MBE Questions from Adaptibar Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Does mental illness make a confession involuntary or coercive?

A

NO

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2
Q

What are the exceptions to FHA for discrimination?

A

Religious organizations, private clubs, and building owners who have no more than 4 apartments if one is occupied by the owner

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3
Q

What is the FHA prohibition on notices?

A

No printing or publishing any notice or statement about the rental or sale of a dwelling indicating any preference, limitation, or discrimination based on race, ethnicity, religion, national origin, gender, or disability

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4
Q

What is the result of a forged deed?

A

Deed is void and BFP is not protected

**Fraud in the execution of a deed is equivalent to a forged deed

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5
Q

What is burglary?

A

(1) The breaking (actual or constructive, as done with force or threats) and (2) entering (3) into the dwelling of another (4) at night (5) with the intent to commit a felony therein

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6
Q

What is robbery?

A

(1) Wrongful taking of another’s property (2) from his person or presence (3) by force or threat of injury (4) with the intent to permanently deprive

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7
Q

What is felony murder?

A

(1) Killing of a human being (2) in the course of an inherently dangerous felony

Victim’s death must be a foreseeable result of the felony

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8
Q

What is an implied in fact contract?

A

Type of enforceable contract based on a tacit promise, rather than an express promise [may be inferred from parties’ conduct, such as where services are rendered by one person to another under circumstances where it may be fairly presumed that the parties understood that compensation would be paid]

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9
Q

Conducting a hearing on the admissibility of a confession

A

Must be conducted outside the hearing of the jury

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10
Q

When a seller has delivered nonconforming goods, and the buyer justifiably revokes acceptance, the buyer has a security interest in the goods in his possession/control for any payments made on their price

The buyer may hold such goods and resell them in the same manner as an aggrieved seller

A

A sale to a private party requires notification to the owner of the goods

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11
Q

What charges is character an essential element of? [evidence]

A

(1) Defamation [plaintiff’s character is at issue]
(2) Negligent hiring or entrustment [hired/entrusted person’s character is at issue]
(3) Child custody cases [parents’ character is at issue]

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12
Q

Can Congress force state or local governments to create or enforce laws?

A

NO (it may only encourage states to pass laws by conditioning the receipt of federal funding on enacting such legislation and even those federally-imposed “strings” cannot be compulsory, and must only be incentives)

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13
Q

When a renewed motion for judgment as a matter of law and a motion in the alternative for a new trial are filed, if the judge grants a judgment as a matter of law for the movant, the judge must also conditionally rule on the motion for a new trial

A
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14
Q

A products liability claim based in strict liability requires:

A

(1) A commercial supplier of a product;
(2) Producing or selling a defective product;
(3) Actual and proximate cause; AND
(4) Damages

Plaintiff must prove defect existed when product left D’s control

For liability to attach, product must also reach P without substantial alteration

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15
Q

When the product is defectively designed or manufactured with defects, no warnings can cut off strict liability for the defendant

A

When a product is properly designed and manufactured, but a non-obvious risk of personal injury remains, D will be liable without including a warning

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16
Q

Specific Intent Crimes

A
Solicitation
Conspiracy
Attempt
First-Degree Pre-Meditated Murder
Assault
Larceny
Embezzlement
Forgery
Robbery
Burglary
False Pretenses
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17
Q

When may a person’s nondisclosure of a fact be tantamount to a misrepresentation of fact sufficient to allow rescission of a contract?

A

Where the person knows that disclosure of the fact would correct the other party’s mistake with respect to a basic assumption of the contract and where nondisclosure amounts to a failure to act in good fatih

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18
Q

When the President acts with the express or implied authority of Congress, his authority is at its maximum and his actions are likely valid

A

When the President acts where Congress is silent, his actions will be upheld as long as the acts do not take over the powers of another branch of government or prevent another branch from carrying out its tasks

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19
Q

When is an equitable servitude in a deed enforceable?

A

Where a party can establish (1) intent for the restriction to be enforceable by subsequent grantees; (2) subsequent grantee had notice of the servitude; and (3) the restriction touches and concerns the land

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20
Q

What must exist for an equitable servitude to bind an entire subdivision?

A

It must be found in the common building plan for the subdivision - if it is, then anyone who owns a plot of land within the subdivision is bound by the restrictions and may file suit to enforce those restrictions against other owners

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21
Q

How can you extend a TRO?

A

Extension of the TRO before the hearing is dependent on a showing of good cause

Example: witness having a vacation planned = NO good cause [no surprise in the witness’ unavailability]

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22
Q

In order for a federal court to hear a lawsuit, it must have:

A

Subject matter jurisdiction AND personal jurisdiction

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23
Q

State Actor

A

14th Amendment only limits the power of states and state actors - for private entities to be considered state actors, they must be (1) performing a task traditionally exclusively done by the government [public function exception] OR excessively entangled with the government such that the government affirmatively authorizes, encourages, or facilitates unconstitutional activity [entanglement exception]

**Grant of money from the government by itself is not enough involvement to be deemed a state actor

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24
Q

A quitclaim deed, even when the holder is aware that their claim to the property is doubtful, is sufficient consideration to form a contract

A

Quitclaim deed is an “as is” deed which contains no warrantees/covenants

**Grantor is NOT liable for any encumbrances or defects in title

25
Q

What is a compulsory counterclaim?

A

Arises out of the same subject matter of the plaintiff’s claim against the defendant (same transaction or occurrence)

**All counterclaims must have an independent jurisdictional basis

26
Q

What is a permissive counterclaim?

A

Does not arise out of the same subject matter as plaintiff’s claim against defendant [no claim is too far removed to be allowed]

**All counterclaims must have an independent jurisdictional basis

27
Q

Burden of Proof - Entrapment

A

Prosecution must have the burden of proving each element of the crime charged BUT the state may impose the burden of proof upon the defendant regarding an affirmative defense (e.g., entrapment)

28
Q

Entrapment (Affirmative Defense)

A

(1) The police created the criminal environment AND

(2) The defendant was not predisposed to commit the crime

29
Q

What is a presumption?

A

A presumption is a rule that requires a particular inference to be drawn from an ascertained set of facts

A presumption is overcome or destroyed when the adversary produces some evidence contradicting the presumed fact

30
Q

Mailbox rule presumption

A

A letter that is properly addressed, stamped, and mailed is presumed to have reached its destination

31
Q

How is an easement created?

A

(1) Express grant [recorded and signed by grantor and complies with all formalities of a deed]
(2) Implication [created by operation of law rather than a written instrument]
(3) Prescription [like adverse possession - OCH]

32
Q

Where the holder of the dominant estate misuses an easement by excessive use…

A

The servient holder’s proper remedy will be an injunction against further misuses or damages, NOT forfeiture of the easement

33
Q

Unless the terms of an easement state otherwise…

A

It is assumed that the easement is permanent and that it will be used for the reasonable development of the dominant estate

34
Q

“Time is of the essence” clause [contracts]

A

Requires performance by a specific date, where failure to perform by said date is deemed a MATERIAL BREACH [without this clause, failure to perform by a specified date is usually NOT deemed a material breach]

35
Q

Under Article III, the US Supreme Court shall have original jurisdiction in cases involving ambassadors, ministers and consuls, and cases in which a state is a party

A

Article III itself suggests that Congress may place certain limits on both the Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction and on the jurisdiction of the lower federal courts

36
Q

Are words sufficient for assault?

A

NO - apprehension must be reasonable (defendant must have the apparent present physical ability to complete his threatened battery)

37
Q

Equitable Servitude - Subdivision

A

For an equitable servitude to bind an entire subdivision, it must be found in the common building plan for that subdivision - if it is, then anyone who owns a plot of land within the subdivision is bound by the restrictions and may file suit to enforce those restrictions against other owners

38
Q

What does the 14th Amendment do?

A

Prohibits states from depriving any person of liberty, liberty, or property without due process and equal protection of the land

Prohibits states from infringing upon a person’s fundamental rights (including the right to vote)

39
Q

Ca a co-tenant acquire title by adverse possession against another co-tenant?

A

SOMETIMES - actual possession of property held in concurrent ownership by one concurrent owner for the statutory period of adverse possession will not be sufficient to give that possessor title to the whole estate to the exclusion of his co-tenant unless there has been an OUSTER

40
Q

What is ouster?

A

When the occupying tenant refuses to permit the other tenant equal occupancy

41
Q

Is an injured person always liable for their rescuer’s injuries?

A

NO - one who acts negligently and endangers himself is also liable for the resulting injuries of anyone who undertakes to rescue him [BUT if the injured person is not negligent in creating his peril, he is NOT liable for the injuries of his rescuer]

42
Q

What does the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination protect?

A

Testimonial or communicative evidence [NOT real or physical evidence]

43
Q

When can a defendant use impleader?

A

When a defendant believes that a nonparty is liable to him in indemnity or contribution for all or part of the plaintiff’s claim against him

44
Q

What can a defendant do to implead a nonparty?

A

Defendant, as third-party plaintiff, serves a summons and complaint on a nonparty

45
Q

When is joinder REQUIRED?

A

Either:

(1) Party is required for the court to be able to accord complete relief among the existing parties

OR

(2) Has such an important interest in the case such that NOT joining them will either: cause them a practical impairment/impediment in protecting their interest OR expose an existing party to a substantial risk of multiple or inconsistent liability

46
Q

What is the economic loss doctrine?

A

Parties are prohibited from recovering in tort when the negligence of another results in purely economic loss, as opposed to personal injury or property damage

47
Q

When can a defendant recover on a strict products liability theory?

A

When there is actual injury (not only economic loss)

48
Q

How long does a defendant have to remove a case based on diversity to federal court?

A

1 year after the action’s commencement (UNLESS the plaintiff somehow acted in bad faith to prevent the defendant from removing the case)

49
Q

What is a restraint on alienation?

A

Occurs when the grantor attempts to restrict the alienability or transferability of the land

50
Q

When can a pleading be amended?

A

Once without the leave of court within 21 days after service of the pleading and then courts should freely give leave to amend when justice so requires

51
Q

Duty owed by common carriers?

A

To furnish assistance to passengers when they are subject to danger, especially when it is the result of conditions created by the carrier that cause foreseeable risk of harm [NOT strict liability]

52
Q

When is the consideration required for modification considered satisfied by the party’s promise to complete their pre-existing contractual duty?

A

Where there is an unforeseen difficulty so severe it rises to the level of impracticability [extreme and unreasonable difficulty or expense that was not anticipated at the time of formation]

53
Q

What is the remedy for conversion?

A

Fair market value of the goods at the time of the conversion

54
Q

When a party has committed only a partial (as opposed to a total) breach of a contract…

A

The other party to the contract remains obligated to perform, and refusal to perform will give the partially-breaching party the right to either specific performance or damages for total breach

55
Q

Accord and satisfaction [contracts]

A

Agreement in which one party to an existing contract agrees to accept, in lieu of the performance that she is supposed to receive from the other party to the existing contract, some other, different performance

Discharges the original contract and the accord contract

56
Q

Accord and satisfaction for debtors

A

A debtor may make an offer to settle a dispute by offering a check marked “payment in full” - cashing the check without protest amounts to an acceptance of the offer of an accord and satisfaction of the debt [amount must be genuinely in dispute]

57
Q

Do expectation damages include attorneys’ fees?

A

NO (unless otherwise stated)

58
Q
A

If a new promise is made (whi