MBE torts Flashcards

1
Q

Elements of Assault:

A

(1) act by defendant that created reasonable apprehension of battery; (2) defendant intended to bring about the reasonable apprehension; and (3) causation

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2
Q

Elements of false imprisonment:

A

(1) plaintiff was confined in a bounded area; (2) defendant intended to confine the plaintiff; and (3) causation

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3
Q

Elements of Trespass to Chattels:

A

(1) defendant intentionally; (2) interferes w/ plaintiff’s use or possession of personal property; and (3) actual harm if defendant doesn’t take the property out of the plaintiff’s possession

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4
Q

When is self-defense available?

A

person reasonably believes they are being/ about to be attacked; can use force reasonably necessary under the circumstances to protect against injury

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5
Q

An attractive nuisance exists where:

A

(1) defendant is aware, or should be aware that artificial condition poses a risk to children of serious injury/ death; (2) defendant knows/has reason to know children will enter land; (3) children wouldn’t realize the danger of the condition; and (4) risk of harm is great compared to cost of eliminating the dangerous condition

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6
Q

What are the theories of products liability?

A

(1) negligence; (2) strict product liability; (3) implied warranty of merchantability and fitness for particular purpose; (4) express warranty; and (5) misrepresentation

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7
Q

To prevail on a strict product liability claim, plaintiff must show:

A

(1) D was commercial supplier; (2) product was defective; (3) product wasn’t substantially altered after leaving the factory; and (4) plaintiff made foreseeable use

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8
Q

Is privity required in products liability actions?

A

No- the whole chain of distribution (manufacturer, seller, retailer) may be held liable; and users, consumers, and bystanders can sue

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9
Q

How can a plaintiff prove a product is defective?

A

showing the product has a manufacturing defect, a design defect, or an information defect

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10
Q

When is a product defectively manufactured?

A

it is dangerous beyond the expectations of the ordinary consumer because of a departure from properly made products

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11
Q

When may a product have a design defect?

A

If the product has dangerous propensities and plaintiff can show the defendant could have made the product safer without serious impact on utility

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12
Q

When does a product have an information defect?

A

Failure to include adequate warnings/ instructions of the risks involved when using the product that may not be apparent

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13
Q

What damages are recoverable under a strict product liability theory?

A

physical injury or property damages; sole claim cannot be economic loss

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14
Q

What are the elements of a negligence products liability claim?

A

(1) duty; (2) breach; (3) actual and proximate cause; and (4) damages

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15
Q

How is a duty breached in a negligent products liability claim?

A

negligent conduct by defendant leading to supplying a defective product

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16
Q

Implied warranty of merchantability and fitness

A
  • Implied in every sale of goods
  • Merchantability = breach occurs if sale of goods is not generally acceptable or fit for ordinary purpose
  • Fitness= breach occurs if sale of goods is not fit for the purpose seller knows/ has reason to know for which the goods are required and buyer is relying on seller’s judgment to pick the goods
17
Q

Under a theory of implied warranty of merchantability and fitness for a particular purpose, must the plaintiff prove the defendant is at fault?

A

No- if product fails to meet standards imposed by either of the implied warranties, the defendant will be liable

18
Q

What are the elements for misrepresentation is a strict liability claim?

A

(1) D is seller of such products; (2) D made misrepresentation of a material fact; (3) D intended to induce reliance on the misrepresentation; (4) justifiable and actual reliance by plaintiff on the misrepresentation; and (5) causation and damages

19
Q

Doctrine of Vicarious Liability for Employer-Employee

A

-Employer is liable for tortious acts committed by employee within the scope of employment UNLESS employee has substantially deviated from employer’s business for their own purpose; or the employee has committed an intentional tort

20
Q

When may an employer be vicariously liable for its employee’s intentional torts?

A

(1) acting to further business of the employer; (2) force is a part of the employment (i.e. security guards); (3) friction is generated by the employment

21
Q

Assumption of Risk defense:

A
  • complete defense (I.e. if defendant prevails in raising the defense, defendant will not be liable)
  • traditional rule of apportioning fault does not apply because it is a complete defense
  • plaintiff will be denied recovery under the defense if (1) knew of the risk; and (2) voluntarily proceeded in the face of the risk
22
Q

What does plaintiff have to demonstrate to prevail on a strict product liability claim based on misrepresentation:

A

that the misrepresentation made was one of material fact concerning the quality/ nature of the product and plaintiff’s reliance on the misrepresentation resulted in injury

23
Q

When may a bystander recover for negligent infliction of emotional distress?

A

(1) plaintiff and person injured by Defendant’s negligence are closely related; (2) plaintiff was personally present at the scene of the injury; and (3) plaintiff observed/ perceived the event

24
Q

What are the elements for Fraud?

A

(1) Defendant made a misrepresentation; (2) defendant knew misrepresentation was false; (3) defendant intended to induce plaintiff’s reliance on the misrepresentation; (4) plaintiff did rely on the misrepresentation; and (5) pecuniary damages

25
Q

When may a defendant have a qualified privilege defense to defamation claim?

A

(1) if the recipient has an interest in the information (i.e. former employer making remarks about a former employee to prospective employer); (2) statement to defend ones own actions, property or reputation; (3) reports of public hearings; or statements made to an officer taking official action

26
Q

Rules for defamation based on libel:

A
  • Libel is written/ printed defamation
  • generally plaintiff doesn’t need to prove special damages to recover
  • general damages are presumed
27
Q

Private Nuissance:

A
  • (1) substantial; and (2) unreasonable interference with another private individual’s use or enjoyment of their land that is (3) offensive/ annoying to a person of average sensibilities
  • Plaintiff can establish unreasonable interference by showing injury outweighs utility to defendant
28
Q

Elements of Battery:

A

(1) act by defendant resulting in harmful or offensive contact to plaintiff’s person; (2) intent on part of the defendant to bring about the harmful/ offensive contact; and (3) causation

29
Q

Whether a contact is considered harmful/ offensive for purposes of a battery is:

A

judged by the standard of a reasonable person of ordinary sensibilities

30
Q

Under the doctrine of transferred intent:

A

the intent to commit one tort serves as the intent requirement for another tort (i.e. defendant only intended to commit assault but completed a battery- intent will transfer to the battery)

31
Q

Self Defense:

A
  • may be used when defendant has reasonable grounds to believe he is being or is about to be attacked
  • can use or threaten to use force reasonably necessary to protect against the potential harm
32
Q

What is outrageous conduct (for an IIED claim)?

A

conduct that transcends all bounds of decency tolerated by society

33
Q

Elements of IIED:

A

(1) act by the defendant amounting to extreme and outrageous conduct; (2) intent to cause plaintiff to suffer severe emotional distress or recklessness to the effect of defendant’s conduct; (3) causation; and (4) damages

34
Q

What damages does plaintiff have to show in an IIED claim?

A

damages in the form of severe emotional distress; physical injury or symptoms is not required

35
Q

What are the elements of Res Ipsa?

A

Plaintiff must prove (1) defendant was in exclusive control of the object that caused the injury; (2) plaintiff was not negligent; and (3) an inference of negligence (I.e. the accident would not normally occur unless someone was negligent)

36
Q

What is the effect of res ipsa?

A

It allows the jury to infer that the defendant was probably negligent based on circumstantial evidence

37
Q

Generally, intentional torts is not within the scope of employment UNLESS

A

force is authorized as part of the job, friction is generated as part of the job, or the employee is furthering the business of the employer