MCCQE1 Flashcards
1
Q
Mechanism in cervical insufficiency (Interleukin)
A
IL-8
2
Q
Cervical insufficiency treatment
A
Progesterone or cerclage (ø benefit to combine)
3
Q
MSAFP for in Down (T21)?
A
Decreased
4
Q
Dates for chorionic sampling, amniocentesis
A
Chorionic: 12 wk
Amnio: 11 wk possible, optimal at 15-17 wk
5
Q
4Ts of PPH
A
Tone (atony, 75% cases), Tissue (retained placenta), Thrombin (coagulopathy), Trauma (laceration)
6
Q
Postcoital bleeding. R/O what?
A
Cancer until proven otherwise
7
Q
T/F Negative Pap rules out cancer
A
False
8
Q
Hallmark of subserous leiomyoma
A
calcifications
9
Q
Which has most risk of ectopic pregnancy? Hx of 3 PIDs or an IUD
A
3 PIDs
10
Q
Tamoxifen: agonist / antagonist on what?
A
More agonist on bone tissue (prevents osteoporosis)
11
Q
Tamoxifen ↑↓ risk of endometrial cancer?
A
↑
12
Q
Which drug associated with placental abruption?
A
Cocaine
13
Q
PCOS ↑↓ endometrial cancer?
A
↑
14
Q
Chancre vs chancroid, which is painful?
A
Chancroid (H. ducrei, do-cry)
15
Q
Age at which to investigate 1° amenorrhea?
A
If 2° sex characteristics: wait until 16, if no 2° sex characteristics investigate at 14
16
Q
Treatment for male HPV
A
Podophylline
17
Q
NTDs, MSFAP is ↑ or ↓?
A
↑
18
Q
BRCA1, % risk for breast cancer, ovarian cancer?
A
65% breast
40% ovary
19
Q
BRCA1, age at which to start screening?
A
25 years
20
Q
GDM, induce at which week? What if IDGDM?
A
GDM: 41 wk
IDGDM: 39 wk
21
Q
2° line uterotonic after oxytocin?
A
Carboprost
22
Q
Which management is NOT acceptable for DeQuervain Tenosynovitis?
A
Watchful Waiting
23
Q
DDH management by age
A
0-6 mo: Pavlik Harness
6-18 mo: Closed reduction under US guidance + spica
> 18 mo: Medial approach open reduction at 2 years or if failure
24
Q
α1-antagonist for BPH
A
Terazosin
25
5α-reductase antagonist for BPH
Finasteride
26
Right handed man, left knee pain. Cane in which hand and and advance with which leg?
CHAI
| Controlateral Hand, Advance with Ipsilateral leg
27
GCS
Eyes 4 (spontaneous 4, command 3, pain 2, no 1)
Speech 5 (clear 5, confused 4, words 3, sounds 2, no 1)
Motor 6 (command 6, localize 5, withdraw 4, decorticate 3, decerebrate 2, no 1)
28
Nursemaid's elbow, treatment?
Supination-flexion or hyperpronation
29
Echinococcus liver abcess tx?
Flagyl
30
Echinococcus intraluminal disease tx?
Paromomycine
31
Success rate of Mohs for BCC? Recurrence?
96% success rate, <5% recurrence
32
Osteosarcoma age
5-20 yr, then > 65 yr
33
Osteosarcoma vs Ewing location
Ewing: Diaphysis
OS: Metaphysis
34
Benign features of calcifications on mammography?
Large, popcorn
35
Prostate TNM
T1 ø palpable
T2 confined to prostate
T3 extracapsular
T4 bladder, pelvic wall or adjacent
36
Prostate Mx characteristic
Osteoblastic
37
MALT caused by what? Tx?
H. Pylori. Eradication
38
Most common esophageal cancer worldwide, US?
Worldwide: SCC
US: ADK
39
Esophageal SCC risk factor
Hot drinks, tobacco
40
Esophageal ADK risk factor
Barrett esophagus
41
Colorectal cancer screening
low risk individuals:
q1-2 FOBT
Colonoscopy q10
Low risk individuals: If > 10 polyps, or > 1 cm -> q2
High risk individuals: if 1 polyp, <1 cm -> q5
if ≥ 2 polyps, > 1 cm -> q3
42
What to resect as well in meckel?
Appendix
43
Acute monoarticular arthritis: (almost) always exclude what?
septic arthritis
44
Most common 2° effect with SSRI in med
Delayed ejaculation
45
Sleep changes in depression
↓ REM latency so ↓ duration of deep phase (restorative) sleep
46
Atypical antipsychotics, highest risk of metabolic syndrome
Olanzapine
47
Kawasaki severity criteria
HypoNa, via SIADH
48
Gold standard for pneumococcus vaccination in peds?
13-valent
49
Lens opacification, which enzyme?
Gal-1-P- uridyltransferase
50
Neuroblastoma, dose what substance?
Vanillic acid
51
Isotretinoin, what congenital anomaly?
Microcephaly
52
Treatment for impetigo (local or generalized)
Mupirocin or clavulin
53
Alport syndrome
Recurrent hematuria, SN deafness, FHx renal failure
54
Down syndrome + UMN findings. R/O what?
Atlantoaxial instability
55
Head lice treatment
permethrin
56
Icterus at mid-abdomen, what's the bilirubin at?
250
57
Marfan gene
Fibrillin-1
58
Treatment for strep throat if penicillin allergy
erythromycin
59
NSAIDS vs Prostaglandin (which) for patent ductus arteriosus
NSAIDs CLOSE PDA
| PGE1 keeps it OPEN
60
Rubeola
Rougéole, measles
| Koplik spots
61
Rubella
Rubéole, german measles
| Majority asymptomatic
62
Bacterial tracheitis, which germ?
SA
63
Molluscum, which virus?
Poxvirus
64
Absence seizure, which Ψ disorder associated?
ADHD, inattentive type
65
Pertussis treatment
Erythromycin (if > 1 month age)
66
2 associations hepatitis & vasculitis
HCV - cryoglobulinemia
| HBV - PAN
67
Which Hb required to SEE cyanosis?
50
68
Which Bili required to SEE icterus?
50
69
3 germ in travellers diarrhea
cryptosporidium, cyclosporidium, giardia
70
aSx elderly patient with ALP? R/O what?
Paget
71
Paget, quelle complication ORL?
Otosclérose
72
Lewy-Body Dementia (3 features)
Visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism, fluctuating cognition
73
Frontotemporal dementia (3 features)
Personality & Behaviour changes, compulsions, executive dysfx
74
ALS treatment
Riluzole
75
EPO consequence
Worsen HTN and cause hypertensive crisis
76
6 causes of erythema nodosum
OCP, sarcoidosis, TB, IBD, histoplasmosis, Behcet
77
Febrile neutropenia Tx
Pip tazo
78
GPA/EGPA, which ANCA?
GPA (Wegner) = c-ANCA
| EGPA (Churg-Strauss) = p-ANCA
79
Restless leg syndrome, r/o what?
Test iron deficiency, correct if present?
80
Herpetiform dermatitis, tx?
Dapsone
81
Flumist age?
2-59 years, not in pregnancy, AIDS, immunosuppressed
82
Sickle cell feature on smear
Howell-Jolly Bodies
83
Guillain-Barre, which infection most frequent?
Campylobacter, herpes, mycoplasma, H. influenza
84
Guillain-Barre, which test for prognosis?
Spirometry for inspiratory force
85
Which lab test to confirm abstinence?
Carbohydrate-deficient transferrin
86
Frequent HSA complication & Tx
Cerebral vasospasm, Triple H therapy and CCB
87
Pneumonia + Diarrhea, which infection?
Legionella
88
HIT skin change?
necrosis at injection site
89
Pheo treatment (order)
Phenoxybenzamine α-blocker first, then β-blockers to prevent severe HTN
90
pH associated with struvite stones
High pH, proteus mirabilis
91
Struvite stones prophylaxis
acetohydroxamic acid
92
Complication of methimazole/PTU
Agranulocytosis
93
PTU/Methimazole in pregnancy
1st trimester: PTU
| 2-3rd trimester: Keep PTU or switch to methimazole
94
Cellulitis germ?
GAS most frequent, SA if purulent
95
Vitamin to prevent hangover?
B6
96
Thyroid cancer
Most common?
Most metastatic?
Most common: Papillary
| Most metastatic: Hurtle ¢
97
Primary biliary cholangitis, antibody? Which deficiency?
ADEK deficiency
| Anti-Mito
98
SCLC, most common paraneoplasic
PTHrP
99
Alkaline urine infection, which germ?
Proteus mirabilis
100
Alcoholic without smell of alcohol + convulsion r/o what?
DT
101
Urine sediment finding in ATN?
Muddy brown casts
102
PCP treatment, when to add corticosteroids?
TMP-SMX, add corticosteroids if PaO2 < 70 or Aa gradient > 35
103
SJS vs TEN?
SJS < 10% BSA
TEN > 30% BSA
Overlap between
104
Hep B vaccination series timing
0, 1, 6 months
105
Furosemide toxicity?
Ototoxicity
106
Jones Criteria for RAA
1. Erythema marginatum
2. S/C nodules
3. Syndenham Chorea
4. Carditis
5. Arthritis
107
Rash affected by ROH?
Rosacea
108
Heinz bodies
G6PD
109
Iron deficiency 2 associations
Breath holding spells
| Restless leg syndrome
110
Battle sign & racoon eyes associated with what?
Temporal bone fx
111
Constitutional growth delay, bone age = ?
Delayed
112
HPV on vaginal mucosa Tx?
Trichloroacetic acid
113
Serotonin syndrome Tx
Cyproheptadine
114
Vaccine with highest amount of egg
Yellow fever vaccine
115
Varicocele management?
Testicular volume measurement
116
Release of preformed thyroid hormone, don't treat with what?
Methimazole (no pregnancy) or PTU
117
Drug induced lupus
Hydralazine
118
Rash BB following GAS infection
Guttate psoriasis
119
Albumin sepsis ↑↓?
↓ acute phase reactant (negative)
120
Lung abcess Tx
Clindamycin
