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MC's Flashcards

0
Q

MC acquired inflammation of the penis

A

Phimosis: inability to retract prepuce (foreskin)

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1
Q

MC penis malformation

A

Hypospadias (ventral)

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2
Q

MC cell type of Penile neoplasms

A

Squamous cell carcinoma 95%

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3
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma in situ AKA

A

Bowen Disease

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4
Q

MC cause of scrotal enlargement

A

Hydrocele

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5
Q

Filariasis (type of scrotum chylocele ) AKA

A

elephantitis

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6
Q

Filariasis resulting in elephantitis cause

A

Filarioidea Spp. (roundworms)

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7
Q

Which type of testicular torsion is MC

A

Adult torsion (age:12-18)

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8
Q

What is considered a urologic emergency

A

Testicular torsion: spermatic cord twisting

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9
Q

Adult torsion is a result of what

A

Bell Clapper Deformity: incomplete attachment to scrotum

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10
Q

Incomplete attachment to scrotum is known as

A

Bell Clapper Deformity (adult torsion)

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11
Q

MC cause of postpubertal testicular cancer

A

Germ Cell Tumors 95%

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12
Q

Two types of malignant germ cell tumors

A

seminomas

nonseminomatous GCT

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13
Q 
Embryonal Carcinoma
Yolk Sac Tumor
Choriocarcinoma
Teratoma
are all types of what?
A

Nonseminomatous Germ Cell Tumors

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14
Q

Alpha Fetal Protein is part of which tumor

A

Yolk Sac Tumor

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15
Q

Carcinomas of the prostate are MC in which zone

A

Peripheral zone

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16
Q

Hyperplasia of the prostate is MC in which zone

A

Transitional zone: surround urethra

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17
Q

MC cause of prostatitis

A

chronic nonbacterial 95%

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18
Q

Chronic nonbacterial prostatitis AKA

A

Chronic pelvic pain syndrome

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19
Q

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) treatment

A

DHT inhibition (dihydrotestosterone)

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20
Q

25% of US men have which type of cancer

A

prostate cancer

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21
Q

Prostate cancer is MC characterized as what

A

indolent (lazy)

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22
Q

Prostate cancer is MC which cell type

A

adenocarcinoma (100%)

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23
Q

Prostate cancer is MC found in which zone?

A

peripheral zone

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24
Q

Prostate cancer is MC between what ages

A

65-75 yo

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25
Q

Osteoblastic mets of prostate cancer MC travel where

A

axial skeleton

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26
Q

Renal Calculus AKA

A

Kidney Stones

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27
Q

Urinary Bladder cancer is MC cause by which cell type

A

Urothelieal Carcinoma 90%

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28
Q

What is MC the first sign of Urinary Bladder Cancer

A

Painless Hematuria

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29
Q

What is the organism for Syphilis

A

Treponema Pallidium

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30
Q

What group is 30x more likely to get syphilis

A

african americans

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31
Q 
Periostitis "Saber Shin"
Saddle nose deformity
Hutchinson's Teeth
Mulberry Molars 
are all signs of what
A

congenital syphilis

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32
Q

Periostitis aka

A

saber shin (congenital syphilis)

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33
Q

MC reportable STD

A

Chlamydia

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34
Q

Organism found in Gonorrhea

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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35
Q

2nd MC reportable STD

A

Gonorrhea

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36
Q

MC bacterial STD

A

Chlamydia

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37
Q

Organism that causes Chlamydia

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

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38
Q

+HLA-B27 Reactive Arthritis deals with which STD

A

Chlamydia

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39
Q

“Can’t Pee” feeling deals with what STD

A

Chlamydia

=Reactive arthritis, +HLA-B27

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40
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum deals with which organism

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

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41
Q

Chancroid deals with which organism

A

Haemophilus Ducreyi

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42
Q

Granuloma Inguinale AKA

A

donovanosis

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43
Q

Granuloma Inguinale is made up of which organism

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

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44
Q

Which penile infection is MC in tropical regions

A

Granuloma inguinale

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45
Q

Human Papilloma Virus is made of what

A

Chondylomata acuminata: venereal warts

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46
Q

MC forms of HPV

A

HPV 6

HPV 11

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47
Q

HPV MC involves which male and female body parts

A

penis

cervix

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48
Q

Lichen Sclerosis is most common in which age group

A

elderly

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49
Q

What is secondary syphilis called

A

chondylomata lata

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50
Q

Vulvar carcinoma is MC made of what cell type

A

Squamous cell carcinoma 90%

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51
Q

What is the MC type of vulvar carcinoma

A

non-HPV-related squamous cell carcinoma

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52
Q

Vaginitis infection can be caused due to which organisms

A

C. albicans (white), Trichomonas vaginalis (green)

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53
Q

Mothers to took (DES) diethylstilbestrol are at a 40x increased chance of getting which type of cancer

A

clear cell adenocarcinoma (vaginal cancer)

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54
Q

Which type of vaginal cancer is MC found in ages <5 years

A

sarcoma botryoids

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55
Q

What is the MC organism that causes cervicitis

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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56
Q

MC high risk HPV

A

HPV 16

HPV 18

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57
Q

Epithelial endocervix cells are composed of what

A

columnar

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58
Q

Epithelial Exocervix cells are composed of what

A

squamous

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59
Q

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is a precursor to what

A

invasive carcinoma

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60
Q

Invasive carcinoma of the cervix is MC made of what cell type

A

Squamous cell carcinoma 75%

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61
Q

Koilocytosis

A

HPV

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62
Q

Secondary to pelvic inflammatory disease, what is the MC condition of the uterus

A

Endometritis (inflammation of endometrium)

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63
Q

What causes endometritis of the uterus

A

Retained items from conceptions, abortion, IUD

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64
Q

What is the cause of 50% of female infertility

A

Endometriosis: extrauterine endometrial tissue

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65
Q

MC female genital tract cancer

A

endometrial carcinoma

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66
Q

Endometrial Polyps are MC in which phase of life

A

menopause

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67
Q

Leiomyosarcoma MC mets to what

A

lungs

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68
Q

Leiomyoma AKA

A

Fibroids: smooth muscle tumors

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69
Q

MC inflammation of the Fallopian tubes

A

Salpingitis

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70
Q

Fallopian tube carcinoma MC located where

A

fimbriae

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71
Q

Fallopian tube carcinoma is made up of what cell type

A

adenocarcinoma

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72
Q

Mutations to what two genes cause Fallopian tube carcinoma

A

BRCA1

BRCA2

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73
Q

8th MC CA in US women

A

ovarian neoplasia

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74
Q

5th MC cause of CA related death

A

ovarian neoplasia

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75
Q

90% of ovarian cancers is what type

A

surface epithelial tumors

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76
Q

MC type of surface epithelial tumors

A

serous tumors

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77
Q

MC malignant surface epithelial tumor

A

endometrioid tumor: associated with endometrial and endometriosis CA

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78
Q

MC placental infection

A

ascending infection

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79
Q

MC cell type of ascending placental infection

A

mycoplasma

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80
Q

Which placental infection deals with TORCH

A

transplacental

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81
Q

What does TORCH stand for

A 
Toxoplasmosis
Other
Rubella virus
CMV
HSV/HIV
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82
Q

MC ectopic pregnancy location

A

Fallopian tubes 90%

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83
Q

Which gestational trophoblastic disease can “cannon ball metastisis”

A

choriocarcinoma

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84
Q

Where does choriocarcinoma mets to

A

lungs

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85
Q

Which disease deals with HELLP

A

preeclampsia

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86
Q

What does HELLP stand for

A

hemolysis
increase liver enzyme
lower platelets

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87
Q

MC congenital breast lesion

A

inverted nipple

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88
Q

MC fibrocystic disease

A

nonproliferative fibrocystic changes (1-5 cm)

89
Q

Which type of fibrocystic changes increases the risk of breast cancer

A

proliferative fibrocystic changes

90
Q

Chalky white mass

A

fat necrosis

91
Q

Tumors of the breast MC occur in which tissue

A

epithelial cells

92
Q

Tumors of the breast are MC what cell type

A

carcinomas

93
Q

MC benign breast tumor

A

Fibroadenoma (young women)

94
Q

Which tumor of the breast has leaf like projections

A

phyllodes tumor

95
Q

Breast cancer MC occurs in which quadrant

A

superolateral quadrant 50%

96
Q

Invasive ductal carcinoma is MC made from what non invasive carcinoma

A

ductal carcinoma in situ (70-80%)

97
Q

Invasive lobular carcinoma is MC made from which non invasive carcinoma

A

Invasive carcinoma in situ

98
Q

Which invasive breast carcinoma deals with E-cadherin

A

invasive lobular carcinoma

99
Q

Which invasive breast carcinoma deals with triple negative AND BRCA1

A

Medullary carcinoma

100
Q

Which invasive breast carcinoma deals with abundant mucin

A

colloid carcinoma

101
Q

Which invasive breast carcinoma is <1 cm and has an excellent prognosis

A

Tubular carcinoma

102
Q

What % of invasive breast cancer has metastasized to the lymph by time of Dx.

A

50%

103
Q

Lateral and central lesions of invasive breast cancer are MC where

A

axillary nodes

104
Q

Medial lesions of invasive breast cancer are MC where

A

internal mammillary arteries

105
Q

Over expression of what gene leads to a poorer prognosis of invasive breast cancer

A

HER2/neu

106
Q

Gynecomastea is common in males with what condition

A

Kleinfelter disease

107
Q

Gynecomastea is MC in what age group

A

pubescent males

108
Q

Carcinoma of male breast is MC in what age group

A

elderly

109
Q

Gyneocomastea commonly has subareolar swelling referred to as

A

“button like”

110
Q

MC location for hematopoeisis in children

A

marrow of long bones: tibia and femur

111
Q

MC location of hematopoesis in adults

A

pelvis, cranium, vertebral bodies

112
Q

Prevalence of anemia in US:
Men
Women

A

4% men

8% women

113
Q

What happens to kidneys during anemia?

A

increases erythropoesis 5-8x (producing rbcs)

114
Q

Whats the order of what happens after hemolysis

A

HB–> bilirubin–> gallstones/jaundice

115
Q

How much blood loss before going into hypervolemic shock

A

20%

116
Q

Which type of hemolytic anemia is hereditary

A

intracorpuscular defects

117
Q

Which type of hemolytic anemia is aquired

A

extracorpuscular defects

118
Q

Which hemolytic anemia is MC

A

extravascular hemolysis

119
Q

Which hemolytic anemia is an autosomal dominant mutation

A

hereditary spherocytosis

120
Q

Abnormal RBC membrane skeleton deals with which type of hemolytic anemia

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

121
Q

Parvovirus B19 AKA Fifths Disease deals with which hemolytic anemia

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

122
Q

Fifths disease

A

AKA Parvovirus B19

aplastic crisis

123
Q

Which 2 hemolytic anemias are autosomal recessive

A

Sickle Cell Anemia

Thalassemia

124
Q

Beta Globin Mutation deals with which hemolytic anemia

A

Sickle Cell Mutation

125
Q

HbS

A

Sickle Hemoglobin

126
Q

Order of HbS

A

Decrease O2–> Sickling–> microvascular obstruction

127
Q 
Acute Chest syndrome
Stroke
Infection/septicemia
Hypoxia
are all associated with what
A

Sickle Cell Anemia

128
Q

Congestion or infarction due to sickle cell anemia occurs MC where

A

bone marrow

129
Q

MC causes of ischemia related death due to sickle cell anemia

A

stroke

acute chest syndrome

130
Q

H-shaped vertebra are characteristic of what

A

sickle cell anemia

131
Q

H-Shaped Vertebra AKA

A

Lincoln Log vertebra

132
Q

H-Shaped vertebra have what issues

A

microvascular endplate infarctions

central end-plate depression

133
Q

Which hemolytic anemia deals with abnormal hemoglobin production

A

thalassemia

134
Q

What disease is associated with Thalassemia

A

Malaria

135
Q

Which hemolytic anemia has muted alpha and beta globin genes

A

Thalassemia

136
Q

Alpha thalassemia is which chromosome

A

chromosome 16

137
Q

Beta thalassemia is which chromosome

A

Chromosome 11

138
Q

Beta Thalassemia Minor AKA

A

Beta thalassemia trait

139
Q

Beta Thalassemia Minor deals with how many alleles

A

1 allele

minor abnormalitites

140
Q

Beta Thalassemia Major has how many alleles

A

2 alleles

severe

141
Q

Beta Thalassemia Major has what deformity

A

bone marrow expanding into cortex

142
Q

Poikilocytes

A

abnormally shaped rbcs

143
Q

Which hemolytic anemia has eventual iron overload (hemochromatosis)

A

Beta Thalassemia Major

144
Q

Which is more severe? Alpha or Beta Thalassemia

A

Beta is more severe

145
Q

How many total Alpha Globin genes for alpha thalassemia

A

4

146
Q

4 Deletions of alpha thalassemia leads to what

A

lethal hydrops fetalis- no O2 capacity

1 deletion, silent

147
Q

Which hemolytic anemia deals with glutathione (GSH) which neutralizes oxidants that may cause hemolysis

A

G6PD deficiency

148
Q

Which hemolytic anemia has ADR to the following drugs
aspirin
antimalarial drugs
Nitrofurantonin

A

G6PD

149
Q

Nitrofurantonin is a drug used for what

A

E. Coli

150
Q

Which hemolytic anemia has an acquired mutation in myeloid stem cells

A

PNH Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

151
Q

Which gene on PNH Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is the mutation

A

X-linked, PIGA gene

152
Q

immunohemolytic anemia AKA

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

153
Q

opsonization of warm antibody immunohemolytic anemia

A

IgG

154
Q

opsonization of cold antibody immunohemolytic anemia

A

IgM

155
Q

warm antibody immunohemolytic anemia temperature

A

37 C
or
98.6 F

156
Q

cold antibody immunohemolytic anemia temperature

A

<86 F

157
Q

warm antibody immunohemolytic anemia secondary to which disease

A

SLE : Lupus

158
Q

Cold antibody immunohemolytic anemia secondary to which disease

A

EBV: Mono

159
Q

Which hemolytic anemia deals with Raynaud Phenomenon (cold or numbness)

A

Immunohemolytic anemia

160
Q

Traumatic Hemolysis AKA

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

161
Q

Which hemolytic anemia deals with Shistocytes

A

Traumatic hemolysis

162
Q

types of shistocytes (fragmented rbc)

A

Burr cells

Helmet cells

163
Q

Which protozoan is cause of malaria

A

plasmodium falciparum

164
Q

What type of vector causes malaria

A

female anopheles mosquito

165
Q

What disease is associated with blackwater fever

A

malaria

166
Q

aplastic anemia

A

bone marrow failure

167
Q

mylophthisic anemia

A

marrow infiltration

168
Q

megaloblastic anemia nutritional deficiency

A

B12 and Folic acid

169
Q

MC cause of anemia

A

Iron deficiency

170
Q

MC nutritional deficiency

A

iron deficiency

171
Q

Iron store what percent of hemoglobin

A

80%

172
Q

MC of iron deficiency in developed nations

A

blood loss

173
Q

Fingernail spooning is characteristic of which type of anemia

A

megaloblastic anemia

174
Q

Pica diet is associated with which type of anemia

A

megaloblastic anemia

175
Q

Sore tongue is a characteristic of which type of anemia

A

Folate deficiency anemia

176
Q

Vit B12 Deficiency anemia AKA

A

Pernicious anemia

177
Q

MC cause of VitB12 Deficiency anemia

A

chronic malabsorption

178
Q

Which type of anemia is most common among hospitalized

A

anemia of chronic disease

179
Q

Which type of anemia deals with suppression of myeloid stem cells

A

anaplastic anemia

180
Q

Which type of anemia has extensive filtration of bone marrow

A

myelophthisic anemia

181
Q

myelophthisic anemia MC mets where

A

breast, lung, prostate

182
Q

chronic granulomatous disease is associated with which anemia

A

myelophthisic anemia

183
Q

Bridges-good syndrome is associated with which type of anemia

A

myelophthisic anemia

184
Q

Niemann Pick type C is associated with which type of anemia

A

myelophthisic anemia

185
Q

Dacrocytes are associated with which type of anemia

A

myelophthisic anemia

186
Q

what are dacrocytes

A

tear drop shaped rbcs

187
Q

Too many RBC produced is known as what

A

polycythemia

188
Q

Relative polycythemia does what to plasma

A

DECREASES plasma

189
Q

Absolute polycythemia does what to RBC mass

A

INCREASES total RBC mass

190
Q

Which granulocyte is MC

A

Neutrophil

191
Q

How many lobules does a neutrophil have

A

5

192
Q

How many lobules does an eosinophil have

A

2 lobules

193
Q

Purpose of basophil

A

prevent excessive clots (heparin)

194
Q

Agranulocytosis

A

severe neutropenia

195
Q

neutropenia

A

decreased granulocytes

196
Q

Infectious mononucleosis AKA

A

EPV, HHV-4

197
Q

Which bacterial organism is the cause of cat scratch fever

A

bartonella henselae

198
Q

MC location for lymphadenopathy from cat scrath fever

A

axillary and cervical

199
Q

“Stormy” onset is a feature of which type of leukemia

A

acute leukemia

200
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia MC tumor type

A

Pre-B cell tumors

201
Q

Lymphoblastic lymphoma deals with which type of tumors

A

Pre- T cell tumor

202
Q

MC type of pediatric leukemia

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia

203
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia deals with which cell type

A

B cell

204
Q

MC leukemia of adulthood

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

205
Q

Hypogammaglobulinemia is associated with which type of leukemia

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

206
Q

Which type of leukemia resembles diffuse large B cell lymphoma

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

207
Q

Which lymphoma has centrocytes

A

follicular lymphoma

208
Q

What is a centrocytes

A

lymphocyte with cleaved nuclei

209
Q

MC adult non-hodgkins lymphoma

A

follicular lymphoma

210
Q

Which lymphoma deals with dysfunctional cyclins

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

211
Q

MC lymphoma of adulthood

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

212
Q

Which lymphoma MC affects children and young adults and characteristically affects facial structures

A

Burkitt lymphoma

213
Q

Which is one of the fastest growing human neoplasms

A

Burkitt lymphoma

214
Q

MC plasma cell cancer

A

multiple myeloma

215
Q

Bence-Jones proteins deal with which cancer type

A

multiple myeloma

216
Q

MC sites of lytic lesion from multiple myeloma

A

vertebral column, ribs, skull

217
Q

Reed-sternburg cells are hallmark feature of what

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

218
Q

Reed-Sternburg cells resemble what

A

owl eye

219
Q

Exposure to agent orange increases risk of what cancer

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

PATH final MC's (1 decks)

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