusion and perform a clerical check
b) Check the blood pressure in the upper and lower extremities
c) Order an infusion of IV desferrioxamine
d) Perform a blood culture.

A

a) Stop the transfusion and perform a clerical check

47
Q
  1. Prolonged Activated partial thromboplastin time test (APTT) may be associated with:

a) Factor V deficiency
b) Factor Vll deficiency
c) Factor IX deficiency
d) Factor X deficiency

A

c) Factor IX deficiency

48
Q
  1. The main function of monocytes is:

a) Antibody production
b) Immune response against parasites
c) Histamine release
d) Pathogen phagocytosis and antigen presentation

A

d) Pathogen phagocytosis and antigen presentation

49
Q
  1. Which condition is considered a cause for pyuria with a sterile routine culture?

a) Bacterial endocarditis
b) Enteric fever
c) Diabetes
d) Leptospirosis

A

d) Leptospirosis

50
Q
  1. What is the chemical used for direct detection of fungi in unstained preparations?

a) 4 - 8% Sodium hydroxide
b) 5 - 10% Sodium hydroxide
c) 10% Acetyl cysteine
d) 10 - 20% Potassium hydroxide

A

d) 10 - 20% Potassium hydroxide

51
Q
  1. What is the significant bacterial count in urine culture?

a) >102
b) >103
c) < 104
d) > 105

A

d) > 105

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is used to diagnose fever due to systemic lupus erythematosis?

a) Blood culture
b) Examination of bone marrow
c) Estimation of antinuclear antibodies
d) Skin test

A

c) Estimation of antinuclear antibodies

53
Q
  1. Which organism is liable to be killed if the microbiological sample is refrigerated before culture?

a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

54
Q
  1. Which organism is considered a commensal if found in urine culture?

a) Lactobacilli
b) Candida spp.
c) Enterococci
d) Acinetobacter spp.

A

a) Lactobacilli

55
Q
  1. Cryoprecipitate is a good choice for the treatment of bleeding in patients with

a) 1TP
b) hypofibrinogenemia
c) hypoprothrombinemia
d) Marivan (Warfarin) toxicity

A

b) hypofibrinogenemia

56
Q
  1. Regarding Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), which statement is TRUE?

a) measures intensjtv of-ltghl that passes through a sample
b) is a quantitative assay that measures antigen-antibody binding
c) requires specialized equipment and used in mega labs only
d) is not a qualitative assay

A

b) is a quantitative assay that measures antigen-antibody binding

57
Q
  1. The following conditions may be associated with thrombocytopenia, EXCEPT

a) Autoimmune diseases
b) Pregnancy
c) Acute blood loss
d) Hypersplenism

A

c) Acute blood loss

58
Q
  1. Normal neutrophil percentage in an adult male is

a)20%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 80%

A

c) 50%

59
Q
  1. In countries where health insurance is applicable, which of the following is TRUE?

a) The physician should make sure to order as much tests as possible
b) Minimum retesting interval could be applied
c) The physician should not order any tests to the patient and use his clinical skill
d) All Tests can be ordered every day to follow the patients’ condition

A

b) Minimum retesting interval could be applied

60
Q
  1. The following are examples of poor transport conditions that result in a wrong lab result, EXCEPT

a) A tissue sample that was placed in Formalin in an untightened container
b) A Parathormone sample arrived at the lab in a chilled container
c) A blood chemistry sample that was left in the refrigerator overnight
d) A sample kept shaken vigorously on the way to the lab

A

b) A Parathormone sample arrived at the lab in a chilled container

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is an error in test choice?

a) The physician ordered cardiac enzymes for screening of a healthy individual
b) A sample for CBC was put in EDTA vaccutainer
c) A sample was kept in sampling area for 5 hours then sent to the lab
d) A tube was broken in the centrifuge

A

a) The physician ordered cardiac enzymes for screening of a healthy individual

62
Q

23-How many passages are possible to conduct in primary cell lines for viral tissue culture?

a. 5-10 passages
b. 10-50 passages
c. 50 - 100 passages
d. >100 passages

A

a. 5-10 passages

63
Q

24-What findings signify acute urethral syndrome?

a. Acute cystitis + pyuria + no bacteria detected by routine culture
b. Acute urethritis + bacteriuria + no pus detected by microscopic examination
c. Acute cystitis + pyuria + low bacterial count on routine culture
d. Acute urethritis + no pus on microscopic examination + no bacteria detected by urine culture

A

a. Acute cystitis + pyuria + no bacteria detected by routine culture

64
Q

25- A pleural fluid sample is found to be clear with few cells and a protein level of < 30 g/L. What is the next step in laboratory investigation?

a) No further testing
b) Gram staining and culture
c) Repeating chemical analysis
d) Serological testing

A

a) No further testing

65
Q

27-Which of the following microbiological specimens should be rejected?

a. Urine sample stored in the refrigerator for two hours after collection
b. Blood culture specimen kept at room temperature overnight
c. Tissue biopsy received in sterile saline
d. Sputum sample with many epithelial cells

A

d. Sputum sample with many epithelial cells

66
Q

Which of these conditions is required for the detection of Campylobacter jejuni in stool samples?

a. Addition of CO2 to incubation conditions
b. Increasing incubation temperature to 42- 43°C
c. Addition of sorbitol to MacConkey’s medium
d. The use of alkaline peptone water

A

b. Increasing incubation temperature to 42-43°C

67
Q

29- Which of the following is a cause of atypical pneumonia?

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Coxiella burnetii
d. Acinetobacter baumanii

A

c. Coxiella burnetii

68
Q

30-What is the most suitable temperature for isolation of superficial fungal moulds?

a. 20-25°C
b. 25-30°C
c. 30-35°C
d. 35-40°C

A

b. 25-30°C

69
Q

31-What is the test used to differentiate between bacterial and viral meningitis?

a. Serum IgM
b. Serum IgE
c. Serum CRP
d. ESR

A

c. Serum CRP

70
Q

32-Which of the following microorganisms cannot be considered commensal in sputum samples?

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Viridans streptococci

A

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae

71
Q
  1. What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage (range) in the adult population?

a) 5%— 10%
b) 10%-20%
c) 20%-40%
d) 50%-70%

A

c) 20%-40%

72
Q
  1. A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have

a) Normal PT/INR
b) Increased PT/INR
c) Low platelet count
d) Prolonged bleeding time

A

b) Increased PT/INR

73
Q
  1. The cycle of total testing process usually starts with

a) Specimen collection
b) Analysis of the specimen
c) Clinical question asked by the care provider
d) Report review by the lab physician

A

c) Clinical question asked by the care provider

74
Q
  1. Which of the following is a post-analytical error?

a) Failure of the quality checks to detect error in machine or used reagent
b) Failure to quarantine a wrong result
c) Improper labeling of the used tube
d) Reluctance in the sample transport

A

b) Failure to quarantine a wrong result

75
Q
  1. To order a lab test, the care provider should consider the following questions except:

a) Could this test be done in the clinic?
b) Could this test confirm or exclude a suspected diagnosis?
c) Could this test assist in the selection and optimization of treatment?
d) Could the result of the used test monitor the patient’s compliance with a treatment protocol?

A

a) Could this test be done in the clinic?

76
Q
  1. Transfusion associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)

a) Is rarely fatal
b) Can be prevented by leukoreduction of cellular blood products prior to transfusion
c) Can be prevented by irradiation of cellular blood products prior to transfusion
d) Is one of the early adverse transfusion reactions

A

c) Can be prevented by irradiation of cellular blood products prior to transfusion

77
Q
  1. Of the following, the greatest risk of transmission from an infected patient to a healthcare worker following a needle stick or sharps injury is with

a) HIV
b) HBV
c) HCV
d) HSV

A

a) HIV

78
Q
  1. Which disease is best diagnosed by serologic methods?

a) Actinomycosis
b) Gonorrhea
c) Pulmonary tuberculosis
d) Qwery (Q) fever

A

d) Qwery (Q) fever

79
Q
  1. Which organism is considered a possible pathogen in the urine sample?

a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus epidermidis
c) Lactobacilli
d) Diphtheroids

A

a) Escherichia coli

80
Q
  1. Which situation of the following requires immediate (within hours) post exposure prophylactic treatment following needle stick injury (NSI)?

A) NSI with blood of HCV antibody +ve patient.
B) NSI with blood of HBV antibodv+ve patient.
C) NSI with blood of HIV antibody +ve patient.
D) All of the above.

A

c) NSI with blood of HIV antibody +ve patient

81
Q
  1. Which condition of the following is associated with reactive thrombocytosis?

A) Pregnancy.
B) Hypersplenism.
C) Hemolysis.
D) Autoimmune disease.

A

C) Hemolysis.

82
Q
  1. Which laboratory test is NOT an initial screening test (stage 1 assessment) for pyrexia of undetermined origin?

A) Autoantibody test.
B) Blood culture.
C) ESR and CRP.
D) Full blood count.

A

A) Autoantibody test.

83
Q
  1. A patient presents with dysuria and pyuria but with no loin pain. Urine examination shows bacterial count of 10 organisms per mL. Which term best describes his illness?

A) Acute urethral syndrome
B) Pyelonephritis
C) Significant bacteriuria
D) Urinary schistosomiasis

A

A) Acute urethral syndrome

84
Q
  1. A sputum sample from a patient with pneumonia shows many Gram-positive capsulated diplococci and many pus cells. What is the causative microorganism?

A) Candida albicans.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Staphylococcus aureus .
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

A

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

85
Q
  1. The maximum time the tourniquet can remain tied on the patient’s arm is:

a) 30 seconds
b) 2 minutes
c) 3 minutes
d) 5 minutes

A

a) 30 seconds

86
Q
  1. The anticoagulant in use for collection of samples used for coagulation tests is:

a) Sodium citrate
b) Sodium fluoride
c) K2EDTA
d) Sodium heparin

A

a) Sodium citrate

87
Q
  1. All of the following are considered pre-analytical errors, EXCEPT

a) Wrong test selection
b) Improper sample labeling
c) Reluctance in sample transport
d) Failure of quality checks to detect error in machine or used reagents

A

d) Failure of quality checks to detect error in machine or used reagents

88
Q
  1. The following are possible errors in the lab request form, EXCEPT

a) The first and second names of the patient are written in the request
b) The age of the patient is written in years
c) An alphanumeric identifier is added to the request
d) Time of sampling is not added

A

c) An alphanumeric identifier is added to the request

89
Q
  1. Choose the recommended handling of a used needle:

a) The needle should be discarded in the black plastic bag
b) The needle is discarded uncapped in the sharps box
c) The needle is discarded uncapped in the red plastic bag
d) The needle should be recapped before discarding it

A

b) The needle is discarded uncapped in the sharps box

90
Q
  1. Latex particles are often used in

a) Agglutination tests
b) Affinity chromatography
c) Neutralization assays
d) Adjuvants

A

a) Agglutination tests

91
Q

16) Which of the following preanalytical error results in hyperkalemia?

a) Poor test choice
b) Age of the patient
c) Improper sample storage condition
d) Ethnicity

A

c) Improper sample storage condition

92
Q
  1. Which laboratory finding of cerebrospinal fluid examination best characterizes viral meningitis

A) Decreased proteins.
B) Elevated glucose level.
C) Predominance of lymphocytes.
D) Turbidity .

A

C) Predominance of lymphocytes.

93
Q

14) During the sampling procedure, care should be taken to ensure the following except’.

a) Proper tube selection for the ordered test
b) Adequate identification of the used tube(s)
c) Using suitable turnaround time (TAT)
d) Following infection control and safety measures

A

c) Using suitable turnaround time (TAT)

94
Q
  1. Choose the answer that applies to the clinical laboratory unit and test related:

a) Microbiology unit: kidney and liver function tests
b) Immunology unit: Anti-Nuclear antibody testing
c) Chemistry unit: Complete blood counts
d) Hematology unit: Urine culture

A

b) Immunology unit: Anti-Nuclear antibody testing

INV (3 decks)

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