MC Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of political, nonjusticiable questions (because they’re committed by the Constitution to a different branch of government)

A

Political questions:
- Deployment of troops
- recognition of foreign governments
- Impeaching president or other federal officials
- Racial gerrymandering is justiciable, but partisan gerrymandering is considered a political question

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2
Q

Congress’s ability to regulate for general welfare

A

Congress is NOT allowed to create legislation “for general welfare”

But they have broad power to spend $$ for general welfare

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3
Q

Encumbrances?

Define & give examples

A

An encumbrance is a right or interest that exists in someone other than the owner of real property that restricts or impairs the transfer of property

Ex: mortgage/liens are encumbrances but if they’re paid off by closing (seller can use purchase price to pay off), then title is marketable

Ex: easements, covenants, purchase options

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4
Q

Quitclaim deed

Does seller still need to provide marketable title?

A

Yes

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5
Q

A sold land to B (who has title insurance), who sold land to C, who sold land to D (the current owner) with quitclaim deed.

D then discovered outstanding mortgage that predated all previous conveyances. Who can D sue?

A

D can sue B. And B can recover from title insurance company, even though B no longer owes the land.

If D sued insurance company directly, D would not get anything

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6
Q

Builder of new house sold to Buyer. Buyer sold to Woman. Woman found latent defects. If Woman sues successfully, who does she sue and why does she succeed?

A

Woman can sue the Builder and if she’s successful, it means they were in a jurisdiction where the implied warranty of habitability/fitness/quality of new home construction is enforceable by a subsequent purchaser

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7
Q

Equitable conversion

(owning vs. legal title)

A

This is about liability during the period between contract and closing.

When contract is signed, buyer is deemed the owner but seller still has “legal title.”

Legal title only transfer from seller to buyer at closing

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8
Q

Risk of loss

(equitable conversion - maj rule)
(uniform vendor and purchaser act - min rule)

“no applicable statute” = maj rule applies

A

MAJ RULE:
if property damaged prior to closing, risk of loss is imposed on the buyer. Buyer would have to cover any losses + pay purchase price to seller

Exceptions (aka when seller bears loss):
- if loss is caused by seller’s own negligence
- if at the time of loss, title was unmarketable

MIN RULE:
- places risk of loss on seller

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9
Q

Deed

definition and validity requirements

A

Document that serves to pass legla title from grantor to grantee when it is (1) lawfully executed and (2) properly delivered

Requirements:
- identification of the parties (cannot be “leaders of all churches in York County” which is too broad)
- in writing and signed by grantor. grantee need not sign
- words of present / actual intent
- adequate land description
- proper delivery (1.g. recording, physical delivery, third party delivery)

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10
Q

Delivery of deed and revocability

A

If grantor physically hands deed to grantee, title passes immediately to grantee and is not revocable.

  • Doesn’t matter if grantor later asks grantee to destroy the deed.
  • Or requests to delay the recording
  • Handing deed back / tearing it up does not undo the conveyance of property through the deed
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11
Q

Consequences of defective deed to future BFP

A

Void/defective deed will be set aside even if transferred to a BFP.
- Void deed&raquo_space; no BFP protection

Voidable deed will be set aside unless transferred to BFP.
- Voidable deed&raquo_space; BFP protection

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12
Q

Estoppel by deed

A

AKA after-accquired title

If someone purports to convey an interest in real property that they don’t own at the time, but subsequently obtains title to the property, the property will automatically pass to the grantee once the grantor acquires title

Estoppel by deed only applies to transfer by warranty deed, not quitclaim deed

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13
Q

Ademption

A

When a testator devised property to a specific person in their will, but the property is no longer part of the estate at the time of testator’s death

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14
Q

Exoneration

A

When a person receives a bequest, and the property is subject to lien or mortgage, then the encumbrance will be paid off with estate’s personal property so that the recipient receives title free and clear of mortgage

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15
Q

Lapse & anti-lapse

A

Lapse occurs when the beneficiary named in a will ends up dying before the testator, and thus the bequest fails

Anti-lapse statutes allow the predeceased beneficiary’s heirs to receive the bequest

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16
Q

Wild deeds

A

Deed that is recorded outside the chain of title. Does NOT provide constructive notice because BFP wouldn’t be able to find it. .

Ex: Owner sells lot to Doctor. Doc does not record. Doc then sells to Surgeon and Surgeon records. Owner subsequently grants to Architect. Architect does not constructive notice

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17
Q

New owner’s responsibility over mortgaged property

A

Sale (or gift) “subject to” the mortgage
- Buyer is NOT personally liable for paying mortgage.
- Buyer is NOT personally liable for any deficiency in the case of a foreclosure

Assumption of mortgage
- Buyer agrees to be personally liable to original mortgagor/mortgagee for repayment of loan.
- Includes any deficiency if there’s a foreclosure
- original mortgagor still “secondarily liable” to the lender as a surety, unless there’s a “release of liability” from the lender

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18
Q

Due on sale clause

A

This requires a property owner who transfers ownership of the property to pay the ENTIRE loan balance to mortgagee in full.

aka loan cannot be “assumed” to a new owner

due on sale clauses ARE reasonable and enforceable (if you see “unreasonable restraint on alienation” as an ac, that’s wrong)

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19
Q

Lien Theory vs Title Theory for mortgages

A

Lien Theory (maj rule)
- Mortgagee / lender holds security interest only. Thus, they may not take possession before foreclosure

Title Theory (minority rule)
- Mortgagee/lender MAY take possession before foreclosure because mortgagee actually holds title until the loan has been paid or foreclosed.

Intermediate Theory
- upon default, legal title shifts to mortgagee/lender who can demand possession

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20
Q

Equitable redemption

(and the right to redeem)

A

Meaning the mortgagor is allowed to pay off the entire mortgage before the foreclosure

This right to redeem cannot be waived. “Clogging the equity of redemption” is not allowed

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21
Q

Statutory redemption

A

Some states allow this, which gives mortgagor opportunity for a fixed period after foreclosure (usually 6 months to 1 year) to “redeem” and pay off the amount due on mortgage

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22
Q

Joint tenancy

definition, creation, key features

A

When 2 or more people hold a single, unified interest in a property

Features:
- automatic right to survivorship
- equal right to posses whole property
- each JT owns property in equal shares
- any JT can unilaterally sever

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23
Q

Judgment lien does not sever joint tenancy.

What happens to the lien interest?

A

When the JT that has the lien against the dies, their interest evaporates and the judgment lien holder no longer attaches the property

But if the judgment lien is enforced by foreclosure, then the JT will be severed. Then property will be owned half to the judicial sale buyer and half to the original JT, as tenants in common

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24
Q

Accounting between co-tenants

A

Co-tenants have duty to pay their proportionate share of “carrying costs” (e.g. taxes and mortgage payments. Also required to pay for necessary repairs

Co-tenants have NO duty to improve the property

Profits from rents and profits from land depletion must be shared

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25
Q

Easement in gross

A

Holder of easement in gross gets “special use” of the property granted to them. This right is independent of ownership of another piece of land (e.g. holder of this easement doesn’t have to be a neighbor)

Ex: A particular person has permission to fish in my pond; the utility company has
a right-of-way to install and service an underground gas pipeline

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26
Q

5 ways to create easement

A
  1. Express creation in writing (deed or will)
  2. Easement by implication (previous use)
    - Land was originally one parcel
    - Land is severed
    - Easement is reasonably necessary to dominant land’s use and enjoyment
    - Use of the property in this way existed prior to severance
    (usually landlocked examples)
  3. Easement by necessity
    - Land was originally one parcel with common ownership
    - Land is severed
    - Easement is necessary bc there’s no other way to access property
    - prior use is not required
  4. Easement by prescription (adverse possession)
    - Different from “adverse possession” because the use need not be exclusive! It’s fine that both the hunters and the man who had rerouted the path used the path on the neighbor’s land
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27
Q

Burden “runs with the land”

A

This means that the covenant is binding on future purchasers

Requirements:
- writing between original parties
- intent between the parties that the promise apply to successors
- must “touch and concern” the land&raquo_space;> makes land more useful
- horizontal and vertical privity
- notice

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28
Q

Equitable servitude (restrictions on how land may be used)

Equitable servitude vs. restrictive covenant

A

Equitable servitude
- Like covenant, writing and notice required
- LIke covenant, binding on successors
- BUT NO privity requirement

Restrictive covenant breach = damages

Equitable servitude breach = injunction

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29
Q

When does someone have “heirs”

A

Only if they die intestate (without a will)

If they HAVE a will, then they don’t have heirs and the entire estate goes to the will beneficiary

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30
Q

The rule about using a state’s substantive law applies only for what kinds of property issues?

And when does it not apply?

A

Property is located in State A, so State A’s substantive laws will apply – this is used for property issues like whether a covenant is valid

But dispute about awarding buyer damages based on fraudulent conveyance is takes the substantive law of whichever state has the greatest interest in the dispute

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31
Q

Assignment of lease vs. sublease

A

Sublease – transfer of anything less than lessee’s entire interest to third party

Assignment – transfers lessee’s entire interest in the leased premise to a third party
(ex: transferred “lease rights” for the remaining nine months of the lease. 9 months is all that’s left so this is an assignment, not a sublease)

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32
Q

In the absence of agreement between landlord and tenant about removing chattel/fixtures, what happens?

A

Tenant CAN remove chattel that he attached to the space (e.g. special lighting, display cases, shelving, counters) as long as the removal does not substantially damage the premises

This removal must occur before end of lease term. T has duty to repair damages if any, from the removal of chattel

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33
Q

Landlord and Tenant and Sublesse

Privity

A

Sublessee and Tenant are in privity of estate with each other.

Only tenant remains in privity of estate with landlord.

There is no privity of contract between sublessee and landlord because sublessee made no promise, either to landlord or tenant to pay rent to landlord.

Although privity may not be required under an equitable servitude theory, a finding for the sublessee (not having to pay landlord) means court did not use such a theory

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34
Q

Owner of property getting an agent to convey property through deed

A

If owner orally hires and instructs agent to sign owner’s name, then deed is NOT valid. Because an agent signing a deed on behalf of principal must have his own authority to sign the deed in writing also.

Agent’s authority to act on behalf of the owner must be in writing.

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35
Q

License (in property law)

A

Permission to use someone else’s land

Not subject to SOF (which means oral license is fine)

Usually revocable at anytime (unless the licensee expended lots of money/resources substantially improving it)

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36
Q

Things that make title unmarketable:
- Defects in chain of title
- Encumbrances

A

Defects in chain of title
- Refers to any defect that indicates the vendor does not have full interest which he purports to convey

Encumbrances
- mortgages
- liens
- easements
- use restrictions
- encroachments
- land use and zoning violations

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37
Q

Merger Doctrine

A

Obligations imposed by contract of sale (marketable title) are discharged UNLESS repeated in the deed.

Ex: if buyer contracted for marketable title but accepts a quitclaim deed, buyer would not be able to sue on contractual provisions. Under merger doctrine, marketability of title and related covenant claims are replaced by only “future covenants of the warranty deed”

Aka real estate contracts are only relevant during the gap between signing and closing (aka delivery of the deed)

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38
Q

When a mortgage is entered into “jointly” by tenants in common

A

Each co-tenant would be jointly and severally liable for the mortgage.

One T can pay mortgage and compel the other T for contribution

The only way the sister could have protected her one-half interest (if she doesn’t want to pay bother’s half) is to have obtained a mortgage ONLY on her own interest

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39
Q

Seller has personal liability on a mortgage on land. Buyer “assumes the mortgage debt”

Buyer doesn’t make installment payments. To prevent default, seller pays. Can seller get reimbursement from buyer

A

Yes because law of suretyship

Seller is the “third party” that the bank could go after if buyer doesn’t pay. Thus, seller has the right to seek reimbursement if he pays for what the buyer is supposed to pay

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40
Q

When is the window for challenging marketability of title closed?

A

When the deed is delivered, then contractual obligations (marketable title is discharged)

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41
Q

Warranty Covenants

(what does it cover / not cover once deed have been delivered)

A

Protects against third party interference with use and possession of land and/or claims of superior title

Landlocked land, without access to public road, would have allowed buyer to challenge marketability of title, but must have been raised prior to transfer of deed.

Under merger doctrine, marketability of title and related covenants are replaced by only “future covenants of the warranty deed”

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42
Q

P’s awareness of the contact

not required in what kind of tort?

A

Battery

Ex: P does not like D. If D kisses P while P is sleeping, this is a battery even though P was unaware at the time since the contact is offensive to a reasonable person

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43
Q

After being fired, VP was given 10 minutes to leave the building otherwise guards would physically throw him out.

Assault?

A

Assault is the intentional causing of apprehension of imminent harmful or offensive contact

10 minutes = NOT imminent harm

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44
Q

Examples of extreme & outrageous conduct

A
  • Man placed microphone in former wife’s bedroom
  • Man killed neighbor’s cat in front of neighbor
  • Bill collector shouted through bullhorn that plaintiff was “deadbeat”
  • Bill collector threatens P that if no payment, bill collector will file complaint of fraud
  • Developer threatens elderly landowner that if she doesn’t sell to developer, state law would allow him to have the home condemned
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45
Q

Wrongful birth/pregnancy/life

A

Wrongful birth – baby born with congenital defects and pregnancy would’ve been terminated if properly diagnosed (remedy: extraordinary medical expenses and emotional distress)

Wrongful pregnancy – contraception failure (remedy: pregnancy-related expenses and pain and suffering, but NOT child-raising costs)

Wrongful life – not allowed. Brought by child to recover damages for having been born with defects

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46
Q

Types of Causation in Tort

A

Actual case (but-for test)

Concurrent tortfeasors – each acting independently but none of the acts independently would cause injury. P can recover ALL loss from any/either D

Substantial factor – two or more Ds at fault and each is a substantial factor.

Alternative causes – each D engaged in tortious act but only one could’ve caused injury and we don’t know which one&raquo_space; burden of proof shifts to D
Ex: 2 bullets
Ex (that doesn’t work): pedestrian sues all hotel guests from which chair could have been thrown

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47
Q

Defamation vs. Libel vs. Slander

A

Defamatory Statement
- a false or derogatory statement of or concerning the plaintiff (must be a living person, or corporation)
- is published (repeaters of defamatory statement counts)
- to another person (one person is enough)
- and causes damage to P’s reputation

Libel
- communication in writing
- general damages presumed. P doesn’t need to prove special damages

Slander
- verbal defamation
- special damages required (P suffered some pecuniary loss)

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48
Q

Difference between matter of public concern vs. celebrity person in defamation

A

If libel involves a public figure OR is a matter of public concern, then ask yourself:
- if it’s a matter of public concern, plaintiff will be required to prove fault
- for a matter of public concern of a private person, P must show that D published the statement with at least negligence to the truth/falsity

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49
Q

Best defenses to torts

A

When asked for “BEST” defense, it’s usually contribution negligence (if that’s an option) because this completely bars Plaintiff’s recovery

For Intentional Torts
- Consent / assumption of risk

(NOTE: P cannot assume the risk if they did not KNOW like actually been aware of the risk / have an alternative option)

Negligence
- Contributory negligence

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50
Q

An intentional tortfeasor is liable for all consequences of his action (intended/unintended/unforeseeable)

A

Man who left his shotgun in the backseat of his car, whilst knowing that his friend recently joined a violent gang, will be FULLY indemnified for the judgment against him because the friend was an intentional tortfeasor

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51
Q

Joint Tenancy vs. Tenants in Common right to profits / responsibility of taxes

A
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52
Q

If D encroaches on neighbors land and then sells his property, can D still be sued for trespass?

A

Yes because the fact that he no longer owns the land is irrelevant to his tort liability. D can still be liable – D doesn’t even have to KNOW that he’s trespassing

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53
Q

When a P is treated by medical team as a group and unconscious with anesthesia, what’s the tort issue

A

Res Ipsa Loquitur

(1) the event that happened is one that does not usually occur absent negligent
(2) the harm was caused by something in D’s exclusive control
and (3) P was not the one who caused the event to occur

Why is it not negligence by “Ds acting in concert” –> there’s no evidence that two Ds caused the burn. Could have just been one person. So “acting in concert / common scheme” requires responsibility and fault of AT LEAST 2 people who engage in wrongdoing. Here, it’s possible just one person burned the patient

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54
Q

Public disclosure of private facts

A

D published private information about P that would be highly offensive to the reasonable person and is not newsworthy.

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55
Q

Intentional Torts ≠ Negligence

A

Thus when we’re evaluating the elements of whether a D’s actions constitute BATTERY,

then we would NOT ever be talking about the reasonableness of smoker D’s conduct

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56
Q

Is an auctioneer considered a “seller/distributor/supplier” for purposs of strict liability in tort

A

No bc auctioneer is not in the business of selling tractors.

And commercial sellers are strict liable if they’re engaged in the business of selling the product in normal course of business

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57
Q

A claim for negligently caused emotional distress MUST be connected to a physical injury

A

Even if the dispatcher suffered severe emotional distress and was hospitalized at one point, the facts tell us there was “no physical injury”

And thus company’s motion for summary judgment should be granted bc negligent emotional distress must be connected to a physical injury

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58
Q

Land possessor’s duty to land entrants

A

Invitees
- Must inspect to discover unknown dangers, make them safe or warn guests about them, and prevent harm from active operations

Licensees
- Must warn of known latent defects and use reasonable care in active operations
- AKA no duty to warn of dangers licensees can discover / know already (grandpa with the toys)

Known or anticipated trespassers
- Warn of known artificial dangers and use reasonable care in active operations

Unknown or unanticipated trespassers
- No duty

59
Q

Modern approach of land possessor’s duty to land entrants

A

Land possessor owes duty of reasonable care to all land entrants (except flagrant trespassers)

60
Q

When is a defamatory statement to a third party privileged

A

When

D believes the statement/info is of interest to the third party (e.g. hiring)

Or when it’s not D voluntarily offering the information, but the third party specifically asking for it

But D will still be liable for defamation if this privilege is abused, AKA:
- When D knew the statement was FALSE or when D had substantial doubts to the accuracy

61
Q

When does plaintiff have standing to sue for trespass?

A

If he/she has a possessory interest (aka the right to occupy or control the property)

So doesn’t have to be owner of the property, can even be tenant

62
Q

Wrongful death (doctor’s malpractice)

Traditional vs. modern rule

A

Traditional –
Decedent probably would’ve survived but for the defendant’s malpractice (greater than 50%)

Modern –
Decedent’s chance of survival was reduced by defendant’s malpractice (45% chance reduced to 20%)

63
Q

Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress (NIED) liability arises when?

2 theories

A

Bystander theory
- Plaintiff is actually there to contemporaneously perceive harm done to a close relative

Zone-of-danger
- Plaintiff was placed at risk of immediate bodily injury AND the risk cause P serious emotional harm
- We want manifestation of physical systems of some sort? (manifestation of physical systems = later harm like headaches and panic attacks due to the stress)

64
Q

P CAN recover for product liability when? and CANNOT recover when?

A

Damages resulting from personal injury or damage to the property other than the defective product itself.

Claim for purely economic loss is not allowed.

65
Q

Joint and several liability

A

If any of Ds could have caused P harm, then P can sue them jointly and severally

So long as—
Conditioned on— each D was independently negligent

66
Q

When are passages/statements in a learned treatise or periodical admissible for truth (aka as substantive evidence)

A

(1) when publication is established as reasonably reliable authority by expert or judicial notice

(2) AND statements are called to the attention of or relied on by an expert witness

ANOTHER NOTE: these statements can ONLY be read into evidence, cannot be received as exhibit (same as recorded recollection)

67
Q

Features about attorney-client privilege

A

Remains in effect even after professional attorney-client relationship has ended, even after client had died

Exceptions:
- communications in furtherance of crime or fraud are not privileged
- danger that pose immediate risk of harm to third party
- attorney testimony is fine if there was previous joint representation and those clients are now in a lawsuit with each other

68
Q

Evidence rules on police reports

A

Police report likely falls within business or public records hearsay exception

But doesn’t apply to eyewitness’s statements since eyewitness lacked a business or legal duty to report on the fight

69
Q

Plaintiff offers to testify that the day before her husband was killed, he described to her a chance meeting with the defendant on the street in which the defendant said “I’m going to blow your head off one of these days”

Admissibility

A

D’s statement to Husband
- admissible through “statement by party opponent”

Husband’s statement to P
- NOT admissible bc it’s not a present sense impression and it’s not an excited utterance

Thus not admissible as double hearsay

70
Q

Use of a writing to refresh a witness’s recollection does not implicate the best evidence rule why?

A

Because BER only applies when a party is trying to prove the contents of the writing

71
Q

The best evidence rules allows the admission of a reliable duplicate (e.g. photocopy) without a showing that the original is unavailable. True or false??

A

True

Unless (1) a genuine question is raised about the original’s authenticity or (2) circumstances make it unfair to admit the duplicate

72
Q

Speech restrictions in a public and designated public forum must be what?

A

(1) Content neutral
(2) Serve a substantial/important government interest
(3) Be narrowly tailored to serve that interest
(4) Leave open alternative channels of communication

73
Q

Speech restrictions in nonpublic forums must what?

A

(1) Be viewpoint neutral (different from content neutral. Viewpoint neutral = you can’t take sides)
(2) Serve a legitimate government interest
(3) Be reasonably related to that interest

74
Q
A
75
Q

Best evidence rule only applies to what kind of evidence? When is it used?

A
  • Only writings, photographs, and recordings
  • NOT physical models

Used when a document’s contents are at issue
- to prove the happening of an event (e.g. video of robbery)
- doc with legal effect (e.g. audiotape of contract)
- witness is testifying based on facts learned from document (e.g. x-ray or audio recording) as opposed to personal first hand knowledge

76
Q

President had absolutely plenary authority to remove officers. And requiring “good cause” would be an unconstitutional legislative interference with an executive function unless what?

A

The officer either
- belongs to a multi member body that’s balanced along partisan lines and exercises NO executive power (e.g. conducts investigations on behalf of congress)
- or lacks policy making/administrative authority (independent counsel)

77
Q

A state tax that affects interstate commerce does not violate the DCC if it is what?

A
  • applied to a person/activity that has a substantial nexus with the state (entities with poultry operations in the state)
  • is fairly apportioned (applies only to birds raised or processed)
  • non discriminatory (applies to all poultry operations in the state)
  • and is fairly related to services or benefits provided by the state
78
Q

Requirements of a valid deed delivered through a death escrow

A
  • grantor must give deed to an escrow agent (attorney) with instructions to transfer it to the grantee upon grantor’s death
  • AND relinquish the right to take back the deed
79
Q

When does federal court have exclusive jurisdiction?

A
  • Bankruptcy (bc all governed by fed statutes)
  • Patent, Copyright/trademark
  • Involving federal officers (position within federal agencies: FBI, US Marshal, Secret Service)
  • Securities cases
  • Antitrust
  • Maritime
  • suits between states
80
Q

Can interrogatories or depositions be sent before a pretrial conference (arranging for initial disclosures/preparing discovery plan)

A

No that is not proper

Because pretrial conference is required first. If the discovery is improper, D can refuse to answer them or seek a protective order

81
Q

A party must object to the judge’s proposed jury instruction when, otherwise the ability to raise issue on appeal is waived?

A

Party must object to jury instructions before they go to the jury or they waive the ability to raise the issue on appeal

82
Q

JMOL

Define it
Timing
Standard

A

Moving party contends that a reasonable jury would not have a legally sufficient evidentiary basis to find for the party on the issue

Standard: evidence is viewed most favorably to the non-moving party

Timing: request motion for JMOL must occur BEFORE court submits case to jury, but after non-movant has been fully heart

83
Q

Exceptions to the final judgment rule

Aka what can be appealed that is normally not appealable (before a final judgment is actually made)

A

Injunctions (like TROs becoming PI)

Interlocutory appeal

Collateral order

Multiple claims where one party/claim (but not all) can be resolved and there’s no just reason for delay

Certification of class actions

84
Q

Claim Preclusion
(Res judicata)

A

Precludes relitigation of a claim that has already been decided

  1. There is a valid final judgment on the merits
  2. Same exact plaintiff and same defendant as before (or prices, like a trustee/successor/representative)
  3. The same claim and cause of action and transaction/occurrence is being litigation
85
Q

Issue Preclusion

(Collateral estoppel)

A

Precludes relitigation of a particular issue that’s already been decided
(doesn’t have to be the same parties: thing a D manufacturer won in a prior case. Can use issue preclusion to prevent another P from another state from suing them)

  1. There was a final judgment on the merits
  2. Same issue was ACTUALLY litigated
  3. The issue was an essential part of the judgment
  4. Can only be used against someone who was a party (or in privity with a party) in the interest of fairness so they have opportunity to defend the action
86
Q

Service of summons to an “authorized” agent

Example of who is not authorized

A

Interpreted narrowly in that an assistant/colleague CANNOT accept service of process absent explicit permission

87
Q

Service on a corporation, partnership, or association?

A

Service can be effected by following state law or delivering summons+complaint to officer or managing agent

MUST ALSO mail a copy to each defendant. Service by email is NOT allowed.

88
Q

What are examples of state substantive law that has to be applied in diversity cases

A
  • Statue of limitations
  • Choice of law rules
  • Notice of claims requirements
  • Elements of a claim or defense
  • Burden of proof
  • Remittitur and additur
  • Issue and claim preclusion rules
89
Q

Conflicts/choice of law? The federal court will follow the conflicts of law rules from which state?

A

From the state in which the federal court sits

90
Q

Amending to add a new party will relate back if what requirements are met?

A
  1. Concerns the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as the original complaint
  2. New party had notice within 90 days of its filing
  3. New part also knew, or should have known, but for mistake, they would’ve been named as defendant in original complaint
91
Q

Permissive vs Required Joinder

A

Permissive:
- plaintiffs or defendants can be joined if the claims arise from same transaction/occurrence
- if SMJ based on diversity, joinder cannot destroy diversity

Required necessary party if:
1. Court cannot provide complete relief without necessary party
2. Absent party’s interest will be harmed if they are not joined
3. Existing part would be subject to multiple inconsistent obligations

92
Q

If credit union (junior lien with lower priority than PMM) was NOT a party to the foreclosure action vs. WAS a party to the action, what effect on buyer’s interest in the house

A

If credit union was a party, then the foreclosure sale buyer gets the house free and clear of the mortgage.

If credit union was not a party, buyer gets the house subject to the mortgage that the credit union has

93
Q

What does it mean for a defendant to make a false statement about the plaintiff with actual malice?

(Defamation of public official/figure)

A
  • knowledge or reckless disregard about statement’s falsity
  • also a statement would only tend to harm the plaintiffs reputation if a third party is reasonable interpretation of that statement would tend to do so
94
Q

What requirements must be met for a defendant to remove a case originally filed in state court to federal court?

A
  • the federal court must have subject matter jurisdiction over the plaintiff claims otherwise the federal court can only retain the removable claims and not the non-removable ones
  • All defendants consent to removal
  • the defendant files a notice of removal within 30 days of receiving the plaintiffs initial complaint
  • a copy of the notice of removal is delivered to the state court and the other parties
95
Q

In a notice recording statue jurisdiction, why will judgment creditors, not be protected, even if they record prior to a buyer?

A

Because a notice only act protects only subsequent purchasers for value who lack notice of prior interest in the land.

So because judgment creditors are not purchasers for value since the judgment lien is merely security for a pre-existing debt, they won’t be protected

96
Q

Approaching questions on speech regulation and its constitutionality

A
  1. Is it protected?
    - obscenity, inciting violence (not protected)
    - commercial speech: protected so long as it concerns, lawful activity and it’s not false or misleading
  2. If commercial, standard is:
    - regulation directly advances a substantial government interest and is not more extensive than necessary to serve that interest. Reasonable fit between means chosen and interest served
  3. Content based
    - narrowly tailored
  4. ## Content neutral
97
Q

Character evidence is generally inadmissible when used to imply and prove that a person acted in conformity with his/her character.

Except admissible in what cases? As what kind of evidence?

A

Character evidence (reputation or opinion testimony OR SIC like prior theft) CAN be used as substantive evidence

When character is an essential element of a civil/criminal charge or asserted defense

98
Q

Larceny

A

Trespassory taking and carrying away of personal property of another with the intent to permanently deprive

99
Q

Larceny by trick

A

D tricks the other party to obtain possession of the personal property through fraud or deceit

Ex: lying and asking to borrow someone’s car, “feigning” to return it. Even if they change their mind later, they are still guilty of larceny by trick

100
Q

Embezzlement

A

D is lawfully in possession of the property but then commits fraudulent conversion

Ex: pawn shop owner who is supposed to hold a diamond ring for 60 days but ends up selling it 50 days later is guilty of embezzlement

101
Q

False pretenses

A

When D knowingly makes false representation of past or present material fact, which causes P to rely on the representation and as a result convey title (transfer money to the misrepresenter who intends to defraud)

102
Q

Burglary

A

Breaking and entering into a building with the intent to commit felony

103
Q

Solicitation

(Features)

A
  • when one requests or encourages another to commit a crime
  • no withdrawal: solicitation has been committed one the q is asked. Doesn’t matter that D changed their mind later
  • solicitation mergers with the underlying crime
104
Q

Conspiracy

(And acquittal)

A

agreement between two or more persons who intend to commit

If one D is acquitted, the other D cannot be convicted of conspriacy
But if one D’s charges are just dropped, the other D can still be convicted

105
Q

Conspiracy

(Number of parties and overt act required for CL vs. MPC)

A

Common Law:
- requires bilateral agreement with two or more persons agreeing
- no overt act required

MPC:
- unilateral agreement allowed.
- In this case, a conspirator with undercover police officer CAN be charged and convicted
- overt act required

106
Q

Conspiracy

(Number of parties and overt act required for CL vs. MPC)

A

Common Law:
- requires bilateral agreement with two or more persons agreeing
- no overt act required

MPC:
- unilateral agreement allowed.
- In this case, a conspirator with undercover police officer CAN be charged and convicted
- overt act required

107
Q

Merger rule for inchoate crimes

A

Solicitation MERGES with the crime

Attempt MERGES with the crime

Conspiracy does NOT merge with the crime

108
Q

Defendant attempts to poison her boss with a substance believed to be poison, but the substance is actually a laxative.

What kind of defense is this?

A

This is called factual impossibility bc the substance is actually not poisonous. So its not able to kill

Factual impossibility IS a defense for murder.
But NOT a defense for ATTEMPTED murder

109
Q

Examples of probable cause vs no probable cause

A

Probable cause:
- person roaming around sketchily in an area that’s known for high crime and then throwing something in the bushes
- police informant or trustworthy insider call

No probable cause:
- anonymous call about someone at the house

110
Q

Violation of miranda warnings vs police coercion and resulting admissibility

A

Violation of miranda warning = confession still admissible for impeachment purpises

Police coercion = obtained confession CANNOT be used either for case in chief or to impeach

111
Q

What does jeopardy apply to and when does it attach?

A

Does not apply to preliminary hearings or grand jury proceedings

Jury trial: attaches when jury is empaneled
Bench trial: attaches when first witness is sworn in

112
Q

Before officers interrogate a suspect in custody, officers must do what

A

Officers must administer Miranda warnings,

But does not need to tell suspect that theyre under arrest

113
Q

Marital communications vs witness spouse privilege

A

Marital communications
- extends to ANY confidential statement made between spouses during marriage.
- This privilege survives divorce tho. So you can prevent spouse from testifying to communications made during marriage and during marriage ONLY (communications before / after marriage don’t count)

Witness spouse
- only criminal cases
- can testify to things that occurred even before marriage
- privilege to prevent testimony ends at divorce though

114
Q

What will be waived (vs can be brought anytime) if not raised in first motion or first response by defendant?

A

Lack of PJ
Improper venue
Insufficient service of process

What’s not waived:
- subject matter jurisdiction
- failure to state a claim / join a necessary party

115
Q

What does the UCC allow when accepted goods seemed conforming but only upon later discovery can you even find out about the non-conformance of issue with the good?

A

Buyer can revoke acceptance of a good whose non-conformity substantially impairs the good’s value to him

But must give notice within reasonable time

116
Q

UCC Perfect Tender Rule

A

Goods that at the time of delivery don’t conform to contract may be wholly rejected, wholly accepted, or partially accepted

Seller also had right to cure the defect and is permitted a reasonable period of time to do so

117
Q

What kinds of conduct = police should know are reasonably likely to elicit an incriminating response from suspect and therefore D’s statement should be suppressed?

A
  • police coercion
  • intimidation about what’s going to happen to those that D cares about
  • EVEN officers in conversation between themselves that they hope to find the weapon before a child discovers it and is injured (which causes D to reveal where gun is stashed)
118
Q

What’s fee simple determinable — and its affiliated future interest?

A

Durational
- so long as
- during

Future interest
- Grantor’s possibility of reverter

119
Q

What’s fee simple subject to condition subsequent — and its affiliated future interest?

A

Conditional
- but if
- provided that
- unless

Future Interesf
- Grantor’s right of entry (but must be exercised)

120
Q

What are the specific future interests that could be subject to RAP?

A

Contingent reminders
Vested remainders subject to open
Executory interests
Power of appointment
ROFRs
Options

121
Q

When is a prior consistent statement of the defendant admissible ?

A

If D’s or witness’s credibility has been attacked, that’s the only time prior consistent statement can come in as nonhearsay

122
Q

Warranty of merchantability vs

Warranty of fitness for particular purpose

A

Warranty of merchantability
- goods are fit for their ordinary purposes & conform to seller’s representations

Fitness for particular purpose
- seller has reason to know that buyer is relying on sellers skills to provide the goods

123
Q

Commerce clause

A

Grants Congress the power to regulate foreign commerce

Negative implication is this prohibits states from discriminating against or otherwise unduly burdening foreign commerce

124
Q

Congress’s taxing power

A

Direct tax (person or property)
- apportioned evenly among states AND reasonably related to revenue raising

Indirect tax (sales, excise)
- uniformly applied in every state AND reasonably related to revenue raising

125
Q

Supremacy clause prohibits state/local govs from directly regulating or taxing federal gov.

A

Examples:
- direct tax on fed gov

Doesn’t count:
- tax on constructor, whose cost is paid by fed gov
- tax on private concessionaire using federal property (kiosk operation in a federal park)

126
Q

Congress commerce power
(Cumulative effective doctrine)

A

Congress has power to regulate any activity, whether carried on in one state or many

127
Q

Dormant Commerce Clause standards

A

If law discriminates on its face in state vs out of state:
- state just show that regulation serves a compelling state interest and regulation is narrowly tailored to serve that interest

Not discriminatory but law burdens interstate commerce:
- court will apply a balancing test and law will be upheld unless the burden imposed on interstate commerce clearly outweighs local benefits

128
Q

Is alienage a suspect class?

A

Yes state/local laws on alienage are suspect, except alienage CAN be considered for state employment positions involving the self-government process (police officers, primary and secondary schoolteachers)

129
Q

Privacy rights subject to strict scrutiny

A
  • marriage
  • use of contraceptives
  • possession of obscene reading material at home
  • right to live with extended family
  • right to educate and raise childreb
130
Q

The 10th A prohibits federal government from requiring states to:

A

(1) enact state laws

OR (2) enforce federal laws

131
Q

Misunderstanding can prevent contract formation but it is never grounds to what?

A

Misunderstanding is NEVER grounds to void/candle a contract

132
Q

Misrepresentation involves what

A
  • when d actively misrepresents a material fact
  • BUT ALSO includes non disclosure of a material fact if D had a duty to disclosure it
133
Q

Under 10th A, Congress is prohibited from imposing federal taxes on states that

A

(1) discriminate against states bc taxes apply to states and their agencies but not individuals/entities or

(2) would unduly interfere with the states’ essential functions, including property used for or income received from the state’s performance of traditional government actions

134
Q

Public employees only have a property interest in their employment if what?

A

Only if they can be fire only “for cause”

When employees “work at pleasure or mayor,” the employee has no property interest in their jobs

135
Q

When can mayor / government official require members of her administration to be politically loyal (and therefore can fire the members if not)?

A

Only if the loyally is essential to the performance of the job

Chief of staff = can require political loyalty

Assistant sending out water bills = clerical, and doesn’t require political loyalty

136
Q

Police who obtains entry to a home through deceit (e.g undercover cop lying after identity)

A

That’s okay. The police’s entry in that way would still constitute consent by the homeowner and be constitutional

137
Q

Cumulative zoning

A

Permits higher use in lower use zones

(Allows homes to be in commercial/industrial use areas)

138
Q

Compliance with governmental safety standards and “state of the art” product design

A

Does NOT bar plaintiffs recovery against the commercial seller as a matter of law

139
Q

11th A gives states immunity from a suit in federal court brought by private party or foreign government. Also protects against state official being sued for violating state law.

Exceptions?

A
  • state consents to suit
  • immunity removed by 13/14/15tg amendment
  • state official sued for injunctive/declaratory relief
  • damages to be paid by state officer personally
  • state official sued for prospective (not retroactive damages) to be paid by state treasury
140
Q

No immunity from 11a

A
  • suit brought by US or another state
  • suit again local government
  • bankruptcy proceedings
  • eminent domain proceedings
  • suits permitted by Congress pursuant to powers over war & armed forces
141
Q

Doctrine of anticipatory repudiation as applied to leases

A

Maj rule:
Anticipatory repudiation does not apply to leases, thus landlord is not entitled to damages of rent for the months after (tenant refused to pay, landlord notice to vacate, and contract terminated)

Min rule:
Anticipatory repudiation applies to leases

142
Q

Definition of malpractice

A

Professional (e.g. dentist, doctor, lawyer) deviated from the standard of care that reasonable professionals would have used under similar circumstances

143
Q

Is title obtained by adverse possession marketable?

A

No unless it has been quieted (supported by judicial decree) bc there’s risk of litigation