MBE Torts Flashcards

1
Q

Intentional Torts - Elements P must prove

A
  1. Voluntary Act
  2. Intent
  3. Causation
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2
Q

Voluntary Act (def)

A

Defendant must have the state of mind that directed the physical movement

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3
Q

Intent (def) - Intentional Torts

A

Defendant acted:

(i) with the purpose of causing the consequence, OR
(ii) knowing the consequence is substantially certain to occur

NB: “consequence” is the intention to commit the tort, not necessarily intention to cause the particular harm

NB: Children and the mentally incompetent persons can be held liable for intentional torts if they act with the requisite intent

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4
Q

Transferred Intent

A

When a person intends to commit an intentional tort against one person but instead commits:

(i) a different intentional tort against the same person
(ii) the same intentional tort against a different person, or
(iii) a different intentional tort against a different person

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5
Q

Transferred intent applies to which torts

A

Intentional torts of:

  • Battery
  • Assault
  • False Imprisonment
  • Trespass to Land
  • Trespass to Chattels

DOES NOT apply to intentional infliction of emotional distress

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6
Q

Causation (intentional torts)

A

Defendant’s conduct was a substantial factor in creating the harm

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7
Q

Battery (def)

A

An intentional tort
Defendant causes a HARMFUL or OFFENSIVE contact with the person of another; and
Acts with the intent to cause that contact OR the APPREHENSION of that contact

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8
Q

Offensive contact (def)

A

A person of ORDINARY SENSIBILITIES (reasonable person) would find that contact offensive.

NB: Df might be liable if aware that the victim is hypersensitive but acts nonetheless

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9
Q

P’s Awareness (battery)

A

P need not be aware of the contact with it occurs

ex: unconscious medical patient is inappropriately touched by doctor

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10
Q

P’s person (battery)

A

Contact with anything CONNECTED to the P’s person qualifies as contact with the person
(ex: knocking someone’s cane out from under them)

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11
Q

Egg-shell Plaintiff Rule

A

The defendant is not required to foresee the extent of damages to be liable for all damages

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12
Q

Damages (battery)

A

NO proof of actual harm is required
The P can recover nominal damages

Many states allow punitive damages if the df acted:

(i) with malice (i.e., wrongful motive)
(ii) outrageously

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13
Q

Assault (def)

A

P’s reasonable apprehension of an IMMINENT harmful or offensive bodily contact caused by the Df

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14
Q

Intent (assault)

A

Df must act with the intent to cause either:

(i) that apprehension, or
(ii) the contact itself

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15
Q

P’s Apprehension (assault)

A

(1) Must be reasonable
(2) P must be AWARE of or have knowledge of the df’s act
(3) Actual fear is NOT required - only reasonable apprehension of imminent contact

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16
Q

Imminent (assault)

A

Must be without significant delay

Threats of FUTURE harm are NOT sufficient

17
Q

Mere Words (assault)

A

“Mere words” do not constitute an assault, BUT

Words coupled with the circumstances can indicate an imminent threat of harmful or offensive contact

18
Q

Damages (assault)

A

No proof of actual damages is required
P can recover nominal damages
P can also recover damages for physical harm flowing from the imminent apprehension
(ex: P suffers a heart attack)

19
Q

Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress (def)

A

A defendant is liable for intentionally or recklessly acting with extreme or outrageous conduct that causes the P severe emotional distress

20
Q

Intent (IIED)

A

The defendant must intend to cause severe emotional distress or at least be reckless as to the risk of causing extreme emotional distress

** Transferred intent does NOT apply **

21
Q

Extreme or Outrageous Conduct (IIED)

A
  • Exceeds the limits of common decency so as to be intolerable to society
  • Mere insult, indignities, or threats are not enough
  • Courts are more likely to find the conduct or language to be extreme/outrageous, if:
    (i) Df is in a position of authority or influence over the P
    (ii) P is a member of group that has a heightened sensitivity that Df knows about
22
Q

Conduct Directed at Third Party (IIED)

A

Family Member:
- If the conduct is direct at a member of the victim’s immediately family who is PRESENT at the time of the conduct, and the Df is AWARE of that presence, then that person can be liable whether or not there has been a physical injury

Bystander:
- If there is a bystander who is PRESENT at the time of the conduct, and the Df is aware of that bystander’s presence, and that bystander suffers DISTRESS that results in bodily injury, then that person can be liable

23
Q

Damages (IIED)

A

Physical injury is NOT required, unless a bystander other than a family member

24
Q

False Imprisonment (def)

A

(1) Df acts intending to CONFINE or RESTRAIN another within boundaries fixed by the defendant
(2) The actions directly or indirectly result in confinement, and
(3) P is AWARE of the confinement OR harmed by it

25
Q

Confinement - Area / Method (False Impr)

A

Bounded Area:

  • P’s freedom of movement in all directions must be limited
  • Area can be large
  • Does not have to be stationary
  • Not considered bounded if there is a SAFE means of escape

Methods of Confinement:

  • Use of physical barriers, physical force, threats, invalid use of legal authority, duress, or refusing to provide a safe means of escape
  • May also find if the Df refused to perform a DUTY to release the P from existing confinement / provide a means of escape
26
Q

Shopkeeper’s Privilege

A

A shopkeeper can detain a suspected shoplifted without being considered false imprisonment

27
Q

Knowledge of Confinement (False Impr)

A

P must be AWARE of the confinement or HARMED by it

  • If not aware, and no physical harm, then cannot recover
28
Q

Damages (False Impr)

A

Actual damages not required

Nominal damages can be recovered, unless the P was not aware of (or harmed by) the confinement

29
Q

Express Consent (def)

A

P by some words or actions manifests a willingness to submit to the conduct

30
Q

Consent by Mistake (int tort)

A

Valid unless the Df caused the mistake or knew of it and took advantage of it

31
Q

Consent by Fraud (int tort)

A

Invalid if it goes to an essential matter (if goes to collateral matter, then consent is valid)

32
Q

Consent Under Duress

A

Invalid (threats of physical force only – not economic)

33
Q

Implied Consent (def)

A

P has impliedly consented when:

(i) a reasonable person would object and P is silent
(ii) P enters into circumstances that signal indirectly that P is willing to endure certain conduct

34
Q

Consent - Athletic Competitions

A

Consent is implied – only liable if conduct is reckless (like bringing a hammer to a field)

35
Q

Self-Defense (def)

A

A person may use reasonable fo