Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MIMS > MCQ > Flashcards

MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

Is insulin important during the fed state?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is insulin important during the fed state?

A

Insulin stimulates glycogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is the acetylcholine receptor opened?

A

Rotation of the pore helices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a potent activator of PFK-1 in liver cells?

A

F-2,6-bisP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Does complete oxidation of one molecule of palmitate provide more or less molecules of ATP than complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose?

A

Palmitate produces more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Are ketone bodies beneficial for the brain?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What oxidises very long chain fatty acids?

A

Peroxisomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What difference can be observed in the circulating fatty acid levels of individuals with type 2 diabetes?

A

Elevated levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do proteins destined for the plasma membrane pass through?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does manose-6-phosphate do to soluble proteins?

A

Directs them to lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would genomic amplification of the c-MYC gene likely lead to?

A

Development of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Are inherited single allele mutations in tumour suppressor genes linked to susceptibility to cancer?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens to the melting temperature of DNA as length increases?

A

It increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do histone undergo in their N-terminal sequences?

A

Post-translational modifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the binding of the glucocorticoid receptor to its ligand result in?

A

Translocation of the glucocorticoid receptor to the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is transcription termination coupled to in eukaryotes?

A

mRNA polyadenylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why does the core RNA polymerase terminate transcription at rho-independent sites in prokaryotes?

A

Due to a GC-rich hairpin and a run of U nucleotides in the RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the significance of the Pribnow box at -10 in prokaryotes?

A

Important determinant of the start site of transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is TFIID?

A

A complex of TATA binding protein (TBP) and a number of other
general transcription factors called TAFs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What impact will increasing concentration of BH3 only proteins have on a cell?

A

Make the cell more likely to undergo apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the spindle assemble checkpoint do?

A

Monitors the proper attachment of chromosomes to microtubules during mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the action of Humira in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Blocks the action of TNFα on its receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are human antibodies created from transgenic mice?

A

Mice are derived from embryonic stem cells engineered to include the human antibody loci in their genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Does a plasmid produce a circular recombinant molecule in the host cell?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Does a bacterial artificial chromosome produce a circular recombinant molecule in the host cell?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does a yeast artificial chromosome produce a circular recombinant molecule in the host cell?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Does a cosmid produce a circular recombinant molecule in the host cell?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Does a P1-derived artificial chromosome produce a circular recombinant molecule in the host cell?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Are coding or non-coding regions of genes more conserved between different animal species?

A

Coding regions are more conserved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many introns do mammalian mitochondrial genes have?

A

Few or none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Are mammalian genes distributed evenly across the genome?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Is the one gene-one protein assumption true or false?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do mutations in genes that are imprinted often alter?

A

Foetal growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is mild anaemia of sickle cell trait characterised at the molecular level?

A

A deleterious gain of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the high rate of de novo mutations in Duchenne muscular dystrophy likely related to?

A

The large size of the dystrophin gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Are most copies of rare mutant alleles found more often in homozygotes or heterozygotes?

A

Heterozygotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What allows us to predict that male tortoiseshell cats will be sterile?

A

X-inactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What hormone is produced by alpha cells in the isle of langehans?

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is adrenaline?

A

A catecholamine derived from tyrosine (the amino acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does insulin stimulate muscle to convert glucose into?

A

Glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What do serine proteases use to stabilise the tetrahedral intermediate?

A

Oxyanion hole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the amino acid residue at the active site of HIV protease that mediates target cleavage?

A

Aspartic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is targeted by sarin to inhibit acetylcholinesterase?

A

Serine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What intracellular messenger releases Ca2+ from the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What signal stimulates synthesis of phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3)?

A

Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is released from a G protein when it is activated by a receptor?

A

GDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What sequence ensure nascent soluble proteins are retained in the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

KDEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What mediates vesicular transport between endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus?

A

COP II vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What mediates the first step in cholesterol uptake?

A

LDL receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What chemical interaction holds strands together in a DNA double helix?

A

Hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What chemical moiety is at the 3’- end of a linear DNA molecule?

A

Hydroxyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What aromatic base is normally paired with guanine?

A

Cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Is cytosine acidic or basic?

A

Basic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Is cytosine aromatic?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a telomere?

A

The DNA region at each end of a chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What enzyme initiates nucleic acid synthesis in DNA replication?

A

Primase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a transposon?

A

A mobile genetic element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of a lariat?

A

2’-5’ phosphodiester bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What part of the antibody is involved in interaction with receptors on effector cells of the immune system?

A

Fc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is CDR?

A

A hypervariable loop joining two beta strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What defines the binding specificity of an antibody?

A

CDR (a hypervariable loop joining two beta strands)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What technique involves separation of the products of transcription based upon their lengths, followed by transfer on to a membrane support to allow interrogation with a labelled DNA or cDNA probe?

A

Northern blotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is cDNA library construction?

A

A preparation of a bank of clones from a tissue or a developmental stage that allows further investigation of the genes expressed through sequence analysis or hybridisation to locus specific probes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is restriction fragment length polymorphism analysis?

A

Digestion of nucleic acids and comparison of the product sizes following gel separation to identify allele specific patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a de novo loss of several adjacent loci from one chromosome, which results in a disease phenotype, an example of?

A

Contiguous gene deletion syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What phenomenon is important for normal development which is often impaired in clinical conditions such as Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

Imprinting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Does muscle require insulin for efficient uptakes and metabolism of glucose?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Does fat require insulin for efficient uptakes and metabolism of glucose?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Does the brain require insulin for efficient uptakes and metabolism of glucose?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Does the pancreas require insulin for efficient uptakes and metabolism of glucose?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Does the liver require insulin for efficient uptakes and metabolism of glucose?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How are serine and alanine similar?

A

Serine is alanine with another hydroxyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How are tyrosine and phenylalanine similar?

A

Tyrosine is phenylalanine with another hydroxyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What do the amino acid pairs serine+alanine and tyrosine+phenylalanine have in common?

A

Alanine + -OH = Serine
Phenylalanine + -OH = Tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Is glucose a reducing sugar?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What molecules link to form maltose?

A

2 α-D-glucose molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Does starch or glycogen contain more α-1,6 branches?

A

Glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is cellulose formed from?

A

A chain of β-D-glucose molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Are sugars added to proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Where do the side chains point in a β-sheet?

A

Above and below the plane of the sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In regular secondary structures, what are all the backbone C=O and N-H atoms forming?

A

Hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How many of the backbone C=O and N-H atoms form hydrogen bonds in regular secondary structures?

A

All of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is an α-helical hairpin mainly held together by?

A

Hydrophobic interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In an α-helix, do the side chains point towards the C-terminus?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What does the Φ angle describe?

A

Rotation around the bond between the Cα and N atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What angle describes the rotation around the bond between Cα and N atoms?

A

Φ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is involved in the humanisation of a murine antibody?

A

The CDR loops of the murine antibody are grafted onto a human framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Does 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate formation from glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate require ATP?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Is glucokinase inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Is the reaction catalysed by aldolase during glycolysis essentially irreversible?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Does glycerol phosphate formation from dihydroxyacetone phosphate requires NAD+?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Does AMP interact with glycogen phosphorylase?

A

Yes, AMP activates glycogen phosphorylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Can more glycogen be stored in liver or muscle?

A

Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How does glucose influence phosphorylation of liver glycogen phosphorylase?

A

Promotes it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What promotes phosphorylation of liver glycogen phosphorylase?

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What reaction does glucose promote in liver glycogen phosphorylase?

A

Phosphorylation of liver glycogen phosphorylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

In liver cells, is the NAD+/NADH ratio lower in the mitochondria or the cytosol?

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What reduces pyruvate kinase activity in the liver?

A

The action of glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Do liver tissues use ketone bodies?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the effect of ethanol metabolism in the liver?

A

It slows down gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How many protons does complex IV pump for each pair of electrons transferred to oxygen?

A

2 protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which complexes in the electron transport chain contain tightly-bound iron-sulphur proteins that transfer single electrons?

A

Complexes I, II, III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

If the associated entropy change is positive, what will happen as long as the temperature exceeds a certain threshold?

A

An endothermic chemical reaction will spontaneously proceed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What condition must be met for an endothermic chemical reaction to spontaneously proceed if the associated entropy change is positive?

A

Temperature exceeds threshold value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What conditions must be met in order for an endothermic chemical reaction to spontaneously proceed?

A

The associated entropy change is positive
Temperatures exceeds threshold value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What do G-protein-coupled receptors promote?

A

GDP release from G proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Do G-protein-couple receptors bind ATP?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Does the activation of G-protein-coupled receptors require phosphorylation of tyrosine residues?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Do G-protein-coupled receptors allow ions to pass freely across the plasma membrane?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Which has a larger phosphorylation potential, adenosine triphosphate or phosphocreatine?

A

Phosphocreatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How are newly synthesised insulin receptors targeted to the plasma membrane?

A

Via the Golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What cell type do adenocarcinomas originate in?

A

Glandular epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Is there a correlation between genome size and organism complexity?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What do the majority of repeat sequences in our genome derive from?

A

Transposable elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What do bacteria rely on in DNA mismatch repair?

A

DNA methylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What do bacteria rely on DNA methylation for?

A

DNA mismatch repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Is DNA methylation inherited in a Mendelian fashion?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

How is ubiquitin linked to lysine in proteins?

A

Covalently via a multi-step process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Are most genes in mammals spliced or not?

A

Spliced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Is RNA splicing common in yeast?

A

No, it’s rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What does canonical splicing require?

A

Large ribonucleoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

During RNA splicing, what does the branch point region base pair with?

A

US snRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

During RNA splicing, what does US snRNA pair with?

A

The branch point region base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What does alternative splicing increase?

A

The diversity of the proteome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What increases the diversity of the proteome?

A

Alternative splicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

In prokaryotes, does splicing require a unique lariat structure to form?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What do cells with unrepaired DNA usually undergo?

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What does phosphorylation of Cdc6 help prevent?

A

Re-replication of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Can cells with unrepaired DNA damage become senescent?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What effect does cleaving have on a caspase?

A

Activated when cleaved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What caspase cleaves Bid?

A

Caspase 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Is caspase 7 an initiator caspase?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Is caspase 8 part of the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What residues to caspases primarily cleave substrates at?

A

DEVD residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What does giemsa-banding reflect?

A

Chromatin condensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How often will an aneuploid karyotype be abnormal?

A

Always

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

How many chromosomes does the mouse karyotype have?

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

How does the position of the centromere vary for a given chromosome?

A

Stays constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What regulates mammalian X inactivation?

A

Non-coding RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What proposed random X inactivation?

A

Mary Lyon’s 1961 paper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Which is the heterogametic sex in birds?

A

Female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Is the human Y chromosome gene-rich?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the FMR1 gene influenced by?

A

Trinucleotide repeat expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What have genome-wide association studies usually identified?

A

Low risk disease variants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is Down’s syndrome generally caused by?

A

Meiotic defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Why is trisomy 21 common in Down’s syndrome?

A

This chromosome is small and the effects of the increased gene dosage are therefore less serious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Is the risk of Down’s syndrome correlated to maternal age?

A

Yes, risk increases with maternal age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Is Down’s syndrome usually congenital?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Do individuals with Down’s syndrome have a lower incidence of dementia?

A

No, they have a higher incidence of dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is biotin a cofactor for?

A

Acetyl CoA carboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is a cofactor of acetyl CoA carboxylase?

A

Biotin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is pantothenate involved in?

A

Transfer of 2-carbon units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is involved in the transfer of 2-carbon units?

A

Pantothenate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is an electron carrier in cytochrome C?

A

Haem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Is haem found in cytochrome C?

A

Yes, it acts as an electron carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What modular domain binds proline-rich sequences?

A

SH3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What nucleotide exchange factor induces conformational change in Ras and release of GDP?

A

Sos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What transcription factor is activated by the MAP kinase pathway?

A

Fos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What enzyme is inhibited via phosphorylation during starvation, thus promoting gluconeogenesis?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What amino acid provides an important connection between the citric acid cycle and the urea cycle?

A

Aspartic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What metabolite inhibits de novo fat synthesis by activating a kinase?

A

AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is an IP3 receptor?

A

An ion channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What inactivates the signalling properties of cyclic AMP?

A

Phosphodiesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What conserved protein domain binds to phosphotyrosine residues?

A

SH2 domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is activated by genomic amplification in neuroblastoma?

A

N-Myc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What tumour virus protein is responsible for binding to and inactivating p53?

A

Human papilloma virus E6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What regulates c-Src?

A

Intramolecular tyrosines with a phosphotyrosine?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is a centromere?

A

The region of attachment between two sister chromatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What function effect is achieved by X-chromosome inactivation?

A

Dosage compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What is a T-loop?

A

A DNA structure formed by telomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What enzyme unwinds the parental DNA in replication?

A

DNA helicase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What is the proof reading activity of DNA polymerases?

A

3’-5’ exonuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What step is required in the maturation of bacterial Okazaki fragments?

A

Nick translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is the template of transcription in eukaryotes?

A

Genomic DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is histone acetylase?

A

A chromatin-modifying enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is an enhancer in transcriptional control?

A

A cis-regulatory element that can be located far from the gene locus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is a mosaic?

A

Individual composed of cells with different genotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What is chiasma?

A

Point where exchange of genetic information occurs between homologous non-sister chromatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What is the chi-squared test?

A

Statistical method for determining the significance of observed outcomes against expected results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What do glucagon, adrenaline and vasopressin all stimulate?

A

Cell signalling cascades using cAMP as a common intracellular signal transduction molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What common intracellular signal transduction molecule do glucagon, adrenaline and vasopressin all use when stimulating cell signalling cascades?

A

cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What regulates protein kinase A catalytic activity?

A

Binding to cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What repulsion is required for calcium ion flow through voltage-gated calcium channels?

A

Ion-ion repulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What do voltage-gated calcium channels open in response to?

A

Plasma membrane depolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

How many binding sites do voltage-gated calcium channels have for calcium ions?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

How can the response of voltage-gated calcium channels to membrane potential be modified?

A

Phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Can disaccharides have reducing ends?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

How many chiral centres do glucose and galactose differ at?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What chiral centre do glucose and galactose differ at?

A

Carbon 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What bond is the α-1,6 branchpoint in glycogen?

A

Glycosidic bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

How many epitopes does a monoclonal antibody typically recognise on the target antigen?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

How many domains do IgG class antibodies contain?

A

12 immunoglobulin domains held together by disulphide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What allows the antigen binding arms of a single antigen to bind to two antigens?

A

The hinge region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What does the hinge region allow?

A

The binding arms of a single antigen to bind to two antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What mediates effector functions of antibodies?

A

The constant domains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What do the constant domains mediate?

A

Effector function of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What permits the variable domain to form the antigen binding site?

A

Sequence diversity in three loops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What does sequence diversity in three loops allow the variable domain to do?

A

Form the antigen binding site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Does secondary structure always maximise side chain hydrogen bonds?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What proteins have no disulphide bonds?

A

Intracellular proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Is disulphide bonding necessary for all tertiary structures?

A

No, intracellular proteins have none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What sort of protein is haemoglobin?

A

Globular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What makes up the Greek key motif?

A

4 β-sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Do cofactors provide functionality?

A

Yes, ie carrying electrons and oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What connects the two nucleotides contained by NAD and FAD?

A

5’-5’ phosphodiester bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What is tetrahydrofolate essential for?

A

Adenine production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What vitamin is the precursor for a cofactor essential for acyl transfer?

A

Pantothenate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What is the cofactor pantothenate is a precursor for essential for?

A

Acyl transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

What is MLH1 essential in?

A

Eukaryotic mismatch repair system -> proof reading -> error frequency x100 increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Do inherited single allele mutations in tumour suppressor genes confer susceptibility to cancer?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What is glucokinase also known as?

A

Hexokinase IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What is hexokinase IV?

A

Glucokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Is hexokinase inhibited by its product?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Is glucokinase inhibited by its product?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Is hexokinase IV inhibited by its product?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What is the ΔG·’ for the glycolytic reaction catalysed by fructose bisphosphate aldolase?

A

Highly endergonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

How many carbons does acetyl have?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Is DNA or RNA more stable at alkaline pH?

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Can RNA hybridise with DNA?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What does cytosine demethylation produce?

A

Uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Are histones basic or acidic?

A

Basic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Can histone tails undergo chemical modifications?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

What do chromatin remodellers use for activity?

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What does heterochromatin largely consist of?

A

Repetitive DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

What does histone H! bind to?

A

Inter-nucleosomal DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

How does DNA replication proceed from the DNA origin?

A

Bidirectionally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

What is primase?

A

A DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

How can flux regulation through a pathway be controlled?

A

Enzyme expression levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What does allosteric control provide?

A

Rapid regulation of pathways, usually from intracellular cues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

What prevents accumulation of the products of a given pathway?

A

Feedback inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

What inactivates pyruvate dehydrogenase?

A

Phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

What is the impact of increased concentrations of ATP on citrate synthase?

A

Inactivates citrate synthase

233
Q

What does the liver take up from the blood stream following exercise?

A

Lactate

234
Q

What takes up lactate from the blood stream after exercise?

A

Liver

235
Q

What is the toxic mechanism of dinitrophenol (DNP)?

A

Uncoupling agent that dissipates the chemiosmotic gradient

236
Q

Does sex chromosome dimorphism occur in birds?

A

Yes

237
Q

Does sex chromosome dimorphism occur in mammals?

A

Yes

238
Q

Does sex chromosome dimorphism occur in Drosophila?

A

Yes

239
Q

In mammals what is the heterogametic sex?

A

Male

240
Q

In birds, what is the heterogametic sex?

A

Female

241
Q

What does an IRES facilitate?

A

CAP-independent translation in eukaryotes

242
Q

What facilitates CAP-independent translation in eukaryotes?

A

IRES

243
Q

Why does RNA polymerase terminate transcription at rho-independent site in prokaryotes?

A

Due to a GC-rich hairpin followed by a run of U nucleotides

244
Q

Is RNA polymerase II transcription highly regulated?

A

Yes

245
Q

What is an important determinant of the transcription start site in prokaryotes?

A

Pribnow box

246
Q

What is TFIID a complex of?

A

TATA-binding protein (TBP) and other general transcription factors (TAFs)

247
Q

What inhibits degradation of cyclic AMP?

A

Caffeine

248
Q

What stimulates protein kinase C activity?

A

Diacylglycerol

249
Q

What protein is strongly associated with an inherited predisposition to cancer?

A

Retinoblastoma (look for tumour suppressors)

250
Q

What protein is associated with the development of B-cell lymphoma in chickens infected with the avian leukosis virus?

A

MYC

251
Q

What protein is strongly associated with tumour angiogenesis?

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

252
Q

What are indels frequently caused by?

A

Polymerase slippage

253
Q

What can unbalanced structural variants cause?

A

Copy number variant

254
Q

What are transitions and transversions examples of?

A

Single nucleotide variant

255
Q

What type of repair is coupled to DNA synthesis?

A

Mismatch repair

256
Q

What is translesion synthesis?

A

A type of DNA polymerase-dependent DNA repair

257
Q

What type of repair is associated with meiosis?

A

Homologous recombination

258
Q

What is the peak absorption wavelength of DNA?

A

260nm

259
Q

What correlates inversely with DNA sequence complexity?

A

Speed of strand reannealing

260
Q

What assay is used to detect a specific RNA in a nucleic acid sample?

A

Northern blot

261
Q

What is Turner syndrome?

A

A sex chromosome aneuploidy condition in females

262
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

A sex chromosome aneuploidy condition in males

263
Q

What is Angelman syndrome caused by?

A

Paternal uniparental disomy for chromosome 15

264
Q

What method of cell death usually doesn’t induce inflammation?

A

Apoptosis

265
Q

What caspase does pyroptosis often depend on?

A

Caspase 1

266
Q

What induces ferroptosis?

A

Toxic lipid peroxides

267
Q

What allosteric modulator regulates the balance between glycolysis and gluconeogenesis acting on PFK1?

A

Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

268
Q

What is the product of hexokinase?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate

269
Q

What is an intermediate in the citric acid cycle and gluconeogenesis?

A

Oxaloacetate

270
Q

How many ATP molecules are produced from the oxidation of FADH2?

A

1.5

271
Q

How many ATP molecules are produced from the complete oxidation of acetyl CoA?

A

10

272
Q

How many ATP molecules are produced from the complete oxidation of palmitoyl-CoA?

A

108

273
Q

Is tyrosine aromatic?

A

Yes

274
Q

Is tryptophan aromatic?

A

Yes

275
Q

Is phenylalanine aromatic?

A

Yes

276
Q

Is threonine aromatic?

A

No

277
Q

Can serine be phosphorylated?

A

Yes

278
Q

Can threonine be phosphorylated?

A

Yes

279
Q

Can tyrosine be phosphorylated?

A

Yes

280
Q

Can phenylalanine be phosphorylated?

A

No

281
Q

What charge are lysine sidechains at pH6?

A

Positive

282
Q

What charge are arginine sidechains at pH6?

A

Positive

283
Q

What charge are histidine sidechains at pH6?

A

Positive

284
Q

Does aspartic acid have positively charged sidechains at pH6?

A

No

285
Q

Where do secondary structures correspond to on a Ramachandran plot?

A

2 separate areas

286
Q

What conditions are needed to favour ketone body formation in liver cells?

A

High ATP levels
High NADH levels
Less active pyruvate dehydrogenase
High acetyl-CoA levels

287
Q

What can ligand-gated ion channels be classified as?

A

Allosteric receptors

288
Q

Why do SNARE proteins wind around each other?

A

To force inbound vesicles closer to target organelle membranes

289
Q

What direction does RNA synthesis proceed in?

A

5’-3’

290
Q

What would make a cell more likely to undergo apoptosis?

A

Release of cytochrome C from the mitochondria

291
Q

What would make a cell less likely to undergo apoptosis?

A

Increasing Bcl2 concentration

292
Q

Is it only pro-apoptotic Bcl2 family proteins that have BH3 domains?

A

No

293
Q

What do Bax and Bak form in the outer mitochondrial membrane?

A

Pores

294
Q

Is Mcl-1 pro-apoptotic?

A

No, Mcl-1 is anti-apoptotic

295
Q

What caspase can cleave Bid?

A

Caspase 8

296
Q

Is Bcl2 a tumour suppressor gene or an oncogene?

A

Oncogene

297
Q

What does it mean if a meiotic recombination frequency of 50% is observed?

A

The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes

298
Q

If the heterogametic sex of a species is female, what is the sex of the parthenogenetic offspring?

A

Male

299
Q

Have twin studies shown that genetic factors have a greater role in schizophrenia than in parkison disease?

A

Yes

300
Q

What equations allows calculation of the genotype frequencies if you know the phenotype frequencies?

A

Hardy-Weinberg equation

301
Q

Can some oncogenes be characterised by single point mutation?

A

Yes

302
Q

Does the Bcl2 protein promote cell death?

A

No

303
Q

When is the v-src protein activated?

A

Following truncation of its extreme carboxy terminus

304
Q

What gene is involved in chromosomal translocations characteristic of non-AIDS Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

c-myc

305
Q

What would a point mutation of the intracellular domain of the epidermal growth factor receptor do?

A

Contribute significantly to the development of cancer

306
Q

Does Magnetic Resonance require ionizing radiation?

A

No

307
Q

Does Magnetic Resonance require a static magnetic field?

A

Yes

308
Q

What can Magnetic Resonance be used for?

A

3D anatomical images

309
Q

Does Magnetic Resonance provide poor soft-tissue contrast?

A

No, provides excellent soft-tissue contrast

310
Q

Is Magnetic Resonance a relatively insensitive technique?

A

Only without hyperpolarization

311
Q

What is a PET experiment?

A

A positron emitting tracer is injected in the patient and gamma radiation is detected from positron-electron annihilation

312
Q

What percentage of the mitochondrial genome makes functional gene products?

A

95%

313
Q

How are mutations in mitochondrial DNA inherited?

A

Maternally

314
Q

What are cells with a mixed population of mutant and normal mitochondria known as?

A

Heteroplasmic

315
Q

What can be used to determine total protein concentration in a solution?

A

Bradford assay

316
Q

What technique relies on purification on the basis of charge?

A

Ion exchange chromatography

317
Q

What is isothermal calorimetry used to do?

A

Measure heat changes when two molecules interact

318
Q

What domain in Grb2 binds to the active receptor tyrosine kinase?

A

SH2 domain

319
Q

What protein switches off small G proteins?

A

GTPase activating protein

320
Q

What protein kinase is activated by binding to an active small G protein?

A

Raf

321
Q

What enzyme catalyses the hydrolysis of triacylglycerol to diacylglycerol in fat cells?

A

Adipose triglyceride lipase

322
Q

What amino acid is directly involved with the urea cycle?

A

Arginine

323
Q

What activates phosphorylase kinase?

A

Calcium ions

324
Q

What inhibits carnitine acyltransferase I?

A

Malonyl-CoA

325
Q

What activates acetyl CoA-carboxylase?

A

Citrate

326
Q

What protein is associated with pancreatic cancer?

A

K-Ras

327
Q

What kinase promotes cell survival?

A

Akt

328
Q

What scaffold protein directs intracellular co-localization of protein kinase A and other proteins?

A

AKAP

329
Q

What enzyme hydrolyses phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate to generate IP3 and diacylglycerol?

A

PLC

330
Q

What activates PKA?

A

Binding of cAMP

331
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of a mRNA 5’ CAP in eukaryotes?

A

5’-5’ nucleotide bond

332
Q

What is an RNA mediated mechanism for inhibiting gene expression?

A

RNAi

333
Q

What is the catalytic core of the spliceosome?

A

U2 and U6 snRNAs

334
Q

What amino acid forms an isopeptide bond between ubiquitin and a target protein

A

Internal lysine

335
Q

What is essential for the degradation of long-lived proteins?

A

Lysosome

336
Q

What is the E3 enzyme?

A

The ubiquitin ligase

337
Q

What is the ubiquitin ligase?

A

The E3 enzyme

338
Q

What is a euchromatin?

A

A gene rich region of DNA

339
Q

What is RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

A

A reverse transcriptase

340
Q

What is Leber Hereditary Optic Neuropathy (LHON)?

A

A mitochondrial disease with matrilineal inheritance

341
Q

What is complete insensitivity syndrome?

A

XY individuals developing as phenotypic females

342
Q

What is chronic myeloid leukaemia commonly caused by?

A

The presence of the Philadelphia chromosome translocation

343
Q

What does presence of the Philadelphia chromosome translocation often cause?

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia

344
Q

What is nuchal translucency?

A

An ultrasound test contributing to prenatal down syndrome diagnosis

345
Q

What is the initiator of dosage compensation in female mammals?

A

Xist non-coding RNA

346
Q

What occurs when a new population is established by a small number of individuals from a larger population?

A

Founder effect

347
Q

During the onset of type 2 diabetes, are blood glucose levels likely to be below 7mM?

A

No, above 7mM

348
Q

May ketone bodies be present in the blood during onset of type 2 diabetes?

A

Yes

349
Q

Is the level of insulin in the blood usually low or undetectable during the onset of type 2 diabetes?

A

No, often very high

350
Q

Is uptake of glucose into fat cells responsive to insulin during onset of type 2 diabetes?

A

Poor responsive

351
Q

May glucose be present in the urine during the onset of type 2 diabetes?

A

Yes

352
Q

Which is stronger, the bonding between two strands of an anti-parallel β-sheet or parallel β-sheet?

A

Anti-parallel β-sheet

353
Q

Why is the bonding between two strands of an anti-parallel β-sheet stronger than two strands of a parallel β-sheet?

A

Because of the orientation of the hydrogen bonds

354
Q

How can the linkage between two strands of an anti-parallel β-sheet be accommodated?

A

A short structural loop called a hairpin

355
Q

On their own, what are β-sheet and α-helices held together exclusively by?

A

Hydrogen bonds

356
Q

What causes scurvy?

A

Reduced hydroxylation of proline residues, weakening collagen fibres

357
Q

Does glucokinase or muscle hexokinase have a higher km for glucose?

A

Glucokinase

358
Q

How is genetic diversity altering the peptide sequence of constant domains achieved?

A

Recombination

359
Q

What is haem?

A

A prosthetic group

360
Q

How does oxygen bond to an iron ion in oxy-haemoglobin?

A

Coordinated within a porphyrin ring

361
Q

Kinetically, how does haemoglobin bind to oxygen?

A

With sigmoidal binding kinetics

362
Q

Where does fatty acid synthesis occur?

A

In the cytosol

363
Q

What happens to most acetyl-coA in the liver?

A

Converted into ketone bodies

364
Q

What is insulin made up of?

A

2 polypeptides

365
Q

Where is insulin produced?

A

Pancreatic beta cells

366
Q

Does insulin promote glycogen synthesis in muscle?

A

Yes

367
Q

Do allosteric enzymes obey Michaelis-Menton kinetics?

A

No

368
Q

Do non-allosteric enzymes obey Michaelis-Menton kinetics?

A

Yes

369
Q

What do competitive inhibitors do to km and vmax?

A

Affect km, vmax unchanged

370
Q

What do non-competitive inhibitors do to km and vmax?

A

Decrease vmax, km unchanged

371
Q

What does the serine protease oxyanion hole do?

A

Stabilise the transition state

372
Q

What residue do Asp proteases have in their active site?

A

Aspartic acid residues

373
Q

Can enzymes form covalent bonds with reaction intermediates?

A

Yes

374
Q

What joins sugar molecules in disaccharides?

A

Glycosidic bonds

375
Q

What allows the protein backbone to fold?

A

Rotation around the α-carbon

376
Q

Are phosphodiester bonds present in DNA or RNA?

A

In both

377
Q

Is L-deoxyribose a building block of DNA?

A

No, D-deoxyribose is the most naturally occurring one

378
Q

Do all sugars have a reducing end?

A

No

379
Q

What domains binds to polyproline epitopes?

A

SH3 domains

380
Q

What do SH2 domains recognise?

A

Phosphorylated tyrosines

381
Q

How does Sos activate Ras proteins?

A

Promoting guanine nucleotide exchange

382
Q

What do transcription factors use to recognise specific DNA sequences?

A

Hydrogen bonds to base pairs down wide groove and sometimes narrow grooves

383
Q

What explains the expansion of gas in a vacuum?

A

Second law of thermodynamics

384
Q

How can changes in relative concentrations of ATP, ADP and AMP be followed in vivo?

A

Using 31P nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy

385
Q

Does phosphoenolpyruvate have a small or large phosphorylation potential?

A

It has one of the highest

386
Q

Will the standard free energy change for the hydrolysis of the activated carrier acetyl coenzyme A be positive or negative?

A

Negative

387
Q

For the reaction A + B ⇌ C + D, is the change in Gibbs free energy under non-standard non-equilibrium conditions is given by: ΔG = ΔGo’ – RT ln {( [A] × [B] ) / ( [C] × [D] )}?

A

Yes

388
Q

For the reaction A + B ⇌ C + D, what is the change in Gibbs free energy under non-standard non-equilibrium conditions given by?

A

ΔG = ΔGo’ – RT ln {( [A] × [B] ) / ( [C] × [D] )}

ΔG = ΔGo’ + RT ln {( [C] × [D] ) / ( [B] × [A] )}

389
Q

Do skeletal muscles contain glucose-6-phosphate?

A

No

390
Q

Do adipocytes contain glycerol kinase?

A

No

391
Q

Do skeletal muscles contain acetyl-CoA carboxylase?

A

Yes

392
Q

Do liver cells contain succinyl-CoA:aceoacetate CoA transferase?

A

No

393
Q

Does heart muscle or skeletal muscle cells contain fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase?

A

Skeletal muscle does, heart muscle doesn’t

394
Q

What causes phenylketonuria?

A

Failure to breakdown phenylalanine

395
Q

How can leucine and lysine be metabolised?

A

Only as ketone bodies

396
Q

What is excess ammonia in tissues added to?

A

Glutamate

397
Q

What carries ammonia from skeletal muscle to the liver?

A

Alanine

398
Q

What is the activated form of the extender unit in fatty acid synthesis?

A

Malonyle CoA

399
Q

How does citrate influence acetyl-CoA carboxylase?

A

Citrate is an allosteric activator

400
Q

Where are fatty acids synthesised?

A

Cytoplasm

401
Q

How many molecules of CO2 are lost in each extension reaction of fatty acid synthesis?

A

1

402
Q

Do all G protein-coupled receptors stimulate formation of cyclic AMP?

A

Some, not all

403
Q

How many transmembrane domains do G protein-coupled receptors have?

A

7

404
Q

What do G protein-coupled receptors stimulate?

A

Release of GDP from G proteins

405
Q

What is the nucleus surrounded by?

A

A double membrane

406
Q

Do nuclear pores allow proteins to pass?

A

Yes

407
Q

Is the lumen of lysosomes acidic or basic?

A

Acidic

408
Q

What do the endoplasmic reticulum and nuclear envelope form?

A

A continuous membrane system

409
Q

Can mitochondria synthesise proteins?

A

Yes

410
Q

What direction does nucleosomal DNA form a spiral in?

A

Left-handed spiral

411
Q

Where does eukaryotic DNA replication start?

A

Multiple origins

412
Q

What do DNA polymerases require for nucleotide polymerisation?

A

A primer and a template

413
Q

What is primase?

A

A DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

414
Q

What is DNA polymerase I 3’-to-5’ exonuclease activity important for?

A

Proof reading

415
Q

What is DNA polymerase I 5’-to-3’ exonuclease activity important for?

A

Nick translation

416
Q

What do nuclear hormone receptors form on DNA?

A

Homo- or hetero- dimers

417
Q

What does activation of the glucocorticoid receptor by cortisol binding involve?

A

Dissociation of glucocorticoid from Hsp90

418
Q

What are nuclear hormone receptors?

A

Specific DNA-binding transcription factors

419
Q

Can nuclear hormones influence transcription?

A

Yes, they can activate and/or repress transcription

420
Q

Where is the mRNA GMP cap methylated?

A

Position 7

421
Q

What does the poly(A) tail protect RNA from?

A

3’ to 5’ exonucleases

422
Q

What does splicing remove?

A

Introns

423
Q

What is required for splicing?

A

mRNA cap

424
Q

Does the Ras protein become oncogenic following truncation?

A

No

425
Q

How does the retinoblastoma protein control the cell cycle?

A

Inhibiting E2F proteins

426
Q

What is an increase in copy number of the N-myc gene associated with in children?

A

Childhood neuroblastoma

427
Q

How many somatic mutations do most human cancers have?

A

1,000-30,000

428
Q

What does the Hardy-Weinberg Law assume?

A

Mating is random
There is no selection
There is no mutation
There is no genetic drift

429
Q

Do genetics play a greater role in schizophrenia or Parkinson’s disease?

A

Schizophrenia

430
Q

What is often used for the treatment of malignant melanoma?

A

Drugs that inhibit the mutant B-RAF oncogene

431
Q

What do tumour initiating cells (cancer stem cells) contribute to?

A

Resistance against radiation therapy

432
Q

Can cells with unrepaired DNA damage become senescent?

A

Yes

433
Q

What happens during a PET experiment?

A

Gamma radiation is detected from positron-electron annihilation

434
Q

Why is arganine so basic?

A

Has a guanido group?

435
Q

What amino acid has a sidechain that attaches to sugars in N-linked oligosaccharides?

A

Asparagine

436
Q

Is phenylalanine hydrophobic or aromatic?

A

Both

437
Q

Where is succinate dehydrogenase located?

A

Inner mitochondrial membrane

438
Q

What is an allosteric activator of pyruvate carboxylase?

A

Acetyl-CoA

439
Q

What is an allosteric activator of glycogen phosphorylase?

A

5’- adenosine monophosphate

440
Q

What imports proteins from the cytosol in a fully folded state?

A

Nucleus

441
Q

What conveys proteins from the Golgi apparatus to the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

COP I vesicles

442
Q

Where are sugar residues first attached to proteins?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum lumen

443
Q

What has EF-hands that bind Ca2+?

A

Calmodulin

444
Q

What inhibits degradation of cyclic AMP?

A

Caffeine

445
Q

What stimulates release of Ca2+ from the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Isonitol-1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3)

446
Q

What are transposons?

A

Mobile genetic elements?

447
Q

What is replicative transposition?

A

Chromosomal rearrangement that increases genome size

448
Q

What is a physical measure of DNA complexity?

A

Annealing rate

449
Q

What is the peak wavelength of ultraviolet absorbance of DNA?

A

260nm

450
Q

How much DNA is in the human nucleus?

A

6pg

451
Q

What promotes CAP-independent protein translation?

A

IRES

452
Q

What signal facilitates digestion in lysosomes?

A

KFERQ

453
Q

What enzyme is involved in targeted protein degradation?

A

Ubiquitin ligase

454
Q

What is an oncogene?

A

Dominantly acting cancer gene

455
Q

What is a spontaneous deamination of 5-methylcytosine?

A

Endogenous mutational process

456
Q

What is a translocation involving chromosome 1 and chromosome 5?

A

Structural variation

457
Q

What is an explanation for the high frequency of heterozygous carriers of the HbS autosomal recessive allele for sickle-cell disease in Africa?

A

Balancing selection

458
Q

What is array-based genomic hybridisation?

A

Molecular cytogenic method for determining copy number variation in a test sample compared to a reference sample

459
Q

What is variable penetrance?

A

Less than 100% of individuals with a particular genotype display the expected phenotype

460
Q

What is fMRI?

A

A method of measuring brain activity using MRI that is sensitive to changes in blood flow and levels of oxygen

461
Q

What is FDG?

A

A PET tracer that is an analogue for glucose

462
Q

How might inhibitors of phosphotyrosine phosphatases be expected in principal to impact cells responsiveness to insulin?

A

Increase it

463
Q

What increases the phosphorylase enzyme activity of glycogen phosphorylase b?

A

Phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase b at serine 14
Binding of 5’AMP to phosphorylase b

464
Q

What is oxidised and reduced in the electron transport chain?

A

Everything up to complex 3 is reduced
Everything after complex 3 is oxidised

465
Q

Complex III of the electron transport chain is inhibited by antimycin. What would happen to the redox state of copper and cytochrome a if antimycin was added to mitochondria that were oxidising NADH?

A

Copper and cytochrome a both become more oxidised

466
Q

What is the net yield of ATP when glycogen is utilised by contracting muscle?

A

3 ATP

467
Q

How does carbon derived from carbohydrate and fatty acids enter the citric acid cycle?

A

Condensation of acetyl-CoA with oxaloacetate

468
Q

What is the absorbance of a compound at a given wavelength equal to?

A

Its concentration x the width of the sample cuvette x the molar absorbance coefficient

469
Q

Can amino acids be glucogenic?

A

Most are

470
Q

What can some amino acids be metabolised to to contribute to fatty acid synthesis under appropriate conditions?

A

Acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate

471
Q

What sort of molecule is urea?

A

Highly soluble, uncharged

472
Q

What is required as a cofactor by an enzyme that post-translationally modifies collagen?

A

Ascorbic acid

473
Q

Where do collagen molecules assemble before being secreted?

A

In the endoplasmic reticulum of fibroblast cells

474
Q

What is the primary sequence of collagen composed of?

A

Many repeats of the sequence glycine-X-Y where X and Y are often proline and hydroxyproline

475
Q

What is the carbonyl oxygen of each peptide bond hydrogen bonded to?

A

The amide nitrogen of the amino acid 4 residues towards the C-terminus

476
Q

Can protein alpha helices be amphipathic?

A

Yes

477
Q

Are protein alpha helices right or left handed?

A

Right handed

478
Q

Do protein alpha helices tend to maximise hydrogen bonding?

A

Yes

479
Q

What two amino acids are never found in proteins?

A

Citrulline
Ornithine

480
Q

What amino acid is involved in the hydrophobic interaction between insulin and its receptor?

A

Phenylalanine

481
Q

What amino acid is involved in disulphide formation between the A and B chains of insulin

A

Cysteine

482
Q

What amino acid is involved in a site for regulatory phosphorylation by the kinase activity of the insulin receptor?

A

Tyrosine

483
Q

Where must insulin be injected?

A

A site of slow release, ie fat pads but absolutely not a blood vessel

484
Q

What is a recently-developed drug treatment of type 2 diabetes?

A

Stimulation of the response to the insulin receptor by thiazolidinediones

485
Q

What would be the affect of CO2 reacting with α-amino groups and introducing negative charges that stabilise deoxyhaemoglobin?

A

Altered affinity of oxygen for haemoglobin

486
Q

How is iron coordinated in haemoglobin?

A

By N atoms, 4 from the haem ring and one as an axial ligand from histidine

487
Q

What changes occur when oxygen binds to haemoglobin?

A

O2 binding allows iron to move into the plane of the haem ring accompanied by α-helix movements that lead to a more open structure

488
Q

What metabolic process corresponds with the synthesis of malonyl-CoA?

A

Fatty acid synthesis

489
Q

What metabolic process corresponds with the donation of the CoA group from succinyl-CoA to a 4-carbon acceptor?

A

Ketone body utilisation

490
Q

What metabolic process corresponds with the synthesis of glutamate?

A

Transamination

491
Q

What intracellular enzyme is activated as a result of phosphorylation by protein kinase A and which cleaves its substrate into two products that are both released into the blood for use by other tissues?

A

Triacylglycerol lipase

492
Q

What enzyme’s activity is increased during gluconeogenesis as a result of a fall in the concentration of a potent inhibitor in response to glucagon activity?

A

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

493
Q

What enzyme is require for fatty acid synthesis, is activated by insulin, and inhibited by glucagon via phosphorylation of the enzyme protein at different sites?

A

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase and fatty acid synthase, but acetyl-CoA is a regulatory point for fatty acid synthesis

494
Q

Where are fatty acids released from during fasting?

A

Adipose tissue

495
Q

Where are chylomicrons synthesised following the ingestion of a high-fat meal?

A

Gut epithelium

496
Q

Where is urea synthesised?

A

Liver

497
Q

What ligand is required for the activation of calmodulin?

A

Calcium

498
Q

What is a regulator of cytosolic guanylyl cyclase?

A

Nitrous oxide (NO)

499
Q

What is produced by membrane bound and cytosolic guanylyl cyclase?

A

3’5’ cyclic GMP

500
Q

What enzyme class catalyses geometric or structural changes within one molecule?

A

Isomerase

501
Q

What enzyme class catalyses oxido-reduction reactions?

A

Dehydrogenase

502
Q

What enzyme class catalyses bond breaking by means other than hydrolysis and oxidation?

A

Lyase

503
Q

What is the concentration of the substrate at which the enzyme velocity is half maximal?

A

Km

504
Q

What is the gradient of the straight line obtained from a Lineweaver-Burk plot?

A

Km/Vmax

505
Q

What is the intercept on the X axis of a Lineweaver-Burk plot?

A

-1/Km

506
Q

What guanine nucleotide-binding protein can regulate intracellular vesicle fusion?

A

Rab

507
Q

What protein is folded in the endoplasmic reticulum and stored in secretory granules?

A

Insulin

508
Q

What structural coat protein is required for the exit of transport vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Cop II

509
Q

What amino acid is most positively charged?

A

Arginine

510
Q

What amino acids are positively charged, from most to least?

A

Arginine
Lysine
Histidine

511
Q

What amino acids are negatively charged?

A

Aspartic acid
Glutamic acid

512
Q

What amino acids have hydrophobic side chains?

A

Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Phenylalanine
Methionine
Leucine
Isoleucine
Valine
Alanine

513
Q

What amino acids have uncharged side chains?

A

Serine
Threonine
Asparagine
Glutamine
Tyrosine
Cysteine
Proline
Glycine

514
Q

What amino acids have polar uncharged side chains?

A

Tyrosine
Serine
Threonine
Asparagine
Glutamine

515
Q

What is Arg?

A

Arginine

516
Q

What is His?

A

Histidine

517
Q

What is Lys?

A

Lysine

518
Q

What is Asp?

A

Aspartic acid

519
Q

What is Glu?

A

Glutamic acid

520
Q

What is Trp?

A

Tryptophan

521
Q

What is Tyr?

A

Tyrosine

522
Q

What is Phe?

A

Phenylalanine

523
Q

What is Met?

A

Methionine

524
Q

What is Leu?

A

Leucine

525
Q

What is Ile?

A

Isoleucine

526
Q

What is Val?

A

Valine

527
Q

What is Ala

A

Alanine

528
Q

What is Ser?

A

Serine

529
Q

What is Thr?

A

Threonine

530
Q

What is Asn?

A

Asparagine

531
Q

What is Gln?

A

Glutamine

532
Q

What is Cys?

A

Cysteine

533
Q

What is Pro?

A

Proline

534
Q

What is Gly?

A

Glycine

535
Q

What process converts glycogen to glucose?

A

Glycogenolysis

536
Q

What process converts glucose to glycogen?

A

Glycogenesis

537
Q

What process converts glucose to pyruvate?

A

Glycolysis

538
Q

What process converts pyruvate to glucose?

A

Gluconeogenesis

539
Q

What process converts protein to amino acids?

A

Proteolysis

540
Q

What converts triacylglycerol to fatty acids?

A

Lypolysis

541
Q

What process converts fatty acids to triacylglycerol?

A

Esterification

542
Q

What is the conversion of fatty acids to acetyl CoA?

A

Beta oxidation

543
Q

What is the conversion of acetyl CoA to fatty acids?

A

Lipogenesis

544
Q

What is the conversion of ketone bodies to acetyl CoA?

A

Ketolysis

545
Q

What is the conversion of acetyl CoA to ketone bodies?

A

Ketogenesis

546
Q

What cyclin-dependent kinases are in G1?

A

CDK4
CDK6

547
Q

What cyclin-dependent kinases are in G1/S?

A

CDK2

548
Q

What cyclin-dependent kinases are in S?

A

CDK2

549
Q

What cyclin-dependent kinases are in M?

A

CDK1

550
Q

What cyclins are present in G1?

A

Cyclin D1, D2, D3

551
Q

What cyclins are present in G1/S?

A

Cyclin E

552
Q

What cyclins are present in S?

A

Cyclin A

553
Q

What cyclins are present in M?

A

Cyclin B

554
Q

What inhibits CDK2?

A

P21
P27

555
Q

What does isocitrate dehydrogenase catalyse?

A

The decarboxylation of isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate

556
Q

What cofactor is used by aminotransferases?

A

Vitamin B6

557
Q

What do fish excrete nitrogen as?

A

Ammonium ions

558
Q

What is glycosylation of proteins catalysed by?

A

Cytosolic enzymes

559
Q

Does an enzyme with a high km have a low or high affinity for its substrate?

A

Low

560
Q

What does the PH domain bind to?

A

Inositol phospholipids

561
Q

What does PTB domain bind to?

A

Phosphorylated tyrosines

562
Q

What is required to initiate fatty acid synthesis?

A

Acetyl CoA
Malonyl CoA
NADPH

563
Q

What can be added or removed from proteins in the Golgi apparatus?

A

Add or remove sugar
Add sulphate groups
Add phosphate

564
Q

What is the TTAGGG repeat associated with?

A

Telomeres

565
Q

Where is purifying selection strongest?

A

Non-coding regions of genomes

566
Q

What does APC/C CDH1 degrade?

A

Securin and cyclins from S and M

567
Q

What is the cofactor of succinate dehydrogenase?

A

FAD+

568
Q

What is the cofactor of the E1 component of PDH complex?

A

Thiamine Pyrophosphate

569
Q

What inhibits phosphofructokinase 1?

A

ATP
Citrate

570
Q

What liberates iron from Fe-S clusters?

A

Superoxide

571
Q

What accepts electrons from complex 1?

A

Ubiquinone

572
Q

What converts succinate to fumarate?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase subunit A

573
Q

What accepts electrons from the conversion of succinate to fumarate?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase subunit B

574
Q

What is dideoxynucleotide (ddNTP)?

A

A chain terminating nucleotide used in Sanger sequencing

575
Q

What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 topoisomerases?

A

Type 1 cleave one dna strand
Type 2 cleave two dna strands

576
Q

What is a cluster of defined alleles inherited together?

A

Haplotype

577
Q

What enzyme regulates centrosome duplication?

A

CDK2

578
Q

What enzyme is required to remove sister chromatid cohesion?

A

Separase

MIMS (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions