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SU518 > MC fra immunologibogen > Flashcards

MC fra immunologibogen Flashcards

immunologi

1
Q

Which of the following cells are involved in allergic reactions?
I. Mast cells
II. Basophils
III. Eosinophils

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III

A

D. I, II, and III

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2
Q 
Which of the following cells are the major effector cells in an immune response?
I. Lymphocytes
II. Monocytes
III. Basophils
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III
A

A. I and II

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3
Q

In positive selection in the thymus, immature thymocytes react with:
A. MHC molecules on cortical epithelial cells
B. T cell receptors (TCRs)
C. B cell receptors
D. Thymic epithelium

A

A. MHC molecules on cortical epithelial cells

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4
Q 
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency II is caused by a:
A. Deficiency in CD3
B. Deficiency in TCRs
C. Deficiency in fucose transport
D. Deficiency in CD18
A

C. Deficiency in fucose transport

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5
Q 
Cells that actually produce antibodies are:
A. Plasma cells
B. B cells
C. Monocytes
D. T cells
A

A. Plasma cells

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6
Q 
The subpopulation of T cells that assist in the production of antibodies is:
A. CD4 Th1 cells
B. CD4 Th2 cells
C. CD8 Tc1 cells
D. CD8 Tc2 cells
A

B. CD4 Th2 cells

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7
Q 
In mammals, B cell maturation is believed to occur in:
I. Bone marrow
II. Peyer’s patches
III. Bursa of Fabricus
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III
A

A. I and II

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8
Q 
Which of the following cells reside in tissue?
I. Macrophages
II. Mast cells
III. Basophils
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III
A

A. I and II

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9
Q

Large granular lymphocytes have the following characteristics:
I. CD 16 expressed on the cell membrane
II. Ability to lyse virus-infected cells and tumor cells
III. Representative of a third lymphocyte lineage
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III

A

D. I, II, and III

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10
Q 
Which of the following is found on skin?
I. Perspiration
II. Sebum
III. Lactic acid
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

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11
Q 
In which of the following is the mucociliary escalator found?
A. Skin
B. Respiratory tract
C. Intestinal tract
D. Urogenital tract
A

B. Respiratory tract

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12
Q 
Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) are:
I. Highly conserved molecular structures
II. Common to most pathogenic bacteria
III. Found on the surface of phagocytic cells
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

C. I and II

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13
Q 
Which of the following are characteristics of serum complement?
I. Nine serum proteins are present
II. Fragments are opsonins
III. Fragments are chemotactic
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

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14
Q 
Which of the following is not considered a collectin?
A. Zymosan
B. Mannose-binding lectin (MBL)
C. Bovine conglutinin
D. Bovine collectin 43
A

A. Zymosan

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15
Q

Which of the following are functional responses of Toll-like receptor ligation?
A. Phagocytosis and intracellular killing
B. Proliferation of CD8 cells
C. Synthesis of nitric oxide
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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16
Q 
Which of following are associated with toxic shock caused by endotoxins?
I. Lipopolysaccharide
II. Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR-4)
III. Tumor necrosis factor–alpha (TNF-α)
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

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17
Q 
Which of the following is associated with the acute-phase response?
I. Fever
II. Synthesis of acute-phase proteins
III. Demargination of lymphocytes
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

C. I and II

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18
Q 
Which of the following are small -(29–35 amino acids)-molecular-weight proteins produced by white blood and tissue cells?
A. Cathelicidins
B. Ferritin
C. Defensins
D. Haptoglobin
A

C. Defensins

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19
Q 
In which of the following are HLAs involved?
I. Antigen presentation
II. Transplantation
III. Autoimmunity
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

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20
Q 
Which of the following is a dual-chain class II molecule?
A. MIC
B. HLA-A
C. HLA-DR
D. HLA-C
A

C. HLA-DR

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21
Q 
HLA class I molecules present antigen to:
A. CD8 cells
B. CD4Th1 cells
C. CD4Th2 cells
D. B cells
A

A. CD8 cells

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22
Q

HLA class II molecules can bind longer antigenic epitopes because:
A. Antigens bind at the ends of the binding groove
B. Antigens bind in the middle of the binding groove
C. Antigens bind in both the middle and ends of the binding groove
D. Antigens bind to β2-microglobulin

A

B. Antigens bind in the middle of the binding groove

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23
Q 
By definition, allelic polymorphism is:
I. A locus within the HLA complex
II. Different forms of a gene within a loci
III. SNPs within a polymorphic allele
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

D. II and III

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24
Q 
Which of the following is an immunologically important gene cluster located outside the HLA complex on chromosome 6?
A. MIC
B. CD1
C. BLS
D. Class II
A

B. CD1

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25
Q 
A set of HLA genes on the same chromosome is called a:
A. Haplotype
B. Genotype
C. Heterozygote
D. Cross-over
A

A. Haplotype

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26
Q 
A class II molecule consists of:
I. A single glycoprotein chain
II. A single glycoprotein chain plus a β2-microglobulin molecule
III. Two glycoprotein chains
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

B. III

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27
Q 
A DNA base pair change in a gene within the HLA complex is called a:
A. Single nucleotide polymorphism
B. Haplotype
C. Genotype
D. Gene conversion
A

A. Single nucleotide polymorphism

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28
Q 
Which of the following are considered tissue macrophages?
I. Follicular dendritic cells
II. Interdigitating cells
III. Langerhans cells
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

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29
Q 
Which of the following cells is considered a “professional” antigen-presenting cell?
A. Monocyte
B. Endothelial cell
C. Keratinocyte
D. Fibroblast
A

A. Monocyte

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30
Q 
Follicular dendritic and interdigitating dendritic cells arise from a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ precursor cell.
A. Lymphoid
B. Myeloid
C. Platelet
D. Red blood cell
A

B. Myeloid

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31
Q 
Which of the following are able to hold native or processed antigens on the cell surface using iccosomes?
A. Follicular dendritic cells
B. Interdigitating dendritic cells
C. Plasmacytoid dendritic cells
D. Monocytic dendritic cells
A

A. Follicular dendritic cells

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32
Q

Which of the following is a role of the invariant chain (Ii) in antigen processing?
I. Directing the class II molecule to the phagosome or endosome
II. Preventing peptide loading of the class II molecule until it reaches the phagosome or the endosome
III. Preventing class I molecules from competing for low-stability peptides
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III

A

C. I and II

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33
Q 
What are the specialized macrophage populations found in the brain called?
A. Glial cells
B. Kupffer cells
C. Osteocytes
D. Histiocyte
A

A. Glial cells

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34
Q 
Which of the following are characteristics of a thymus-independent type II antigen?
I. Lipopolysaccharide endotoxins
II. Cross-links B cell receptors (BCRs)
III. Stimulates B cells to produce low affinity antibodies
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

D. II and III

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35
Q 
B cell differentiation to plasma cells is driven by a cytokine called:
A. BLyS
B. PALS
C. TACI
D. BCMA
A

A. BLyS

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36
Q 
Which of the following is a biotechnology-derived fusion protein that blocks B cell differentiation into plasma cells?
A. Abatacept
B. Alefacept
C. Atacicept
D. Efalizumab
A

C. Atacicept

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37
Q 
Which of the following is a characteristic of the B cell receptor?
I. Resembles an immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody
II. Binds to only one type of antigen
III. Signals to activation pathways
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

C. I and II

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38
Q 
Which of the following interactions are required to produce antibodies to a thymus-dependent antigen?
I. Antigen and a BCR
II. CD2 and antigen-bound C3d
III. B cell class II molecules and the T cell receptor (TCR) on activated T cells
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

39
Q 
Thymus-independent type I antigens stimulate B cells to produce antibodies by:
A. Cross-linking BCRs
B. Binding to BCRs and Toll receptors
C. Binding to BCRs and CR2
D. Binding to class II antigens
A

B. Binding to BCRs and Toll receptors

40
Q 
Which of the following antibodies is the first antibody produced during an immune response?
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgA
D. IgD
A

A. IgM

41
Q 
IgE antibodies bind to:
I. Basophiles
II. Mast cells
III. Monocytes
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

C. I and II

42
Q 
Which of the following antibodies is found in external secretions?
A. IgD
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgE
A

C. IgA

43
Q 
Bone destruction in multiple myeloma patients is caused by:
A. Activation of osteoclasts
B. Activation of osteoblasts
C. Production of IL-4
D. Production of IL-2
A

A. Activation of osteoclasts

44
Q 
Which of the following antibody fragments can bind two antigens?
A. Fc
B. Fab
C. F(ab’)2
D. Fd
A

C. F(ab’)2

45
Q 
Antibody isotypes are differentiated on the basis of:
I. Heavy chain structure
II. Light chain structure
III. Variable region of light chains
A I
B. III
C I and II
E. II and III
F. I, II, and III
A

A I

46
Q 
Which of the following is a characteristic of the T cell receptor (TCR)?
I. Is present on all T cells
II. Has dual-chain structure
III. Recognizes antigen bound to class I and class II molecules
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

47
Q 
To which of the following can some genetic diversity in the TCR be attributed?
I. Differences in the ζ-chain
II. Recombination in α/β-chains
III. Alternate joining of J-chains
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

D. II and III

48
Q 
Which of the following occurs after the interaction between CD40 and CD40L?
I. Secretion of interleukin 12 (IL-12)
II. Activation of CD4 and CD8
III. B cell differentiation
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

49
Q 
Superantigens are molecules that:
I. Interact with class I molecules
II. Interact with class II molecules and TCR outside the binding groove
III. Indiscriminately activate T cells
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

D. II and III

50
Q 
Which of the following components of the CD3 complex lacks signaling capacity?
A. TCR
B. ε-chain
C. γ-chain
D. ζ-chain
A

A. TCR

51
Q 
Which of the following is activated by the interaction between CD28 and B7-1?
A. CD4Th2 cells
B. CD4Th1 cells
C. CD8 cells
D. Natural killer (NK) cells
A

A. CD4Th2 cells

52
Q 
Self-stimulation of IL-2 receptors is called:
A. Paracrine stimulation
B. Autocrine stimulation
C. Hormonal stimulation
D. Neuronal stimulation
A

B. Autocrine stimulation

53
Q 
Which of the following is not a transcription factor for IL-2?
A. AP-1
B. NFAT
C. NF-κB
D. Zap-70
A

D. Zap-70

54
Q 
In the phospholipase Cγ1 pathway, which of the following is responsible for the release of calcium from intracellular stores?
A. Inositol 1,4,5, triphosphate
B. Diacetylglycerol
C. Phosphokinase C
D. NFAT
A

A. Inositol 1,4,5, triphosphate

55
Q 
Which of the following therapeutic agents block the activation of calcineurin?
A. Cyclosporine
B. Sirolimus
C. Basiliximab
D. Corticosteroids
A

A. Cyclosporine

56
Q

The major defect in X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency is an:
A. Inability to synthesize receptor α-chains
B. Inability to synthesize receptor γ-chains
C. Inability to synthesize receptor β-chains
D. Inability to synthesize the Tac protein

A

B. Inability to synthesize receptor γ-chains

57
Q 
Which of the following pathways’ downstream target is NF-κB?
I. Ras–MAP kinase (MAPK) pathway
II. Calcium-independent DAG–PKC signaling pathway
III. PI-3 kinase pathway
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

B. III

58
Q 
CD1 molecules usually bind:
I. Highly conserved microbial lipids
II. Highly conserved self-antigens
III. Highly conserved viral proteins
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

C. I and II

59
Q

Cross-priming explains:
I. The generation of CD4Th2 cells to endogenous antigens
II. The generation of CD8 cells to exogenous antigens
III. The generation of CD4Th1 cells to endogenous antigens
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III

A

D. II and III

60
Q 
In an inflammatory response, the selection and activation of CD4Th1 cells by antigen-loaded class II molecules are determined by the:
A. Expression of CD28 on T cells
B. Expression of CTLA4 on T cells
C. Expression of B7.1 on dendritic cells
D. Expression of B7.2 on dendritic cells
A

D. Expression of B7.2 on dendritic cells

61
Q 
Which of the following is not associated with a cell-mediated response?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Macrophages
D. Natural killer (NK) cells
A

A. B cells

62
Q 
Antigen-presenting CD1 molecules are expressed on:
I. B cells
II. Monocytes
III. Dendritic cells
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

63
Q

The protein that transports endogenous antigens from the cytosol to the endoplasmic reticulum is known as:
A. Tapasin
B. Calreticulin
C. Oxidoreductase
D. Transporter-associated antigen processing (TAP) protein

A

D. Transporter-associated antigen processing (TAP) protein

64
Q 
Papillon–Lefèvre syndrome is associated with a defect in:
A. Cathepsin C
B. TAP function
C. Fas receptor (FasR) function
D. Defective Fas ligand (FasL)
A

A. Cathepsin C

65
Q

Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome type 2 (APLS2) is caused by:
A. Defective interleukin 2 (IL-2) production
B. Defective tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-α) production
C. Defective transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β) production
D. Defective Fas receptors (FasR)

A

D. Defective Fas receptors (FasR)

66
Q

In cell-mediated lysis of target cells, cathepsin C activates:
A. Granzyme
B. Perforin
C. TNF-α
D. Fas-associated protein with death domains (FADD)

A

A. Granzyme

67
Q

Which of the following is required to fully activate CD8Tc1 cells?
A. Interaction between CD8 and antigen-loaded class I molecules
B. Interaction between CD28 and B7.1 molecules
C. Autocrine stimulation by IL-2
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

68
Q 
Which of the following is not a mediator of target cell lysis?
A. Perforin
B. Fas
C. TNF
D. TAP
A

D. TAP

69
Q 
Which of the following is a mechanism by which tumor cells evade the immune system?
A. Upregulation of class I molecules
B. Upregulation of class II molecules
C. Upregulation of B7-2 molecules
D. Downregulation of TAP proteins
A

D. Downregulation of TAP proteins

70
Q 
Which of the following are functions of complement?
I. Opsonization
II. Cell lysis
III. B cell activation
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

71
Q 
The classical pathway C3 convertase consists of:
A. AbC1
B. AbC1C4bC2a
C. C3bBb
D. AbC1C4aC2bC3b
A

B. AbC1C4bC2a

72
Q 
Which of the following are membrane-expressed molecules that inhibit complement deposition on mammalian cells?
I. Decay accelerating factor (CD55)
II. C4 binding protein
III. C1 esterase inhibitor
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

A. I

73
Q

Hereditary angioneurotic edema is caused by:
A. Defective C1 esterase
B. Defective CD59
C. Defective C1 esterase inhibitor
D. Defective homologous restriction factor

A

C. Defective C1 esterase inhibitor

74
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of the alternative complement pathway?
I. C4 activation
II. Spontaneous fragmentation of serum C3
III. Formation of a membrane attack complex (MAC)
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III

A

D. II and III

75
Q 
Which of the following is an anaphylatoxin?
A. C3a
B. C4b
C. C2a
D. C5b
A

A. C3a

76
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of active immunity?
I. Transfer of antibodies from mother to child
II. Direct antigenic stimulation of the immune system
III. Vaccination
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III

A

D. II and III

77
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is caused by:
A. Autoantibodies to smooth muscle
B. Autoantibodies to platelets
C. Antibodies that cross-react with heart muscles
D. Administration of foreign protein

A

B. Autoantibodies to platelets

78
Q

In HAT selection, B cell–myeloma cells survive because they:
A. Have only the nucleic acid salvage pathway
B. Have only the classic de novo DNA synthesis pathway
C. Have two nucleic acid synthesis pathways
D. Have a mutated HPRT enzyme

A

C. Have two nucleic acid synthesis pathways

79
Q 
Which of the following monoclonal antibodies have the least amount of murine protein? (u)
A. Chimeric
B. Humanized
C. Bifunctional
D. Human
A

D. Human

80
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of monoclonal antibodies?
A. Produced by B cells expanded from a single B cell clone
B. Finite reagent
C. Homogeneous isotype
D. Homogeneous affinity constants

A

B. Finite reagent

81
Q 
Which of the following is the leading cause of heart disease in the United States?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Lymphoproliferative diseases
A

C. Kawasaki disease

82
Q 
Which of the following mediators are produced during the late phase of an IgE-mediated allergic reaction?
A. Heparin
B. Histamine
C. Tryptase
D. Leukotrienes
A

D. Leukotrienes

83
Q

Which of the following is not associated with atopy?
A. Increased CD4Th2 cells
B. Increased Fc receptors on mast cells and basophils
C. Increased IL-4 production
D. Increased IL-2 production

A

D. Increased IL-2 production

84
Q 
Allergic rhinitis is associated with:
I. Early-phase and late-phase allergic responses
II. Nasal polyps
III. Bacterial infections
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

85
Q 
Which of the following is characterized by wheal-and-flare reactions in the skin?
A. Urticaria
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Allergic reactions to drugs
D. Allergic rhinitis
A

A. Urticaria

86
Q 
Which of the following are attributes of food allergens?
I. Large molecular weight glycoproteins
II. Resistance to digestion at a low pH
III. Resistance to heat
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

87
Q 
The major house dust mite allergen is:
A. Der p1
B. Bla g1
C. Hevein
D. C1-4 polyisoprene
A

A. Der p1

88
Q 
Which of the following is not a genetic defect that increases the risk of tuberculosis infections?
I. Defective natural resistance–associated macrophage proteins (NRAMPs)
II. Defective vitamin D receptor
III. Defective complement receptor
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

C. I and II

89
Q 
Which of the following is a component of an acid-fast cell wall?
I. Peptidoglycan
II. Mycolic acids
III. Cord factor
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A

E. I, II, and III

90
Q 
Histoplasmosis is endemic in:
A. The Sonoran desert
B. The Ohio and Mississippi river basins
C. The Missouri river basin
D. Southern California
A

B. The Ohio and Mississippi river basins

91
Q 
Multidrug-resistant strains of tuberculosis are resistant to:
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Avolsulfon
C. Cycloserine
D. Isoniazid
A

D. Isoniazid

92
Q 
Which of the following antibiotics is not a cause of photocontact dermatitis?
A. Quinolones
B. Sulfonamides
C. Penicillin
D. Tetracyclines
A

C. Penicillin

93
Q 
Which of the following cells is unique in the delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) response to nickel ions?
A. T cells
B. Th17 cells
C. Monocytes
D. Langerhans cells
A

B. Th17 cells

SU518 (2 decks)

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