MC Criminal Procedure - FL Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the difference between a felony, misdemeanor, and noncriminal violation? How do traffic violations fit into the mix?

A

A felony is any criminal offense punishable by death or imprisonment in a state correctional facility for more than one year. A misdemeanor is any criminal offense punishable by imprisonment in a county correctional facility for not more than one year. (However, violation of county or municipal ordinances are not misdemeanors even if punishable by imprisonment in a county facility.) Only felonies and misdemeanors are considered “crimes.” Noncriminal violations are offenses punishable by no more than a fine, forfeiture, or other civil penalty. Most traffic violations are noncriminal but some may be misdemeanors or felonies.

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2
Q

In the criminal context, what does a county court have jurisdiction over

A

County courts have jurisdiction over misdemeanors (except those joined with felonies), violations of county and municipal ordinances, and first appearance proceedings.

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3
Q

In the criminal context, what does a circuit court have jurisdiction over?

A

Circuit courts have jurisdiction over cases not triable in county court, including all felonies, misdemeanors joined with felonies, juvenile cases, and extraordinary writs

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4
Q

What does the FL S Ct have appellate jurisdiction over in the criminal context

A

The s ct has appellate (either mandatory or discretionary review) jurisdiction over: death penalty cases; cases from lower courts initially construing the validity of a state or federal statute, treaty, or constitutional provision; district court decisions conflicting with other district court or supreme court decisions; extraordinary writs; and questions certified by district courts

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5
Q

What is the scope of the right to counsel

A

The state must offer to provide counsel for indigent or partially indigent persons in cases where conviction is punishable by incarceration. Juvenile offenses and one appeal are included. The state may avoid providing counsel if the offense is not a felony and the judge agrees at least 15 days in advance that the defendant will not be incarcerated

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6
Q

When may a defendant waive her right to counsel

A

Defendant may waive her right to counsel if done knowingly, intelligently, and voluntarily and defendant is mentally competent to conduct trial proceedings. Waiver must be made in court on the record or out of court in writing before two witnesses. Counsel must be offered again at each subsequent stage of the proceedings

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7
Q

When is withdrawal of defense counsel permitted

A

The attorney of record for a defendant may not be relieved of any duties, nor permitted to withdraw, except with approval of the court for good cause

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8
Q

What is the minimum standards for attorneys in felony cases

A

The FL S Ct has adopted minimum standards for attorneys in felony cases. Before an attorney may participate as counsel of record for any adult felony case, the attorney must complete a course approved by the Florida Bar covering the legal and ethical obligations of discovery in a criminal case

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9
Q

What is the minimum standards for attorneys in capital cases

A

There are certain minimum standards for defense attorneys in capital cases. For example, lead counsel must have at least five years- experience in criminal litigation; have tried as lead counsel at least nine complex cases; have experience in using expert witnesses; and have attended at least 12 hours of continuing legal education programs dealing with the defense of capital cases.

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10
Q

What are the three ways of compelling a defendant to appear in court and when is each method used.

A

Arrest warrant - any state or county judge may issue an arrest warrant for a felony or misdemeanor or may order the court clerk to issue a summons for a misdemeanor.
Capias - A judge may issue a capias (bench warrant) when a defendant has failed to appear as required, or when formal charges have been filed by information or indictment and the defendant is neither in custody nor out on bail.
Notice to appear - An arresting officer or booking officer generally may issue a notice to appear in lieu of physical arrest for misdemeanors and violations of municipal or county ordinances unless one of three situations arises

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11
Q

What are the three situations in which an arresting officer or booking officer should not issue a notice to appear in lieu of a physical arrest

A

(i) the accused fails to identify himself or sign a notice to appear;
(ii) the officer reasonably believes the accused’s liberty presents an unreasonable risk of harm to himself or others; or
(iii) the accused is a flight risk, has previously failed to appear, or is suspected of being wanted for another crime

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12
Q

What are the duties of the booking officer

A

If the police arrest the accused and bring him to jail, the booking officer advises the accused of his right to counsel. The booking officer may release the accused on a notice to appear if, after investigation, the officer determines that the accused will likely appear as required. The booking officer considers: the accused’s length of residence in the community, family ties, employment history, character and mental condition, past convictions, and history of appearance at trial

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13
Q

What are the rules regarding a first appearance

A

An arrested person who is not released must be taken before a judicial officer within 24 hours. The state attorney and public defender (if no private counsel) must be given notice of the hearing and must attend. The judicial officer must advise defendant of the charges and her rights to remain silent, to have the assistance of counsel, and to communicate with counsel, family, and friends. The defendant may be advised of her rights by pre-recorded video if the judge affirms that she had the opportunity to view the video and understand the rights explained in it. The officer will appoint counsel or reschedule the appearance to permit defendant to obtain private counsel, as necessary. Right to counsel may be waived by a signed writing. Failure to comply with the 24-hour requirement entitles defendant to release but does not bar prosecution, nor does it affect admissibility of an otherwise lawfully obtained confession where there is no evidence that the delay induced the confession. (Similarly, a child in custody of juvenile authorities against whom an information or indictment is filed must be taken for a first appearance hearing within 24 hours.)

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14
Q

What is the scope of right to pretrial release

A

An accused is entitled to pretrial release except where the offense is punishable by life imprisonment or death and the proof of guilt is evidence or the presumption of guilt is great, or where no conditions of release can reasonably assure defendant’s appearance and community safety

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15
Q

What, exactly, is pretrial release

A

A defendant may be released on recognizance; on monetary bond; into the custody of a supervisory person or organization; under restrictions as to travel, associations, or residence; or on other conditions necessary to ensure appearance. Nonmonetary conditions are favored, except where the defendant’s history and present circumstances indicate that he will fail to appear

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16
Q

When may a court order pretrial detention

A

If the court finds that the defendant poses a threat of harm to the community (e.g., has threatened jurors or witnesses, has been charged with trafficking controlled substances, has been charged with DUI manslaughter, has been sentenced as a violet felony offender, etc.); has previously violated conditions on release or parole; and no condition of release will reasonably assure the defendant’s appearance at subsequent proceedings–then pretrial detention may be motioned for and ordered

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17
Q

What is the procedure surrounding pretrial detention

A

The state may move for pretrial detention when the statutory criteria are met. If defendant has been released and there are exigent circumstances, an arrest warrant will be issued. A hearing must be held in the trial court within five days of the motion or of defendant’s arrest pursuant to the motion (plus continuances of up to five days).

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18
Q

What are the defendant’s rights at a detention hearing

A

At the detention hearing, defendant is entitled to counsel and may present and cross-examine witnesses. Strict rules of evidence do not apply, but a detention order may not be based solely on hearsay. The exclusionary rule applies, and defendant’s testimony may not be used substantively against him at trial. Pretrial detention orders are appealable

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19
Q

What is the right to probable cause determination

A

Persons in custody or under significant restraints on their liberty are entitled to a neutral magistrate’s determination of probable cause. If a person was arrested pursuant to a valid warrant, no further determination is required

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20
Q

What are the procedures surrounding a probable cause determination, including what happens when probable cause is not found

A

For a defendant in custody, a probable cause determination must be made within 48 hours of arrest (two 24-hour extensions are available for good cause), if an arrest warrant was not obtained prior to defendant’s arrest. If necessary proof is available at the time of first appearance, the probable cause determination is to be made at first appearance. A defendant not in custody may file within 21 days of arrest a motion for probable cause determination if her liberty is significantly restrained. The magistrate must make a determination within seven days of the motion. Defendant is released on recognizance if probable cause is not found or no hearing is held, but prosecution is not barred.

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21
Q

What does a felony defendant have a right to if not charged within 21 days of arrest, and how does it work

A

A felony defendant not charged within 21 days of arrest has a right to an adversary preliminary hearing to determine whether probable cause exists to support the felony charges. Witnesses may be summoned and examined. Statements by the defendant may be used against him. If probable cause is found, defendant is held to answer charges. If probable cause is not found, defendant is released unless an information or indictment has been filed, in which case defendant is released on recognizance

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22
Q

What happens if a defendant remains in custody and is not charged by information or indictment within 30 days of arrest?

A

He must be released by the 33rd day unless good cause is shown why a charge has not been filed, in which case he must be released by the 40th day unless formal charges are filed

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23
Q

What is the rule for when indictment is used in crimes

A

Any crime may be, and all capital crimes must be, prosecuted by an indictment returned by a grand jury

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24
Q

What is the rule for formally charging a crime by information

A

The state attorney’s office may prosecute any noncapital crime by filing an information. Misdemeanors and ordinance violations may be prosecuted in county court by information.

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25
Q

What is the rule for formally charging a crime by affidavit, docket entry, or notice to appear

A

Misdemeanors and ordinance violations may be prosecuted in county court by affidavit, docket entry, or notice to appear

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26
Q

What are the technical requirements of formally charging a crime (which is often tested on the bar exam)

A

An indictment or information must allege the essential facts of the offense and recite the law violated. It may use the defendant’s real name or a fictitious name, or a description of the defendant, but must include the defendant’s name, race, gender, and birth date, when known. It also must state that prosecution is brought in the name, and by the authority, of the state of Florida. Formal defects may be amended on motion any time before trial. No count of an indictment or information will be dismissed unless it is so vague and indefinite as to mislead the defendant or expose him after conviction or acquittal to substantial danger of a new prosecution for the same offense. The defendant has a right to a copy of the instrument at least 24 hours before required to plead, and may move for a statement of particulars. However, any error caused by failure to provide a copy is cured by the defendant’s entering a plea

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27
Q

When is joinder of offenses allowed

A

Offenses may be joined in one indictment or information if based on the same act or transaction

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28
Q

When is joinder of defendants permitted

A

An indictment or information may charge two or more defendants if each defendant is charged in each count. If each defendant is not charged in each count, there must at least be a common count of conspiracy or an allegation that the various offenses are part of a common plan

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29
Q

When is joint representation permitted

A

If two or more defendants have been joined for trial and are represented by the same attorney or firm, the court must advise each of the right to separate representation

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30
Q

When is consolidation of offenses permitted

A

Offenses that could have been joined in one indictment or information may be consolidated for trial upon motion of either side. Defendant may move before trial to consolidate all state charges against him and may move for dismissal of charges unreasonably not consolidated

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31
Q

When is severance of offenses permitted

A

Defendant has a right to sever charges improperly joined. Properly joined charges must also be severed on motion from either side if necessary to fairly determine guilt

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32
Q

When is severance of defendants permitted

A

Defendant or the state may move for severance of defendants if proper to achieve a fair determination for each or to ensure a speedy trial. In situations where one defendant’s admissible statement implicates a co-defendant, Florida’s codification of Bruton requires the state to choose beforehand among not using the statement at a joint trial, removing references to the co-defendant, and severing the trials. A motion to sever is timely if filed before trial. Under certain circumstances, it may also be made during trial

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33
Q

What happens at an arraignment

A

Arraignment is the defendant’s formal response in open court to the formal charges. It may be waived by entering a written plea of not guilty. If the defendant does not have counsel, the court must advise him of his right to counsel of choice or appoint counsel at the arraignment and all subsequent proceedings. Objections to irregularities in the arraignment are waived by entering a plea

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34
Q

What are the three types of pleas and when are they entered

A

There are three types of pleas: guilty, not guilty, and nolo contendere. If defendant stands mute or is evasive, a plea of not guilty is entered. Defendant may plead guilty or nolo contendere to any other charges against him in the state over which the court has jurisdiction and may plead to any lesser offense. The prosecutors in the other cases must consent.

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35
Q

What is the responsibility of the court during the entering of a plea

A

The judge must ensure that a plea is voluntary and fully understood, and that a factual basis for it exists. The defendant must be given a reasonable time in which to deliberate. If defendant pleads guilty but maintains his innocence, it is sufficient that he acknowledges that the plea is in his best interest

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36
Q

What is the rule regarding withdrawal of a guilty plea

A

The court may permit, and for good cause must permit, withdrawal of guilty plea before sentencing. Thereafter, a court may permit a not guilty plea or, with consent of the prosecutor, plea of a lessor offense. Evidence of a withdrawn guilty plea may not be used at trial. A defendant who pleads guilty or nolo contendere without reserving the right to appeal a legally dispositive issue may file a motion to withdraw the plea within 30 days after rendition of sentence only on limited grounds (e.g., lack of subject matter jurisdiction, violation of a plea agreement, involuntary plea, or sentencing error). A defendant who files a plea of guilty or nolo contendere for the purpose of participating in a drug court treatment program may withdraw the plea after successful completion of the program

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37
Q

What are the rules surrounding plea bargaining

A

Negotiated pleas are encouraged, but the ultiamte sentencing decision rests with the judge. If the judge refuses to go along with the negotiated plea, the defendant may withdraw his plea. In return for a guilty or nolo contendere plea, the prosecutor may drop other charges or recommend or agree to a specific sentence. The prosecutor must inform the judge of all material facts, including any DNA evidence that might exonerate the defendant. She must also record plea discussions with unrepresented defendants and furnish the record to the judge. The defense attorney must review the physical evidence against the defendant, communicate all plea offers to the defendant, and not enter a plea without the defendant’s consent. Breach of a plea agreement by the prosecution entitles defendant to a new trial or sentencing hearing. If the defendant breaches a plea agreement, the state may move to vacate the plea within 60 days of the breach.

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38
Q

For what must the defendant be present

A

The defendant must be present for the first appearance (either physically or by electronic audio visual device), arraignment (unless a written not guilty plea has been filed), pretrial conferences (unless waived), beginning of trial and jury selection, all proceedings in front of the jury, evidentiary proceedings outside the jury, viewings by the jury, rendition of the verdict, and sentencing. However, if the defendant voluntarily leaves at any time, the trial may continue, and a disruptive defendant may be removed. Also, when charged with a misdemeanor, the defendant may seek leave not to appear at any proceeding.

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39
Q

For a pretrial motion to dismiss–what does it raise, when and how must it be filed, and what is the result

A

A motion to dismiss raises legal defenses. (Factual defenses are raised by a not guilty plea.) It must generally be filed at or before arraignment, but if it raises a defense of former jeopardy, immunity, or pardon, or asserts that no facts are in dispute and that the facts do not constitute a prima facie case, it may be filed at any time. Except for fundamental grounds (e.g., statute void) or jurisdictional objections, defenses not raised are waived. If defendant alleges that no facts are in dispute, he must recite and swear to the facts; the state may then reply with a traverse denying them. If a charge is dismissed, the state may refile it.

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40
Q

For a pretrial motion to suppress evidence, confession, or admission–when must it be filed, what must be included, and what does it mean

A

Defendant may move to suppress illegally obtained evidence, confessions, or admissions. This motion must normally be filed before trial, and a hearing may be held at which both sides may present evidence. The motion must state the particular evidence to be suppressed, reasons for suppression, and a statement of facts on which it is based. There are five grounds to suppress illegally obtained evidence: (i) the evidence was illegally seized without a warrant; (ii) the warrant is insufficient on its face; (iii) the property seized was not described in the warrant; (iv) the warrant was obtained without probable cause; and (v) the warrant was illegally executed.
Note that in Florida, the exlusionary rule applies to violations of the knock and announce rule. If a motion to suppress is legally sufficient, the court holds a hearing where both sides can present evidence. Note that when a trial court grants a motion to suppress evidence during trial, jeopardy has already attached; thus, the court might want to withhold ruling on the merits of the motion to avoid double jeopardy implications that would result if a mistrial were declared.

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41
Q

What must be included with a motion to continuance and when must it be filed

A

A motion for continuance must be accompanied by a certificate of good faith signed by counsel. It must be filed before trial unless excused for good cause

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42
Q

What is a motion to perpetuate testimony used for and when must it be filed by

A

If a witness resides out of state or may be unable to attend a trial or hearing, her testimony may, upon verified motion supported by affidavits of credible witnesses, be perpetuated by deposition. The motion to depose to perpetuate testimony must be made after indictment or information and must be filed more than 10 days before trial. If the witness is able to attend the trial or hearing, the deposition may not be used. If her absence is caused by a party, that party may not use her deposition

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43
Q

What are the grounds for a motion to change venue

A

Either side may move for a change of venue if, for any reason other than a complaint about the trial judge, the defendant cannot get an impartial trial in the county where the case is pending.
Note: pretrial publicity standing alone is an insufficient reason for change of venue; prejudice or inability to obtain an impartial jury must be established

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44
Q

What is the procedure for a motion to change venue and what is the effect if the motion is granted

A

A motion for a change of venue must be made at least 10 days before trial, unless good cause is shown for the delay. The motion must be in writing and accompanied by a certificate of good faith signed by the moving party’s counsel and affidavits of at least two other person setting out the factual basis for the motion.
If the motion is granted, the moving defendant’s trial will be transferred to any other convenient county where a fair trial can be held. If there are multiple defendants, only the moving defendant is tried in the new venue.

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45
Q

A motion to disqualify a judge alleges one of what three things?

A

alleges that the judge is:

(i) prejudiced for or against a party,
(ii) related within the third degree to a defendant or lawyer in the case or to any judge who participated as a lower court judge in the case, or
(iii) a material witness in the case

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46
Q

What are the procedures for a motion to disqualify a judge, when must it be filed, and what is the effect

A

The motion must be in writing, specifically allege the facts and reasons, be sworn to by the party under oath or by affidavit, and be accompanied by a separate statement of good faith made by counsel. It must be made in a reasonable time not to exceed 10 days after discovery of the facts constituting the grounds. If the motion is legally sufficient on its face, the first judge disqualifies herself automatically. If defendant seeks to disqualify a second judge as prejudiced, that judge is not automatically disqualified unless he admits the prejudice. Neither a judge’s “tough on crime” stance during his judicial campaign nor former employment as a prosecutor is legally sufficient to require disqualification

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47
Q

What is a motion to protect identity of sexual assault victim and when should it be granted

A

The state or a victim in a sexual assault case may obtain an order to keep confidential any record that would reveal the victim’s name or address, or a photograph of the victim. The order must be granted if the victim’s identity is not already known to the community, the victim has not called public attention to the offense, disclosure would be offensive to a reasonable person, and disclosure would endanger the victim or make her unwilling to testify

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48
Q

When may a motion to expedite be granted

A

The state may move to expedite cases involving abuse of a child, elderly person, or disabled adult

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49
Q

What are the timing rules regarding a speedy trial

A

Trial must normally commence within 50 days of defendant’s demand for a speedy trial. Where no demand is made, misdemeanor trials must normally commence within 90 days of arrest/custody, felony trials within 175 days of arrest/custody, and retrials within 90 days of the mistrial order. When felony and misdemeanor charges have been joined or consolidated for trial, the felony speedy trial rules apply to both. Times may be extended by need for pretrial proceedings and in exceptional circumstances. Note that the speedy trial rule does not apply to defendants outside of Florida jurisdiction until the defendant returns to the jurisdiction of the Florida court where the charge is pending, and written notice of the defendant’s return is filed with the Florida court and the prosecutor

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50
Q

What are the rules for demand for speedy trial

A

An accused may file a demand for trial within 60 days at any time after formal charges are filed. Defendant’s demand for a speedy trial imports that she is available and will be prepared for trial within five days. Failure by the state to bring the defendant to trial within 50 days after the demand entitles the defendant to file a notice of expiration of speedy trial time

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51
Q

For purposes of the rules of speedy trial when does the commencement of trial being for 1) nonjury trials, and 2) jury trials

A

1) A nonjury trial commences when the proceedings begin before the judge.
2) A jury trial commences upon swearing of the jury panel for that specific trial for voir dire examination

52
Q

What are the rules for what happens after the speedy trial right is violated

A

If the speedy trial right is violated, upon defendant’s notice of expiration of the speedy trial time, the court holds a hearing within five days. It may order defendant tried within 10 days if no excuse is shown. If defendant is not tried within these 10 days, upon motion, defendant will be forever discharged unless: (i) a valid extension has been granted and has not expired; (ii) the failure to hold the trial is attributable to the accused, a co-defendant, or their counsel; (iii) the accused or his counsel were unavailable for a proceeding where their presence was required by the rules; or (iv) the demand for a speedy trial is invalid. (Violation of the five- and 10-day period has been held harmless if a defendant is actually brought to trial within 15 days of filing the notice of expiration).

53
Q

Every person being tried again or whose trial was delayed by appeal must be brought to trial within 90 days of whichever of the following occurred last in time (4)

A

(i) when a mistrial was declared,
(ii) when the order was entered granting a new trial,
(iii) when the court granted an arrest of judgment, or
(iv) when the trial court received the reviewing court’s mandate, order, or notice requiring a new trial

54
Q

When may an extension of time be granted for speedy trial

A

An extension for speedy trial may be granted for good cause, if necessary to hold other pretrial hearings or examinations, or in exceptional, unavoidable, and unforeseeable circumstances not including general congestion of the court calendar, but including unexpected unavailability of a necessary witness, unusual complexity of the case, accommodation of a co-defendant, or where defendant has caused major delay or disruption

55
Q

What are the three prerequisites to state attorney filing a demand for a speedy trial, and what are the time considerations involved

A

The state attorney may file a demand for a speedy trial if:

(i) the state has met its discovery obligations;
(ii) the court has granted at least three continuances on the defendant’s request over the state attorney’s objection; and (iii) in a felony case, it is not resolved within 125 days after the date that formal charges were filed and the defendant was arrested or the date that notice to appear in lieu of arrest was served on the defendant. The court must schedule a calendar call within five days. At the calendar call, the court must schedule the trial to commence within five to 45 days.

56
Q

What are the rules regarding using insanity as a defense

A

Insanity is an affirmative defense that the defendant has the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence. Defendant must notify the court within 15 days after arraignment or filing of a written not guilty plea of his intention to rely on an insanity defense, and must provide a statement of the nature of the insanity and a list of witnesses whom he expects will prove his insanity. The court must order defendant examined. If defendant is acquitted by reason of insanity, the court may order commitment to the DCF, outpatient treatment, or complete discharge. The court retains continuing jurisdiction over committed defendants.

57
Q

What is the standard for being declared incompetent to proceed or be sentenced and what is the procedure following such a declaration (and also in the determination of such a declaration)

A

To be competent, a defendant must be able to consult with his lawyer and understand the proceedings against him.
At any time before sentencing, the court may order a hearing to determine the defendant’s mental condition. If the defendant is not confined, the court may order him held pending determination. The court may order the defendant examined by up to three experts, and the attorneys for both sides may be present at any examination. At the hearing, both sides may present evidence. If a defendant is found incompetent, he may be involuntarily treated in a facility or as an outpatient for up to six months, after which periodic hearings may result in further involuntary treatment for up to a year at a time. If, after five years of the incompetence determination for felonies or one year for misdemeanors, it appears that eventual competence is unlikely and defendant cannot be involuntarily committed, the charges must be dropped without prejudice.

58
Q

What is considered an “intellectual disability,” what is the effect of being declared as such in a criminal case

A

A death sentence may not be imposed on a defendant with an intellectual disability (i.e., one with significantly sub-average general intellectual functioning–I.Q. of 70 or below–plus deficits in adaptive behavior shown during minority). In first degree murder cases in which the death penalty has not been waived by the state, a defendant may file a written motion raising intellectual disability as a bar to execution. If the court finds the defendant is intellectually disabled, it will enter a written order prohibiting the imposition of the death penalty and setting forth specific findings. The court must stay the proceedings for 30 days to allow the state the opportunity to appeal the order.

59
Q

What is the general rule regarding discovery–when does an obligation begin, what is that obligation, and what is the effect of noncompliance with that obligation

A

Once the defendant gives notice of an intent to participate in discovery, both parties have a continuing obligation to disclose. Failure to comply with discovery may result in an order to comply, a continuance, a mistrial, a ban on use of undisclosed matters, contempt, or other relief

60
Q

What is the full scope of a prosecutor’s obligation in discovery

A

The prosecutor is under an obligation to disclose any information tending to negate defendant’s guilt. Within 15 days of defendants’ demand, the prosecutor must in general disclose names and addresses of persons with relevant information and any materials and information he intends to use. The existence of wiretapping and confidential informants must be acknowledged, but informants need not be identified unless they will be witnesses. The court may prohibit disclosure of sensitive matter and may make other appropriate protective orders. Upon notice to the state, defendant may depose persons with information

61
Q

What is the full scope of a defendant’s obligation in discovery

A

Defendant must furnish the names and addresses of the witnesses he expects to call within 15 days of receiving the state’s list of witnesses, and disclose statements of expected defense witnesses, reports of experts, and papers or objects he intends to use. If using an alibi defense, and if demanded by the prosecution, defendant must provide a statement of the particulars of the alibi (his whereabouts at the time of the crime and the names and addresses of any witnesses he may offer to prove the alibi) at least 10 days before trial. The state then has five days in which to notify the defense of its rebuttal witnesses and their addresses. The court may order defendant to participate in line-ups, speak for voice identification, give physical specimens, be fingerprinted, pose for mug shots, try on particular clothing, and submit to examinations

62
Q

A party may take a discovery deposition of any witness, except in what four cases

A

(i) in most misdemeanor or criminal traffic cases;
(ii) prosecution witnesses who were only ministerially involved in the case;
(iii) prosecution witnesses whom the prosecution does not in good faith intend to call as a witness;
(iv) prosecution witnesses whose involvement in the case is fully set out in a police report or other statement furnished to the defendant
Note: depositions of children under 18 must be videotaped unless the court orders otherwise

63
Q

Noncapital criminal cases are tried before how many jurors

A

6 (unless the defendant elects to be tried by the judge and the state concurs)

64
Q

capital cases are tried before how many jurors

A

12 (unless the defendant elects to be tried by the judge and the state concurs)

65
Q

When are alternate jurors discharged

A

before the jury deliberates unless they replace a juror

66
Q

What is the rule for alternates in a capital case

A

they are excused but may have to return for an additional hearing if the defendant is convicted of the capital offense

67
Q

When can a defendant waive a six-person jury

A

if the waiver is knowing, intelligent, voluntary, and made on the record

68
Q

What does a defendant have the right to know about prospective jurors

A

their names, addresses, and questionnaire responses

69
Q

What is involved in a juror challenge for cause

A

any potential juror may be challenged for cause, including legal or factual incompetence, relationship to the parties or the case, or prejudice. The moving party must state grounds for the challenge.

70
Q

What is involved in a peremptory juror challenge

A

No reason need be given for the challenge: each side gets 10 for capital or life felonies, six for other felonies, and three for misdemeanors.

71
Q

For jointly tried defendants, how many peremptory are granted for each defendant and the state

A

each defendant gets the regular number (10 for capital or life, 6 for felonies, 3 for misdemeanors) and the state gets the sum for all defendants

72
Q

Does a trial judge have discretion to permit additional peremptory challenges

A

yes, when appropriate

73
Q

what may peremptory challenges not be used for

A

to exclude persons of a particular sex or racial group or any other group subject to strict scrutiny

74
Q

what four things must a defendant do to preserve for appeal a claim that the trial court should have excused a particular juror for cause

A

(i) object to the juror, (ii) exhaust all peremptory challenges, (iii) request additional peremptory challenges and be denied, and (iv) identify a specific juror that he would have excused if possible

75
Q

when must a jury be sequestered

A

if a condition such as massive publicity could affect the fair-mindedness of the jurors

76
Q

What is the seven part order of a trial

A

(i) state’s opening statement;
(ii) defendant’s opening statement (may be reserved until the beginning of defendant’s case); (iii) state’s case; (iv) defendant’s case; (v) state’s rebuttal; (vi) charge conference to determine jury instructions; (vii) three closing arguments (state’s closing argument, defendant’s reply and, if defendant replies, state’s rebuttal)

77
Q

When should standard instructions be used in criminal cases

A

always unless erroneous or inapplicable

78
Q

may either side propose additional jury instructions?

A

yes

79
Q

when must objections to instructions be made

A

on the record before the jury retires or they are waived

80
Q

May a judge instruct a jury on the possible sentence

A

no–only in capital cases its allowed

81
Q

Is a judge allowed to give instructions to the jury only orally?

A

No the judge must provide the jury with written instructions to take into the jury room

82
Q

What may jurors take into the jury room

A

any materials (except depositions), copies of the charging instrument, and verdict forms

83
Q

what is the rule on reading testimony back to jurors

A

Any testimony read or played back must be done in open court in the presence of all parties

84
Q

What is the rule for jurors when they retire to the jury room in a capital death penalty case

A

when they retire to consider verdict, they must be sequestered until they have reached a verdict or have been discharged by the court

85
Q

Must jury verdict be unanimous?

A

yes

86
Q

What happens if the jury brings back an ambiguous or incomplete verdict

A

the jury may be instructed again and sent back for further deliberations

87
Q

may jurors convict or acquit one defendant while remaining hung as to any other?

A

yes

88
Q

what is a motion for judgment of acquittal and when is to be made

A

It is equivalent to a civil motion for a directed verdict and may be made at the close of the state’s case. The motion may also be made post-trial within 10 days of a guilty verdict or mistrial

89
Q

when must a motion for new trial be made

A

within 10 days after the defendant is found guilty

90
Q

when must a trial court grant a new trial (per se grounds)

A

if the jurors decided the case by lot; the verdict is contrary to the law or the weight of the evidence; or new, previously undiscoverable evidence would probably change the outcome (and prejudicial grounds)

91
Q

when must a trial court grant a new trial

A

if substantial rights of the defendant were prejudiced by: juror misconduct, jury consideration of out-of-court evidence, the judge’s error on law or jury instructions, involuntary absence of the defendant when his presence is required, or any other reason that the defendant did not get a fair trial

92
Q

what does the court do if it finds that the evidence does not support a guilty verdict

A

it enters a judgment of acquittal and discharges the defendant. instead of granting a new trial, the judge may find the defendant guilty of a lesser offense

93
Q

what is a motion in arrest of judgment and what are the available grounds on which it can be based

A

it is like a tardy motion to dismiss. it must be filed within 10 days after defendant is found guilty. available grounds are fatal defects in the charging instrument, lack of jurisdiction, and conviction by the jury of an offense not under the charging instrument

94
Q

what is a motion to interview juror and what is its timeline

A

a party who has reason to believe that the verdict may be subject to legal challenge may move, within 10 days after rendition of the verdict, for an order permitting an interview with a juror or jurors

95
Q

what is the difference between a jury verdict and a judgment

A

a jury verdict is a finding of fact that a defendant is guilty or not guilty, and a judgment is entered accordingly

96
Q

upon a judgment of guilty, must a defendant be advised of her right to appeal?

A

yes

97
Q

when is post-trial release allowed of a guilty defendant

A

at the limited discretion of the trial or appellate court for a noncapital offense for which bail is not prohibited may be released pending review of her case. The appeal must be in good faith and not frivolous. However, bail may not be granted to a person previously convicted of a felony who has not had his civil rights restored, or who has other felony charges pending where probable cause has been found

98
Q

are orders denying post-trial release appealable?

A

yes, by motion to the appellate court

99
Q

What are the rules regarding a Presentence Investigative Report (PSI)

A

A trial judge may request a PSI when she has discretion as to what sentence to impose. A PSI is mandatory for a defendant who will be imprisoned for his first felony or for a juvenile who commits a felony. Note that a judge may dispense with a PSI in cases where she places the defendant on probation, but a PSI is mandatory if the court sentences such a defendant to prison if he later violates probation. Any reports or physical exams imposed on defendant must be disclosed to the parties

100
Q

What must a judge inquire before sentencing

A

if there is any reason defendant should not be sentenced, such as insanity or pardon. The judge must also inquire into any plea bargains of which she may be unaware, but she is not bound by these

101
Q

how does sentencing work in capital cases

A

capital cases are divided into guilt and sentencing phases. In the sentencing phase, each side may introduce evidence of aggravation or mitigation and may cross-examine witnesses, and is permitted on argument. the state goes first

102
Q

may a judge depart from the Criminal Punishment Code in sentencing. if so, when?

A

yes, if she provides written reasons for doing so when circumstances or factors reasonably justify aggravation or mitigation of the sentence. Facts supporting departure must be shown by a preponderance of the evidence.

103
Q

how do multiple sentences of imprisonment work

A

unless the sentencing judge rules otherwise, multiple sentences for crimes charged in one indictment or information run concurrently, and multiple sentences for crimes charged in separate indictments or informations run consecutively. However, a sentence for sexual battery or murder must be imposed consecutively to any other sentence for sexual battery or murder that arose out of a separate criminal episode

104
Q

may a sentence of death be imposed on a mentally disabled or pregnant defendant

A

no. a pregnant woman will not be sentenced to death until she is no longer pregnant

105
Q

what happens if a defendant is given probation or community control but then then it is revoked

A

the defendant will be adjudicated guilty and sentenced to any sentence that might originally have been imposed

106
Q

A party may move to have any error in sentencing corrected until the later of what two date

A

(i) expiration of the time for taking an appeal, or (ii) the party files a brief on direct appeal.

107
Q

If no order is filed on correction or reduction of sentence within ____ days, the order is deemed denied

A

60 days. However, in death penalty cases, this rules does not apply

108
Q

May a party move at any time the direct appeal proceeding has concluded for the sentencing court to correct an illegal sentence, an error in sentencing scoresheet calculation, or an allegedly erroneous sexual predator designation?

A

yes

109
Q

A court may reduce a legal sentence sua sponte or on motion within 60 days after what three dates

A

After (i) imposition of the sentence; (ii) receipt of appellate court mandate affirming the sentence; or (iii) receipt of the final order in any further appeal.
But if review is upon motion, the trial court has 90 days from the date the motion is filed or such time as agreed by the parties or as extended by the trial court to enter an order ruling on the motion

110
Q

What happens to a defendant upon sentencing to any penalty other than death or a fine

A

committed to sheriff’s custody

111
Q

what happens to a prisoner seeking habeas corpus relief

A

he or she remains in custody pending appellate review of his or her petition unless the petition is granted, in which case, the defendant may be released on bail

112
Q

What is the difference between direct and indirect contempt

A

direct contempt is when objectionable conduct occurs in the presence of the judge whereas indirect contempt occurs outside the presence of the judge

113
Q

what is the rule on judgment, sentence, and hearing on direct contempt

A

judgment and sentence may be pronounced summarily, but defendant has a right to present excusing or mitigating evidence

114
Q

what is the rule on judgment, sentence, and hearing on indirect contempt

A

the court issues an order to show cause and holds a hearing at which the judge, a prosecutor, or an appointed attorney may prosecute. Defendant is entitled to counsel and to present witnesses. The judge must disqualify herself if the contempt was of her personally.

115
Q

How do a motion for post-conviction relief and habeas corpus relief work with each other

A

a motion for post-conviction relief supersedes habeas corpus relief and must be exhausted first.

116
Q

Is a motion for post conviction relief presented to the sentencing court or the court of judgment

A

sentencing court

117
Q

what are the grounds for a motion for post-conviction relief

A

grounds include constitutional issues, lack of jurisdiction, involuntary plea, collateral attacks, and that the sentence exceeded the maximum allowed by law.

118
Q

What is a motion for post-conviction relief made

A

if the motion alleges that the sentence exceeded the maximum, it may be made at any time. Otherwise, it generally must be made within two years after the sentence is imposed in a noncapital case, and one year if a death sentence was imposed

119
Q

Is a post-conviction motion for relief denial appealable

A

yes

120
Q

what is the only time later motions are considered after one year post conviction of death sentence (what conditions allows this)

A

later motions are considered only if facts were known and could not have been ascertained, a fundamental constitutional right was not established at the time and can be applied retroactively, or post-conviction counsel negligently failed to file the motion

121
Q

how does postsentencing dna testing work

A

a defendant found guilty of committing a crime may petition the court to order examination of evidence that may contain dna that would exonerate the defendant or mitigate the sentence received. the petition must allege that the evidence was not previously tested, or if it was tested and the results were inconclusive, that new testing techniques would likely result in a definitive result establishing that the movant is not the person who committed the crime. Such a petition may be filed any time after the judgment and sentencing become final.

122
Q

how does the computation of time work for a period stated in hours

A

in computing time periods under the FL Rules of Crim Pro, if the period is stated in hours, the count begins immediately on occurrence of the triggering event. Hours during the weekend or holidays also are included. However, if the period would end during a weekend or on a legal holiday, the period continues to run until the same time on the next business day.

123
Q

how does computation of time work for a period stated in days or a longer unit

A

in computing time periods stated in units of a day or longer, begin counting from the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. Weekend days and legal holidays are not included if the period is less than seven days (except with respect to a first appearance, pretrial detention, or nonadversary probable cause hearing). If the period is seven days or more, weekend days and holidays are included, but if the period ends on a weekend or legal holiday, the period ends at the end of the next business day

124
Q

what is the additional time computed after service by mail

A

if a party has a right or is required to do some act or take some proceeding within a prescribed period after service of a notice or other paper, and the notice or paper is served by mail, five days are added to the prescribed period

125
Q

what is the rule on court allowances for expanding time periods

A

a court generally may expand time periods for good cause, except a court may not expand the time period for making a motion for new trial, taking an appeal, or making a motion for a judgment of acquittal