MBE Property MC Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Life tenant’s duties

A

Charges, waste, repairs (can’t waste reward)

  • Duty to pay current charges (Life tenant must pay all current charges due during life tenancy (eg, property taxes, mortgage interest) up to financial benefit received from property)
  • Duty to prevent waste (Life tenant must prevent affirmative waste (ie, voluntary waste), permissive waste & ameliorative waste)
  • Duty to make ordinary repairs (Life tenant must make reasonable repairs to preserve property)
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2
Q

How calculate how much pay in taxes for life tenant?

A

duties include paying ordinary taxes on the real property, but only to the extent that the life tenant receives a financial benefit from the property.

The financial benefit is determined differently depending on whether the life tenant:
- occupies the property – measured by the fair market rental value of the property (e.g., reasonable rental value) or
- does not occupy the property – measured by the income derived from the land (e.g., third-party rental income, crops grown on the land)

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3
Q

If there’s life estate and person with remainder, life estate holder doesn’t pay taxes - does remainderman have to pay?

A

holder of a remainder interest may pay the taxes to protect that interest—but has no duty to the life tenant to do so.

The remainderman can then sue the life tenant for taxes paid, not to exceed the value of the financial benefit that the life tenant received from the property.

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4
Q

How can joint tenancy be severed?

A

A joint tenant can sever the joint tenancy by conveying his/her interest during life to another, thereby creating a tenancy in common.

But a joint tenant cannot devise his/her property interest and it will not pass by intestacy because, at death, the joint tenant’s interest ceases to exist and is automatically absorbed into the surviving joint tenants’ interests.

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5
Q

defeasible fee (def)

A

a fee simple estate that may be terminated upon the occurrence of a stated event or condition.

has the potential to last forever

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6
Q

if fee simple subject to a condition subsequent and condition occurs, what happens?

A

If the stated condition occurs, then title will automatically pass to the future interest holder.

If the future interest is held by a third party (as opposed to the grantor), then the estate is called a fee simple subject to an executory limitation.

If future interest held by grantor = Grantor’s right of entry

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7
Q

fee simple subject to an executory interest (def)

A

a present estate limited by durational or conditional language.

Upon the occurrence of the specified event or condition, title automatically passes to a third party who holds a future, executory interest.

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8
Q

Fee simple determinable language and future interest

A

Durational

  • Grantor’s possibility
    of reverter
  • Third party’s
    executory interest (auto)
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9
Q

fee simple subject to a condition subsequent - language

A

conditional

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10
Q

A remainder is a future interest that follows what present possessory estate?

A

Life estate

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11
Q

Remainder types

A

Vested + Contingent

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12
Q

What is vested remainder?

A

An interest that is given to an ascertained grantee (IDed person); AND

Not subject to a condition precedent

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13
Q

restraint on alienation (def and types)

A

A restraint on alienation is a provision that restricts the transferability of real property.

Disabling restraint
Forfeiture restraint
Promissory restraint

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14
Q

direct (or absolute) restraints on alienation are ______. partial restraint is generally valid if ____.

A

Void

for a limited time and a reasonable purpose

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15
Q

Disabling restraint (def and validity)

A

Prohibition on transfer of property interest by its owner

Always void

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16
Q

Forfeiture restraint (def and validity)

A

Restraint where owner forfeits property interest if owner attempts to transfer it

Restraint on future interest or life estate can be valid

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17
Q

Promissory restraint

A

Promise by property-interest holder not to transfer property interest

Can be valid

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18
Q

Does RAP apply to leases?

A

No

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19
Q

A right of first refusal is a partial restraint on alienation that, if reasonable, is valid and enforceable by an injunction. This right is generally reasonable if…

A

the holder of the right can purchase the property under the same terms offered to another party.

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20
Q

A landlord and tenant have a legal relationship based on

A

privity of K and privity of estate

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21
Q

privity of estate

A

landlord and tenant’s successive right to possess the property (i.e., the tenant’s current right of possession is immediately followed by the landlord’s future right of possession).

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22
Q

Assignment (def and privity)

A

Assignment is a complete transfer of a tenant’s interest to a third party (assignee) for the remainder of the tenant’s lease term (as seen here)

  • the original tenant retains privity of contract and remains liable for all covenants in the lease (e.g., rent) and
  • the assignee gains privity of estate and becomes liable to the landlord for the rent and any other covenants in the lease that run with the lease.

(both original tenant and assignee are jointly and severally liable - landlord can cover from first and/or second but must try to mitigate)

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23
Q

If sublease - privity with landlord?

A

second tenant has privity of K and estate

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24
Q

Types of Tenancies (term)

A
  • Term of Years
  • Periodic Tenancy
  • Tenancy at will
  • Tenancy at sufferance
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25
Q

Term of years - creation, duration, termination

A

Agreement (ie, lease)

  • Fixed period (eg, one month, three years)
  • End of term (automatic)
  • Breach of certain covenants (eg, rent, habitability)
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26
Q

Periodic tenancy - creation, duration, termination

A
  • Agreement
  • Presumed when lease has no specified termination date
  • Operation of law (eg, holdover tenant)

Periodically renews until terminated

  • End of period (proper notice)
  • Breach of certain covenants
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27
Q

Tenancy at will - creation, duration, termination

A
  • Agreement
  • Implied when person allowed to possess premises without paying rent

Indefinite period
At any time (reasonable notice)

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28
Q

Tenancy at sufferance - creation, duration, termination

A

Implied when tenant keeps possession after lease expires (ie, holdover tenancy)

Continues until terminated

  • Landlord evicts
  • Tenant vacates
  • Landlord accepts rent (forms periodic tenancy)
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29
Q

Acquiring title by adverse possession

A

ECHO

Exclusive – physical presence on land not shared with owner

Continuous – presence is continuous & uninterrupted for statutory period

Hostile – possession is without owner’s consent

Open, notorious & actual – possession is apparent or visible to reasonable owner

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30
Q

for adverse posession, what if the land was slowly acquired bit by bit?

A

Possession of the land in question need not be acquired at a single time

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31
Q

Shelter Rule

A

Under the Shelter Rule, a person who receives a property interest from a BFP is entitled to the same protection under the recording act as the BFP.

This is true even if that person would not otherwise be protected by the recording act because the person acquired title to the property by gift, intestate succession, or devise (i.e. not bona-fide purchaser or recorded first)

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32
Q

In a race-notice jurisdiction, a purchaser has priority over another’s earlier property interest if the purchaser:

A

is bona fide (i.e., a BFP or innocent purchaser for value) because the purchaser obtained an interest in the property without notice of the earlier interest

and

recorded first.

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33
Q

estoppel by deed doctrine

A

Under the “estoppel by deed” doctrine, a grantor who conveys an interest in land by warranty deed before actually owning it is estopped from later denying the effectiveness of that deed. When the grantor acquires ownership of the land, the after-acquired title is transferred automatically to the prior grantee.

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34
Q

equitable servitude (def)

A

An equitable servitude is a promise to do or not do something on land that is enforceable at equity by injunction.

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35
Q

equitable servitude enforceable if:

A

if it meets the following requirements:

Writing – servitude is in a writing that satisfies the statute of frauds (here, the deed from the man to the developer)

Intent to run – promising parties intended for the servitude to bind their successors in interest (here, the deed says “heirs and assigns”)

Touch and concern – servitude relates to the use, enjoyment, or occupation of the dominant and servient estates (here, the servitude restricts land use to single-family residences)

Notice – person to be bound had actual, record, or inquiry notice of the servitude (here, the woman and subsequent purchasers have notice from the developer’s properly-recorded deed).

***However, it can only be enforced by the original parties or their successors in interest.

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36
Q

easement by necessity will be implied if there is …

A

Necessity – the dominant (benefited) estate is virtually useless without an easement across the servient (burdened) estate

Common ownership – the dominant and servient estates were under common ownership in the past (i.e., they were once a single tract of land)

Severance – the necessity arose when the land was severed and the dominant and servient estates were created

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37
Q

License definition

A

Revocable privilege to enter & use another’s land for limited, specific purpose

It is not an interest in the land - so licensee not entitled to comp if gov’t condemns (under power of eminent domain).

(NOT a profit or easement - which ARE nonpossessory interests in the land)

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38
Q

How is license created?

A

Orally, in writing, or by another act demonstrating licensor’s intent to create license

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39
Q

How is a license terminated?

A

A license is freely revocable—by the licensor, upon the death of either party, or upon conveyance of the licensed property—unless the licensee detrimentally relied on it or the license is coupled with an interest.

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40
Q

merger doctrine

A

Under the doctrine of merger, the seller’s duties in a contract for the sale of real property—including the duty to deliver marketable title—merge into the deed at closing. As a result, these duties are enforceable thereafter only if they are contained in the deed..

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41
Q

A majority of jurisdictions apply the doctrine of equitable conversion when a land-sale contract is silent regarding the risk of loss (as seen here). Under this doctrine, the risk of loss is placed on

A

on the party with equitable title (buyer) at the time the property was destroyed unless the other party is at fault for the loss.

The seller retains legal title to real property during the pendency of the sales contract (i.e., during the executory period - between contract formation and closing), but the buyer receives equitable title once the contract is formed and can be specifically enforced.*

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42
Q

Under the Uniform Vendor and Purchaser Risk Act (adopted by a minority of jurisdictions), who retains the risk of loss?

A

seller retains the risk of loss unless and until the buyer takes possession or title is transferred.

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43
Q

equitable conversion

A

Unless the land-sale contract states otherwise, the doctrine of equitable conversion places the risk of loss on the buyer once the contract is formed and can be specifically enforced.

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44
Q

mortgage (def)

A

A mortgage is an interest in real property given to a lender (mortgagee) to secure a debt.

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45
Q

The debtor (mortgagor) can freely transfer mortgaged property to a grantee unless the mortgage states otherwise.

After the transfer, the mortgage remains attached to the property and the debtor remains personally liable for the mortgage debt. But the grantee’s obligations depend on whether the grantee either:

A

took subject to the mortgage – in which case the grantee does not agree to pay and is not personally liable for the debt or

assumed the mortgage – in which case the grantee expressly agrees to pay and becomes personally liable for the debt, while the debtor becomes secondarily liable as a surety.

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46
Q

After defaulting on loan - can you regain title?

A

By equitable right and statutory right (if statute exists)

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47
Q

equity of redemption - timing and how exercise?

A

At any time prior to foreclosure sale

Pay full amount of debt due (including interest) to lender (*If the mortgage contains an acceleration clause, the debtor may have to pay the full amount of the outstanding debt (and any accrued interest) to exercise the equitable right of redemption)

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48
Q

statutory right of redemption - timing and how exercise?

A

if statute exists

Statutory period after property has been sold in foreclosure

Pay foreclosure sale price to purchasing party

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49
Q

deed in lieu of foreclosure

A

A deed conveying a mortgagor’s interest in the mortgaged property to a mortgagee in lieu of foreclosure allows the mortgagee to take immediate possession of the property without the formalities of a foreclosure sale.

(if the mortgagee accepts a deed in lieu of foreclosure without reserving the right to foreclose (as seen here), then its mortgage is extinguished. )

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50
Q

what happens to junior interests when deed in lieu of foreclosure?

A

Any junior interests remain attached to the property, and the mortgagee’s interest is extinguished unless it was reserved.

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51
Q

remainder (def)

A

a future interest in real property that is capable of becoming possessory upon the expiration of a life estate or term of years.

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52
Q

vested remainder

A

A remainder is a future interest in real property that is capable of becoming possessory upon the expiration of a life estate or term of years.

vested – not subject to any condition precedent AND held by an identifiable living person (e.g., “then to my son and daughter”)

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53
Q

Contingent remainder

A

subject to some condition precedent (other than the natural termination of the prior estate) OR held by an unknown or unborn person (e.g., “then to my heirs, but only if they survive my friend”).

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54
Q

A vested remainder is subject to complete divestment if

A

if the occurrence of a subsequent condition will eliminate the remainder interest (e.g., “then to my heirs; but if none survive my friend, then to my lawyer”).

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55
Q

fixture (def)

A

A fixture is a chattel (tangible personal property) that is (1) attached to real property in such a manner that it is treated as part of the real property for ownership and (2) used for some larger component or function of the land (e.g., a wall separating adjoining properties).

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56
Q

Liability for private nuisance arises when

A

the defendant’s interference with the plaintiff’s use and enjoyment of his/her property is both:

substantial – offensive, annoying, or intolerable to a normal person in the community

and

unreasonable – the severity of the plaintiff’s harm outweighs the utility of the defendant’s conduct.

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57
Q

Real covenants are enforceable by

A

money damages

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57
Q

Real covenants - req for burden to run

A

Writing (SoF)

Intent to run

Touch & concern (relates to the use, enjoyment, or occupation of the land)

Horizontal (promising parties simultaneously transfer the land and create the covenant ) & vertical privity (successors have an unbroken chain of ownership from the original parties)

Notice (person to be bound had actual, record, or inquiry notice of the covenant (required only if the person to be bound was a purchaser - NOT req if inherit))

WITHN

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57
Q

Real covenants - req for benefit to run

A

Writing
Intent to run
Touch & concern
Limited vertical privity
No notice required

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58
Q

equitable servitudes are enforceable by

A

equitable relief

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59
Q

Equitable servitudes - express - requirements

A

Writing
Intent to run
Touch & concern
Notice

(no privity)

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60
Q

Equitable servitudes - implied - requirements

A

Intent to create common scheme
Restrictive servitude (promise not to do something)
and
Notice (actual, record, or inquiry)

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61
Q

Implied Reciprocal Servitude

A

a kind of equitable servitude that is implied and need NOT be in writing.

Created by
- Dev must intend to create covenant on all plots in subdivision;
- promises must be reciprocal (benefits, burdens each and every parcel equally);
- must be negative rather than positive (i.e. must be restriction on owner’s use)
- successor must be on notice of restriction
- must be common plan or scheme

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62
Q

touch and concern the land

A

i.e., relate to the use, enjoyment, or occupation of the dominant and servient estates

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63
Q

Can a debtor transfer mortgaged land?

A

Yes - The debtor can freely transfer mortgaged land to a grantee unless the mortgage states otherwise.

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64
Q

if land conveyed, does mortgage stay with debtor or land? is debtor personally liable for debt?

A

land

the debtor remains personally liable for the debt secured by the mortgage.

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65
Q

if land with mortgage is conveyed, the grantee’s obligations depend on whether the grantee:

A

took subject to the mortgage (presumed) – in which case the grantee does not agree to pay and is not personally liable for the debt

or

assumed the mortgage – in which case the grantee expressly agrees to pay and becomes primarily liable for the debt, and the debtor becomes secondarily liable as a surety.

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66
Q

adverse possession req

A

OCEAN

Open and notorious – apparent or visible to a reasonable owner
Continuous – uninterrupted for the statutory period
Exclusive – not shared with the owner
Actual – physical presence on the land
Nonpermissive – hostile and adverse to the owner

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67
Q

for AP, is it nonpermissive if someone pays for a deed to the wrong place?

A

Yes - it’s nonpermissive if deed is not for the true owner’s place

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68
Q

for AP, nonpermissive, is adverse posessor’s state of mind assessed?

A

most jurisdictions only require that the possessor objectively demonstrate an intent to claim the land.

Some jurisdictions may require that the possessor subjectively believe that he/she has the legal right to possess the property.

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69
Q

SoL on AP exception

A

The statute of limitations for adverse possession will not run against a true owner afflicted with a disability (e.g., insanity, infancy, imprisonment) at the inception of the adverse possession until the disability is removed.

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70
Q

In a race-notice jurisdiction, a good-faith purchaser for value (BFP) has priority over an earlier competing property interest if

A

the BFP lacked notice of the earlier interest and recorded first.

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71
Q

Tenancy at will - how terminated?

A

A tenancy at will is a leasehold estate that has no specific term and continues so long as the landlord and the tenant desire. This tenancy can generally be terminated by the landlord or the tenant.

if only one party is expressly given the right to terminate the leasehold, the arrangement may be deemed unconscionable if, for example, the arrangement is unfair due to one party’s superior bargaining power. In such a case, both parties are given the ability to terminate the lease.

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72
Q

mortgage (def)

A

A mortgage is a lien on real property used to secure repayment of a debt.

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73
Q

A lender (mortgagee) may generally foreclose on a mortgage if the debtor (mortgagor)

A

defaults on the mortgage loan.

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74
Q

A foreclosure does what

A

terminates any interest in the foreclosed property that is junior (lower in priority) to the interest being foreclosed but does not affect any senior interest (higher in priority).

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75
Q

If no recording act, what rules?

A

CL: “first in time, first in right” rule is used to prioritize interests.

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76
Q

If “first in time, first in right” is in effect, can a lower priority lender foreclose on debtor?

A

Yes - however the senior mortgage will remain attached to the property.

A foreclosure on mortgaged property terminates interests in that property that are junior to the foreclosed interest but does not affect any senior interests.

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77
Q

A third-party owner of subsurface rights is strictly liable for

A

any failure to support the land and buildings that predate the conveyance of those rights, provided that the damage would have occurred in the land’s natural state (i.e. building did not contribute to the subsidence).

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78
Q

Failing to record a mortgage can affect the bank’s…

A

…rights in the house with respect to other creditors

(prob incomplete)

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79
Q

Novation

A

A novation is the substitution of a new contract for an old one when a party to the original contract agrees to release the other party and substitute a new one.

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80
Q

exoneration-of-liens doctrine

A

CL only - most states abolished (most states, payment of an encumbrance on devised real property is required only if the will so specifies.)

applies when a devisee (the son) receives a specific devise of real property (the house) that is subject to an encumbrance (e.g., mortgage, lien). Under this doctrine, the devisee is entitled to pay off any encumbrances on that property—including a purchase-money mortgage—from the remaining assets in the testator’s estate (even if remaining assets were separately left to daughter).

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81
Q

Doctrines affecting conveyance by will

A

Lapse

Ademption

Exoneration

Abatement

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82
Q

Lapse

A

(Doctrines affecting conveyance by will)

Causes devise to fail if beneficiary dies before testator (unless the testator indicates a clear intent that the devise is to survive the beneficiary’s death). If the devise fails, the lapsed gift will become part of the residuary estate.

Every state has an anti-lapse statute (goes to fam member)

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83
Q

Ademption

A

(Doctrines affecting conveyance by will)

Causes devise to fail by either:

extinction – specifically devised property not owned by testator (or destroyed or fundamentally changed) at death

satisfaction – beneficiary received devised property (or other asset intended to satisfy devise) during testator’s life

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84
Q

Exoneration

A

(Doctrines affecting conveyance by will)

Allows beneficiary of specifically devised real property to use estate’s remaining assets to pay off any encumbrances on that property

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85
Q

Abatement

A

Reduces devises that cannot be satisfied by assets remaining after testator’s debts are paid

Residuary devises abated first, followed by general & then specific devises

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86
Q

Classification of devises
(conveyance by will)

A
  • Specific (specifically identified asset)
  • General (often of money - payable from general assets of estate… “$2,000 to my daughter” “one-half of my estate to my son”)
  • Demonstrative (Devise primarily payable from designated source, but secondarily payable from general assets - “$2,000 to my daughter out of my bank account”)
  • Residuary (what’s left after above)
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87
Q

Wild, uncultivated crops - personal property or real property? What happens at transfer?

A

Real property

Pass automatically with land

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88
Q

Planted, cultivated crops - personal property or real property? What happens at transfer?

A

Personal property

Pass with land except* when:

  • harvested – severed from land
  • ripe – mature and therefore deemed constructively severed from the land (some courts)
  • planted by tenant with indefinite leasehold or
  • planted by adverse possessor under claim of right

(*Then prior owner has right to reenter land to remove crops.)

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89
Q

doctrine of emblements

A

a tenant has a right to reenter the land to remove, harvest, and cultivate crops planted prior to the termination of his/her tenancy (if termination is not the tenant’s fault). Adverse possessors have the same rights as a tenant.

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90
Q

The doctrine of ademption by extinction causes a devise of a specific asset to fail if a testator does not own it at the time of death. Proceeds from the sale of the asset, or property purchased with those proceeds, then become…

A

part of the general estate.

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91
Q

Lien theory state: The mortgagee/lender cannot take possession until

A

foreclosure is complete

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92
Q

Title theory state: when can mortgagee/lender take possession?

A

Lender technically has right (as holder of title) to posess the property at any time

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93
Q

Intermediate title theory state: when can mortgagee/lender take possession?

A

A minority of jurisdictions modify the title theory.

Mortgagee can take possession at default

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94
Q

valid deed req

A

Written

signed by the Grantor (or authorized agent),

Identify the grantor and the grantee

contain Words of transfer, and

Property description (identify the land with reasonable certainty)

Mnemonic: Will Grant Interest When Proper

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95
Q

When is a transfer of property effective?

A

An inter vivos transfer of property by a deed is effective when the grantor delivers it and the grantee accepts it.

In contrast, a will is not effective until the grantor dies—regardless of when it was executed.

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96
Q

Transfer of deed to third party

Grantor’s agent

A

Transfer treated as if grantor retained deed, even when grantor instructs agent to deliver deed to grantee at some future time or upon happening of some event

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97
Q

Transfer of deed to third party

Grantee’s agent

A

Transfer treated as if it was made directly to grantee

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98
Q

Transfer of deed to third party

Independent third party

A

Transfer made with condition placed on transfer to grantee:
- if grantor retains absolute right to recover deed, no transfer
- if grantor does not, present transfer treated as present gift that cannot be voided OR conditional transfer creates future interest in grantee

Transfer conditioned on death of grantor (death escrow):
- effective if grantor intends to make present gift
- ineffective if grantor intends that gift be effective only upon grantor’s death

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99
Q

The farmer’s deed expressed his present intent to “now transfer my farm” because it was delivered to the neighbor (independent third party) with no right to take it back. When is transfer effective?

A

if son is presumed to have accepted this beneficial gift, the transfer was effective when the deed was delivered to the neighbor

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100
Q

Mortgage alternatives

A
  • Absolute deed (Debtor gives deed to creditor with intent to secure loan (ie, equitable mortgage))
  • Deed of trust (Debtor gives deed of trust to third-party trustee as collateral for debt, & creditor can instruct trustee to foreclose upon default)
  • Installment land contract (Debtor agrees to buy land through installment payments & gets immediate possession, but seller keeps legal title until paid in full)
  • Sale-leaseback (Seller leases property from buyer immediately after sale, & seller’s rental payments function as repayments on loan)
  • Equitable vendor’s lien (Seller finances buyer’s purchase with equitable vendor’s lien when seller transfers title to buyer but purchase price not fully paid)

ADISE
Alternative drummer is so edgy

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101
Q

an absolute deed—one that transfers title free of all liens and encumbrances—given with the intent to secure a debt is generally enforceable as an equitable mortgage. Exception:

A

competing equities (e.g., good-faith purchaser) take precedence over an equitable mortgage.

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102
Q

deed

A

a legal instrument that transfers ownership of real property from the owner (grantor) to another (grantee).

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103
Q

Transfer by deed req

A
  1. Essential components
  2. Delivery
  3. Acceptance
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104
Q

Valid delivery (deed)

A

a. Grantor’s present intent to transfer title
b. Presumed upon:
- physical delivery of deed
- recording
- unconditional delivery to agent
- grantee’s possession of property/deed

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105
Q

accepted by the grantee – presumed if

A

the transfer is beneficial to the grantee.

ex: And the daughter is presumed to have accepted this beneficial gift when it was recorded, even though she died before knowing of it

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106
Q

joint tenancy - four unities

A

PITT

Possession – tenants share an equal right to possess or use the property

Interest – tenants have an equal interest in the property

Time – property interests simultaneously vest in all tenants

Title – property interests received in the same instrument of conveyance

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107
Q

a joint tenancy ____ be devised by will or inherited through intestate succession.

A

cannot

(bc right of survivorship)

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108
Q

a tenancy in common ____ be devised or inherited.

A

can

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109
Q

Ways to terminate easements

A

DAMPER
- Destruction – servient estate condemned or destroyed by natural forces
- Abandonment - dominant estate abandons easement
- Merger - dominant & servient estates united in common ownership
- Prescription - servient owner prevents use for prescriptive period
- Estoppel - dominant owner estopped from asserting easement
- Release - express release in writing satisfying statute of frauds

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110
Q

Ways to terminate covenants

A

A covenant can be terminated in the same manner as an easement (DAMPER)

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111
Q

Abandonment

A

(terminates covenant or easement)

Abandonment occurs when an affirmative act—something more than neglect or nonuse—shows a clear intent to relinquish the covenant.

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112
Q

A restriction on property will not be enforced when…

A

drastic changes in the surrounding area render the restriction meaningless or absurd

(prob not complete)

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113
Q

purchase-money mortgage

A

A PMM is a mortgage granted to the seller of real property if the mortgage is given as part of the same transaction in which title is acquired

PMM can also arise when loan proceeds are used to construct improvements on the real property if the mortgage is given as part of the same transaction in which title is acquired.

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114
Q

Lien priority on real property

A

Purchase-money mortgage (super priority over all other liens that arose before the PMM—regardless of whether the PMM or those liens were recorded)

First recorded liens (sr priority)

All other recorded liens (jr priority)

Unrecorded liens (lowest priority)

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115
Q

installment land contract

A

(i.e., contract for deed) is a contract under which the seller retains title to the property until the buyer makes the final payment under an installment plan.

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116
Q

Installment land K - Traditionally, a buyer who missed a single payment was deemed to have defaulted on the contract, and the seller could keep all prior installment payments and take back the property.

Today, states handle a buyer’s failure to pay …

A

in one of three ways:

Allow the seller to retain ownership of the property but require some form of restitution to the buyer

Offer the buyer an equitable right of redemption—i.e., the buyer can keep the property by paying the full balance of the installment contract at any time prior to the foreclosure sale

Treat the installment land contract as a mortgage, so the seller must foreclose to gain title to the property and the buyer has an equitable right of redemption and other protections

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117
Q

In a jurisdiction that treats an installment land contract like a mortgage, a buyer in default may redeem the property by

A

tendering to the owner the full balance due under the contract prior to foreclosure.

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118
Q

two types of partition:

A

In kind – physical division of the property into distinct lots that are proportionate to each cotenant’s ownership interest

By sale – forced sale of the property where the proceeds are divided in accordance with each cotenant’s ownership interest

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119
Q

preferred partition by cts

A

Courts prefer to make a partition in kind.

But when physical division of the land is impossible, impracticable, or inequitable, a court will grant a partition by sale.

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120
Q

Voluntary partition allowed for what kind of tenancies?

A

All - Tenancy in common, joint tenancy, tenancy by the entirety

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121
Q

Involuntary partition (unilateral) allowed for what kind of tenancies?

A

Tenancy in common, joint tenancy,

but NOT tenancy by the entirety

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122
Q

can a buyer that assumes a mortgage as part of the purchase price raise defenses the original debtor could have raised?

A

NO. A buyer who assumed a mortgage as part of the purchase price may not raise defenses—e.g., duress, statute of limitations, lack of legal capacity—that the debtor could have raised to avoid the mortgage obligation. Otherwise, the buyer would be unjustly enriched.

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123
Q

Rule of Convenience

A

The Rule of Convenience prevents the Rule Against Perpetuities from being applied to class gifts by closing class membership when any member of the class is entitled to immediate (present) possession of a share in the class gift.

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124
Q

Shelter Rule

A

a donee who receives property from a grantor protected by a recording act will receive the same protection as the grantor under the recording act.

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125
Q

Available negative easements

A

Common Law:
- light
- air
- support
- water access

Modern view:
- view
- solar access
- conservation

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126
Q

Landowners can only restrict another’s blockage of light if…

A

if they are protected by statute or enter into an agreement with the neighboring landowner to create a negative easement

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127
Q

do courts recognize blockage of light as a nuisance?

A

But courts generally decline to recognize blockage of light as a private (or public) nuisance unless the blockage was motivated by malice

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128
Q

option contract for the purchase of real property is formed when

A

one party (the option holder) receives the exclusive right to purchase the property (i.e., “exercise the option”) during a specified time period in exchange for consideration. Under an option contract:

  • the grantor cannot revoke the option during the specified time period
  • the option does not terminate upon the death or incapacity of the grantor
    and
  • the option holder can make a “counteroffer” without losing the right to exercise the option
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129
Q

Does mailbox rule apply to options?

A

No. grantor must receive the option holder’s decision to exercise the option within the time period specified in the contract.

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130
Q

An equitable servitude can also be implied from a common scheme if there is:

A

Intent to create common scheme – the owner intended to impose a servitude on all lots in the subdivision (here, the deeds to most of the lots contained a two-story height restriction)

Restrictive servitude – the intended servitude is a promise not to do something on land (here, a promise not to build a three-story residence)

Notice – the person to be bound by the servitude had actual, record, or inquiry notice of the servitude (here, the speculator received actual notice through the rancher’s letter, and the couple had inquiry notice because no three-story residences were on the other lots)

**Nevertheless, if the common scheme arose after some of the lots were already sold, then the previously sold lots will not be incorporated into the common scheme or subject to the implied equitable servitude. Since the rancher’s scheme was created after the lot was sold to the speculator, neither the speculator nor the couple is subject to the implied equitable servitude.

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131
Q

Implied equitable servitudes typically arise in planned subdivisions and are also referred to as

A

implied reciprocal servitudes, mutual rights of enforcement, and reciprocal negative servitudes.

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132
Q

A grantee who assumes the mortgage expressly agrees to pay and becomes primarily liable for the debt, while the original debtor becomes secondarily liability as a surety. This gives the lender the right to sue….

A

either party upon default, and the original debtor can recover any amount paid from the grantee.

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133
Q

“due on sale”

A

due on sale clause allows a lender to demand full payment of any remaining mortgage debt if the debtor transfers the mortgaged property without the lender’s written consent.

If this clause is waived, the debtor remains liable on the note—even after transferring the mortgaged property—until the debtor is released by the lender.

134
Q

Defects rendering title unmarketable

A
  • Future interest if future-interest holder has not agreed to transfer title
  • Private encumbrance (eg, mortgage, covenant, option, easement, lease, liens)
  • Significant physical defect (eg, incurable encroachment)
  • Title acquired by adverse possession & not quieted by judicial decree
  • Zoning-ordinance violation

FEPAZ
Frozen Elsa Planking Around Zillow

Other red flags: gaps in chain of title, boundary disputes

135
Q

future interest that follows a life estate is called

A

a reversion (if title reverts to the grantor) or a remainder (if it passes to someone other than the grantor)

136
Q

defeasible life estate

A

a life estate that may be terminated upon the death of an individual OR by the occurrence of a stated event (e.g., “to my companion for life or until she vacates the premises”).

137
Q

future interest that follows a defeasible life estate

A

a reversion (if the estate reverts to the grantor) or an executory interest (if the estate passes to a third party)

If title passes to someone other than the grantor when the present interest terminates, then the estate is followed by a remainder and an executory interest.

138
Q

when can future interests be transferred?

A

These future interests may be transferred during life or upon death.

139
Q

In most jurisdictions, possession is hostile if

A

the possessor objectively demonstrates an intent to claim the land—regardless of the possessor’s subjective intent.

140
Q

a minority of jurisdictions does consider the adverse possessor’s ______ intent.

A

subjective

Some of these jurisdictions require that the intent be based on the possessor’s good-faith belief that he/she has the legal right to possession, while others require that the intent be based on bad faith (i.e., aggressive trespass).

141
Q

A person who acquires property by adverse possession can only transfer ownership of the property by

A

deed—not by oral agreement or by simply removing a trespassing structure.

142
Q

Foreclosure methods

A

Judicial sale (all states): Judicially supervised public sale of mortgaged property

Nonjudicial sale (half of all states):
Privately conducted public sale of mortgaged property (permitted only if mortgage contains power-of-sale clause)

Strict foreclosure (few states): Foreclosure without sale of mortgaged property

143
Q

foreclosure conducted by a judicially supervised sale - requirements

A

the foreclosing mortgagee (lender):

  1. must give notice to the holders of any junior interests in the property so that they can participate or send a representative—otherwise, the junior-interest holder’s interest will remain after the sale
  2. may, but need not, join others who have an interest in the property (e.g., senior-mortgage holder) or are liable on the debt (e.g., guarantor) as proper, but not necessary, parties
144
Q

exceptions to doctrine of merger

A

obligations that are collateral to and independent of the conveyance (e.g., the seller’s obligation to remove his/her personal property prior to closing) are usually not subject to the doctrine of merger.

(might not be comprehensive)

145
Q

nonrecourse loan - what happens when due-on-sale clause is triggered

A

borrower (mortgagor) does not have personal liability for the loan and is not liable for any deficiency. However, the bank can still enforce its mortgage through foreclosure

146
Q

Due-on-sale clause

(common exceptions to enforceability)

A

for residential property (Fewer than 5 dwelling units)

  • Devise, descent, or transfer to joint tenant upon death
  • Transfer to spouse or child
  • Transfer to ex-spouse in divorce
  • Transfer to borrower’s living trust
  • Creation of subordinate lien without occupancy rights
  • Granting leasehold interest of less than 3 years without option to purchase
147
Q

vested remainder subject to open

A

If at least one but not all members of the class receive a vested remainder at the time of the conveyance, then that vested remainder is subject to open.

148
Q

Rule Against Perpetuities

A

voids specific contingent future interests unless they must vest or fail within 21 years after the end of a relevant life in being when the interest was created.

149
Q

“bad as to one, bad as to all” rule

A

RAP

if a future interest is transferred to a class and RAP voids the transfer to any member of that class, then the transfer is void as to all class members

150
Q

Restraints on alienation

A

Direct restraints are disfavored.
- Only valid if reasonable
Balance utility of restraint against harm resulting from enforcement
- ex: Prohibiting some or all types of transfers, Prohibiting transfer without consent, Prohibiting transfer to particular persons

Indirect restraints are valid unless lacking rational justification
- ex: Imposing transfer fees;
Limiting property’s use/reducing its value

151
Q

Right of first refusal

A

indirect restraint on alienation

Such a provision is valid if it complies with the statute of frauds—i.e., is in a writing that is signed by the party to be charged contains all essential terms—

and

its terms are reasonable.

152
Q

express easement arises when

A

it is affirmatively created by the parties in a writing that complies with the statute of frauds (e.g., a deed).

153
Q

Easement holder’s use of express easement - how use and expansion allowed?

A

Uses intended by parties OR reasonably necessary to use/enjoy easement if intent is unknown

Expansion of use permitted

154
Q

Easement holder’s use of easement by prior use - how use and expansion allowed?

A

Limited to scope of prior use

No expansion of use

155
Q

Easement holder’s use of easement by necessity - how use and expansion allowed?

A

Normal uses needed for dominant estate (eg, ingress/egress, utility lines)

Expansion of use permitted

156
Q

Easement holder’s use of prescriptive easement - how use and expansion allowed?

A

Limited to scope of adverse use during prescriptive period

No expansion of use

157
Q

An easement also anticipates reasonable and natural development of the easement holder’s land (i.e., the dominant estate). Therefore, the easement holder may increase ________ as long as _________

A

An easement holder may increase the manner, frequency, or intensity of an easement’s use so long as that increase does not unreasonably damage or interfere with the use or enjoyment of the servient estate.

158
Q

If increased use of easement was excessive (unreasonably damaged or interfered with the owner’s servient estate), available remedies:

A

self-help abatement (e.g., blocking off the easement), damages, or an injunction—not termination of the easement.

159
Q

The closing date will be strictly enforced when:

A

the contract specifically states that “time is of the essence”

circumstances indicate that it was the parties’ intention to strictly adhere to the closing date

or

one party gives the other party notice that time is of the essence within a reasonable time prior to closing.

160
Q

If time is not of the essence and a party can’t close on closing date, is it a breach? is it grounds to rescind the K?

A

Yes and is liable at law for incidental losses (e.g., taxes, interest)

BUT a party’s failure to perform on the closing date is not grounds to rescind the contract so long as the party can perform within a reasonable time thereafter.

161
Q

is a right of entry alienable during life?

A

Yes

A fee simple subject to a condition subsequent (FSSCS) is created through specific conditional language—e.g., “but if,” “unless,” “provided that.” Upon the occurrence of the condition, the grantor (or his/her successor in interest) has the right to enter and terminate the estate if the grantor explicitly retained this “right of entry” (aka “power of termination”) in the conveyance.

162
Q

fee simple subject to a condition subsequent is terminated, future interets?

A

Right of entry

Upon the occurrence of the stated condition, the FSSCS will terminate only if the holder of the right of entry affirmatively demonstrates an intent to terminate—e.g., by bringing an eviction action.

163
Q

A foreclosure sale eliminates…

A

the mortgagor’s interest in the property

the mortgage interest being foreclosed upon

any junior interests attached to the property (not senior!)

164
Q

Types of notice for notice recording act jx:

A

Actual – the purchaser has actual knowledge of a prior interest in the property

Constructive (i.e., record) – a document showing that a prior interest has been recorded appears in the purchaser’s chain of title

Inquiry – the purchaser knows, or should know, of circumstances that would prompt a reasonable person to investigate

165
Q

Bona Fide Purchaser - meaning and examples

A

Payment of value

Yes:
- Release of existing debt
- Substantial amount not grossly inadequate in relation to property interest’s value

No:
- Security for existing debt (e.g. judgment creditors)
- Nominal payment (eg, $1)
- Recital of consideration in deed
- Gift, devise, or inheritance

166
Q

Unless the lease states otherwise, a landlord may assign his/her rights under the lease to a third party (i.e., assignee-landlord) without the tenant’s consent.

The assignee-landlord (second landlord) can then enforce covenants (i.e., promises) when….

A

The assignee-landlord can then enforce covenants (i.e., promises) in the lease that run with the land.* A covenant runs with the land when:

  • the original parties intended to bind successors in interest (e.g., assignee-landlord) - even if not explicitly stated
  • the covenant touches and concerns the land—i.e., affects the land’s use or value and
  • the assignee-landlord is in privity of estate with the tenant—i.e., a mutual or successive relationship in the same property interest.
167
Q

Rights of first refusal subject to RAP?

A

Yes. this contingent future interest is void if it there is any possibility that it could vest more than 21 years after some relevant life in being at the creation of the interest.

168
Q

RAP applies to:

A

contingent future interests—–
- contingent remainder
- vested remainder subject to open
- executory interest
- power of appointment
- right of first refusal
- option

Interest must vest or fail within 21 years after some relevant life in being at creation of interest

169
Q

Requirements for valid deed

A

Writing
Grantor’s signature
Identity of parties
Words of transfer
Property description

Mnemonic: Will Grant Interest When Proper

170
Q

Effect of mortgage on joint tenancy - lien theory (who gets what and what happens to joint tenancy?)

A

Lender receives security interest in property but title stays with tenant-mortgagor

Severed upon foreclosure sale & converted to tenancy in common

171
Q

Effect of mortgage on joint tenancy - title theory (who gets what and what happens to joint tenancy?)

A

Lender receives legal title to property & tenant-mortgagor retains right of possession

Immediately severed when mortgage is given & converted to tenancy in common

172
Q

can a joint tenant grant a mortgage?

A

in his/her own joint-tenancy interest without the other joint tenant’s consent, but the mortgage will attach only to the mortgaging tenant’s interest

Whether the joint tenancy remains intact depends on the jurisdiction (lien theory is maj, title theory is min)

173
Q

what if one of two joint tenants grants a mortgage to a bank for a loan and then dies? who owns the land?

A

If this jurisdiction followed the lien theory, the joint tenancy would have remained intact after the farmer mortgaged her interest. And due to the right of survivorship, her joint-tenancy interest—and any mortgage attached to that interest—would have disappeared upon her death.

Title theory: bank can foreclose bc joint tenancy was severed when mortgage was given (converted to TIC at time of mortgage given)

174
Q

What sitch does property go to state when one dies?

A

If the decedent has no will that disposes of the property and no heirs upon his/her death, then the property will revert to the state (i.e., escheat).

175
Q

doctrine of _____ permits a court to reform a charitable trust when the specific purpose for which it was created becomes impossible, impracticable, or illegal to carry out.

A

cy pres

176
Q

presumption if not clear tenancy in common or joint tenancy?

A

TIC

In most states, there is a rebuttable presumption that a conveyance of property to two or more persons as joint owners creates a tenancy in common rather than a joint tenancy.

The modern trend focuses on the intent of the parties if the language creating the tenancy is unclear

177
Q

language that limits the purpose of the transfer (e.g., “for the purpose of”) creates

A

a fee simple absolute

178
Q

Defeasible fees are limited by

A

specific durational or conditional language (e.g., “so long as,” “but if”)

179
Q

recording acts - notice.. definition of constructive notice

A

(i.e. record)

when a prior interest was properly recorded in the land records

and

appears in the property’s chain of title

180
Q

grantor-grantee recording index

A

Most jurisdictions follow the grantor-grantee recording index (default rule), where recorded documents are organized by names of parties to a conveyance, while a minority of jurisdictions use a tract indexing system.

181
Q

wild deed

A

A recorded deed that is not found within the chain of title is called a “wild deed”

and fails to give constructive notice to subsequent purchasers

182
Q

In a majority of jurisdictions (including this one), the seller of a residence has a duty to

A

A seller of residential property has a duty to disclose any known material defects—i.e., defects that (1) substantially affect the value of the residence, (2) impact the health or safety of a resident, or (3) affect the desirability of the residence to the buyer—that cannot be reasonably discovered by the buyer.

(value, health/safety, desirability)

183
Q

If the seller of a residence fails to make proper disclosures, then the buyer may

A

rescind the sale or seek damages.

184
Q

Covenants of title

A

(warranty & special warranty deeds)

Present covenants (breached at time of conveyance)
- Seisin (Grantor owns interest being conveyed)
- Right to convey (Grantor has legal right to convey interest)
- Against encumbrances (No encumbrances (eg, easements, mortgages) against interest conveyed)

Future covenants (breached upon interference with possession)
- Warranty (Grantor will defend & compensate grantee for lawful claims made against grantee’s title)
- Quiet enjoyment (Grantee’s possession & enjoyment will not be disturbed by another’s lawful claim of title)
- Further assurances (Grantor will take any actions reasonably necessary to perfect grantee’s title)

185
Q

Common mortgage provisions

A

Acceleration clause

Due-on-sale clause

Due-on-encumbrance clause

Defeasance clause

186
Q

Acceleration clause

A

Common mortgage provision

Allows creditor to demand entire loan due & payable if debtor defaults

187
Q

Due-on-sale clause

A

Common mortgage provision

Allows creditor to demand entire loan due & payable if debtor sells mortgaged property without permission

188
Q

Due-on-encumbrance clause

A

Common mortgage provision

Allows creditor to accelerate mortgage obligation if debtor obtains second mortgage or otherwise encumbers property

189
Q

Defeasance clause

A

Common mortgage provision

Requires creditor to give debtor legal title to property & release mortgage lien once all payments are made

190
Q

is a joint tenancy devisable?

A

No

191
Q

is a tenancy in common devisable?

A

yes

192
Q

A lifetime conveyance of a joint-tenancy interest has what effect on a joint-tenancy with three people?

A

destroys unity of title and severs the joint tenancy with respect to that interest.

If there are more than two joint tenants, then severing one tenant’s interest does not affect the joint tenancy between the remaining tenants.

193
Q

Which transfer is void: transfer of mortgage without note or transfer of note without mortgage?

A

Transfer of mortgage without note (tho jx split as to effect of transfer)

194
Q

Which transfer is auto: note followed by mortgage or mortgage followed by note?

A

A promissory note can be assigned to another (an assignee) independent of the mortgage. The mortgage automatically transfers with the note once the note has been properly assigned (unless the parties agree otherwise)

195
Q

how assign negotiable promissory note

A

A negotiable promissory note can be assigned by simply endorsing and delivering the note to the assignee.

196
Q

how assign nonnegotiable promissory note?

A

a nonnegotiable promissory note requires a separate assignment document to transfer ownership.

197
Q

doctrine of equitable conversion

A

Under the doctrine of equitable conversion, a buyer receives equitable title to real property upon entering a land-sale contract. In contrast, the seller retains legal title and acquires the equitable right to receive the purchase price upon closing.

Due to the doctrine of equitable conversion, a judgment obtained against a seller after the execution of a land-sale contract is not enforceable against the real property—even if the claim arose before the contract was executed.

198
Q

a judgment obtained against the seller after the execution of the land-sale contract ____ enforceable against the real property

A

a judgment obtained against the seller after the execution of the land-sale contract IS NOT enforceable against the real property—even if the claim arose before the contract was executed.

199
Q

between K formation and closing is the executory period - who owns what during that period?

A

Seller has legal title to property (and acquires the equitable right to receive the purchase price upon closing)

Buyer has equitable title to property

200
Q

deed requirements: identifies grantor & grantee

A

Separate grantor & grantee (except concurrent estates)

Identifiable by name or description

CANNOT be ambiguous, unidentifiable, nonexistent grantee

201
Q

deed requirements: identifies land

A

Identifiable by reasonable certainty—eg:
Government survey
Metes & bounds
Street, lot, house number

CANNOT be Ambiguous description (but extrinsic evidence admissible);
CANNOT be Undefined part of larger parcel

202
Q

deed requirements: words of transfer examples

A

“Convey”
“Transfer”
“Grant”
“Sell”

NOT lease, rent, license

203
Q

is a contingent remainder transferable?

A

generally yes

204
Q

If time is of the essence and the seller cannot deliver marketable title on the date of closing, then the seller is in breach and the buyer can

A

rescind the contract. This is true even if the seller can correct the issue within a reasonable time after closing.

205
Q

A deed is a legal instrument that transfers ownership of real property from the owner (grantor) to another (grantee). The transfer is effective once the deed is:

A

delivered by the grantor – demonstrated by the grantor’s intent to make a present transfer of the property and

accepted by the grantee – presumed when the transfer is beneficial to the grantee.

206
Q

The grantor typically manifests the intent to presently transfer the property by physically handing over or mailing the deed to the grantee or the grantee’s agent. However, the intent to transfer can also

A

be implied from the grantor’s words or other conduct (e.g. The farmer signed and notarized the deed and then started to deliver it to the friend before stopping for lunch)

207
Q

Delivery of deed is presumed upon

A

physical delivery of deed
recording
unconditional delivery to agent
grantee’s possession of property/deed

(can be implied from words or conduct! it’s about grantor’s present intent to transfer)

208
Q

The right to subjacent support

A

support from beneath the surface of land—arises when the owner of land grants the right to mine minerals to a third party.

209
Q

Owner of mineral rights - when strictly liable and when liable to surface owner?

A

when acquired mineral rights matters

strictly liable to the surface owner for any failure to support the land and any buildings that existed on the land at the time the mineral rights were conveyed (provided that the damage would have occurred in the land’s natural state) or

liable for negligence for any damage to improvements built after the mineral rights were conveyed.

210
Q

A deed that names a nonexistent grantee is

A

void

211
Q

if a nonexistent grantee was conveyed an interest in a tenancy in common (of two people), then the ____ would retain the nonexistent cotenant’s interest and have a _____

A

grantor

tenancy in common with the other cotenant(s) named in the deed.

(Since the buyer paid the full purchase price, she can likely recoup one-half of the purchase price from the original owner in an unjust enrichment action.)

212
Q

Duties of mortgagor (e.g. debtor)

A

A mortgagor (e.g., debtor) in possession of the mortgaged property has a duty not to commit waste that would impair the mortgagee’s (e.g., lender’s) security interest in that property.

(prob not conclusive)

213
Q

waste

A

Waste occurs when, for example, the mortgagor fails to maintain or repair the property in a reasonable manner.

214
Q

States that follow the title theory of mortgages typically ____ a deficiency action after a nonjudicial foreclosure sale.

A

disallow

215
Q

nonrecourse loan

A

a loan secured by collateral, but for which the borrower is not personally liable.

216
Q

When foreclosure sale proceeds are insufficient to satisfy the mortgage obligation, many jurisdictions allow the mortgagee to seek

A

a deficiency judgment against a party who is personally liable for the loan.

(not personally liable if nonrecourse loan)

217
Q

what if mortgagor in possession of mortgaged property commits waste?

A

If the mortgagor breaches this duty, the mortgagee can recover damages for the impairment.

218
Q

All contracts for the sale of land have an implied warranty that

A

the seller will convey marketable title to the buyer upon closing unless otherwise stated. To be marketable, title must be reasonably free from doubt and under no threat of litigation, such that a reasonable person would accept and pay for it.

219
Q

If the seller cannot convey marketable title (e.g., due to a zoning violation), the buyer can

A

rescind the contract and refuse to close.

The buyer can also choose to accept the land with the defect and enforce the contract. If the seller refuses to perform, then the buyer can:
- rescind the contract and seek restitution
- seek specific performance with an abatement of the purchase price (e.g. compensate for defect - zoning violation)
or
-sue for damages.

220
Q

doctrine of subrogation - there’s an owner that sells to two people (tenants in common; take subject to) and owner later defaults. One of the tenants pays debt in full bc of bank threatening foreclosure… can they recover from other tenant? former owner?

A

Under the doctrine of subrogation, a third party (subrogee) who pays another’s mortgage loan in full becomes the owner of the loan and the mortgage securing that loan to the extent necessary to prevent unjust enrichment.

This means that the subrogee may seek reimbursement from the debtor (the former owner) or enforce the mortgage.

Therefore, the manager can enforce the mortgage against the bookkeeper (other co-tenant)’s one-half interest in the store to recover the bookkeeper’s share of necessary expenses. (The manager and the bookkeeper own the store as tenants in common with equal ownership interests. Since they did not assume the mortgage (they took subject to it), they are not liable for the mortgage debt. But as cotenants, the manager and the bookkeeper still owe each other a duty to pay their proportionate share of necessary expenses. Here, a necessary expense arose when the bank threated to foreclose on the mortgage and the manager paid the owner’s debt in full to prevent the foreclosure.)

221
Q

first-in-time, first-in-right rule

A

CL (if no recording statute)

Under this default rule, you don’t need to ask who paid value, who recorded when, or who had notice. In other words, the first taker wins, full stop.

222
Q

why would a donee who doesn’t get protection of recording act, record?

A

You are correct that donees are not protected by recording statutes because they are not “subsequent purchasers.” But this does not mean that all donees automatically lose to subsequent purchasers. Instead, it just means that a donee cannot use the recording act to shield their claim against a prior taker. However, if a donee records their own interest, they can deprive subsequent purchasers of the opportunity to record first or take the property without notice of the donee’s interest. When a donee immediately records their interest, even though they can’t claim protection under the recording act, they essentially knock the recording act shield out of the next claimant’s hands. When that happens, since no one can claim protection under the recording act, the first taker wins.

223
Q

Delivery is not presumed when a grantor keeps the deed. Under those circumstances, _________ of the grantor must evidence an intent to make a present transfer of the property interest.

A

the outward and visible acts

224
Q

A purchase-money mortgage is granted to the seller or a third-party lender when

A

(1) the loan proceeds are used to acquire title to or construct improvements on the property and (2) the mortgage is given as part of the same transaction in which title is acquired.

225
Q

Is a mortgage subject to the same defenses as underlying obligation/debt secured by that mortgage?

A

Yes.

226
Q

when mortgaged property is transferred to a donee, the donee _______ entitled to assert the donor-mortgagor’s defenses against the mortgagee-lender. A purchaser who assumes an existing mortgage obligation as part of the purchase price _______ assert the donor-mortgagor’s defenses.

A

IS

MAY NOT

227
Q

life estate pur autre vie

A

life state measured by the life of someone other than the current holder of the life estate (e.g. transferred from someone with a life estate)

228
Q

life estate benefit and duty

A

life tenant has the right to all rents and income during the tenancy.

also has a duty to pay current charges that become due (e.g., property taxes, mortgage interest) unless the document creating the life estate provides otherwise.
- This duty is limited to the amount of income that can be generated from the land.

(not comprehensive prob)

229
Q

under _________, an adverse possessor may tack on the predecessor’s time if ____________.

A

Under the doctrine of tacking, an adverse possessor may tack on the predecessor’s time if there is privity between successive adverse possessors.

230
Q

in adverse possession, tacking on predecessor’s time requires privity - between who and what requirements are there?

A

privity is satisfied if the possessor takes by nonhostile means (e.g., by descent, devise, contract, deed).

231
Q

Maj / min rules for risk of loss under real estate K

A

Maj: doctrine of equitable conversion and place the risk of loss on the buyer during the executory period (true regardless of actual posession)
- about when buyer gets legal title

Min: Uniform Vendor and Purchaser Risk Act. Under this act, the risk of loss remains with the seller until the buyer takes possession of or receives legal title to the property.
- about when buyer gets either legal title or possession

232
Q

absolute deed - also called

A

equitable mortgage

232
Q

An equitable mortgage can be established when a debtor gives ________ to a lender with the intent to secure a loan

A

An equitable mortgage can be established when a debtor gives an absolute deed—i.e., a deed that is free of encumbrances and transfers unrestricted title to property—to a lender with the intent to secure a loan.

The debtor-grantor must prove by clear and convincing evidence that the deed was intended as security for a loan—not as an outright transfer.

232
Q

absolute deed - remedy if default

A

The deed recipient, like any other lender, may then bring a foreclosure action if the debtor defaults.

equitable mortgage is not an outright transfer of the lot. Therefore, the investor cannot immediately evict the owner. The lender must first follow any applicable foreclosure procedures.

233
Q

can outside info outside of deed be introduced to interpret or explain a deed?

A

Yes

SoF does not prevent the introduction of oral evidence to explain or interpret a written deed—e.g., to show that the deed was subject to an agreement that the property serve as security for a loan.

Additionally, the parol evidence rule does not prevent the admission of evidence to establish the existence of such an agreement because the deed was not intended to be a complete integration of the parties’ agreement.

234
Q

Transfer of deed is invalid & cannot be enforced by bona fide purchaser if:

A

grantor’s signature is forged

deed is forged (ie, falsely made or materially altered with intent to defraud) or

grantor is deceived about nature of executed document

235
Q

Voidable: Transfer of deed is valid until set aside & may be enforced by bona fide purchaser if:

A

procured by fraudulent inducement

or

party lacks capacity to execute deed (eg, infancy, lack of capacity)

236
Q

void deed meaning

A

A void deed is invalid at its inception and conveys no title to the grantee.

237
Q

future-advances mortgage is (i.e. and definition)

A

line of credit

a mortgage given by a debtor (mortgagor) in exchange for the right to receive money from the lender (mortgagee) in the future.

238
Q

for future-advances mortgage, priority with regard to proceeds from a foreclosure sale depends on whether the advances are:

A

optional – in which case, the future-advances mortgage has priority with respect to amounts loaned before the future-advances mortgagee received notice of a subsequent mortgage

or

obligatory – in which case, the future-advances mortgage has priority with respect to amounts loaned before and after the future-advances mortgagee received notice (actual or constructive) of a subsequent mortgage.

239
Q

can something be devised to someone that died?

A

yes (Question ID# 10339)

240
Q

Mortgagees are considered to have paid value and are therefore protected by a recording act, but this protection does not always extend to

A

judgment liens.

241
Q

do mortgages have auto priority over judgment lien?

A

No - mortgage does not automatically have priority over a judgment lien.

242
Q

Lien priority is determined by

A

the “first in time, first in right” rule unless a recording act applies. recording act doesn’t always protect judgment liens.

243
Q

Fair Housing Act

Prohibits discriminatory actions in sale/renting of dwelling based on

A

race, color, religion, sex, handicap, national origin, or familial status (includes having custody of children under 18 and being pregnant)

244
Q

FHA violation examples

A

refusing bona fide offer

discriminating in terms, conditions, privileges, or services of purchase/rental

advertising preference for or discrimination against buyer/renter

falsely representing dwelling’s availability for inspection, sale, or rental

inducing sale/renting with discriminatory representations about neighborhood

denying reasonable modifications to accommodate handicap at occupant’s expense

245
Q

Fair Housing Act doesn’t apply to

A

religious organizations

private clubs that incidentally provide lodging to members

familial status for senior housing
owner of ≤ 3 single-family dwellings*

owner-occupied dwellings with ≤ 4 units*

sale/rental of single-family home by private owner

246
Q

Easement holder duties

A

Duty to repair & maintain—
Easement holder must repair & maintain easement to extent necessary to:
- prevent unreasonable interference with enjoyment of servient estate
- protect servient-estate owner from liability to third parties

Duty to contribute — Other easement holders and/or servient-estate owner who share easement must contribute to reasonable costs of repairs & maintenance

247
Q

Does owner of the servient estate have an obligation to contribute to easement repair/maintenance?

A

Yes, IF he/she uses the easement

248
Q

can two diff people hold easement?

A

yes

249
Q

after-acquired title - i.e.

A

estoppel by deed

250
Q

estoppel by deed applies when

A

a grantor conveys property to a grantee by warranty deed before the grantor has acquired title to that property. Once the grantor receives title, this doctrine will cause it to automatically transfer to the grantee.

251
Q

purchase-money mortgage rules on priority

A

A PMM has priority over liens that arose prior to the PMM regardless of whether the PMM was recorded.

But a PMM does not necessarily have priority over subsequent liens. Instead, the recording act (or, if there is no recording act, the “first in time” rule) will control.

252
Q

Common situations that excuse tenant’s duty to pay rent

A

Condemnation (eminent domain)

Material breach

Frustration of purpose

Novation

CMFN
Can’t Make Francs Now

253
Q

Condemnation is the taking of land for public use or because it is unfit for use. The right of a tenant upon condemnation:

A

depends upon whether the condemnation is:

partial – where only a portion of the leased property is taken, so the tenant must continue to pay rent but is entitled to compensation for the portion that was taken or

complete – where the entire leased property is taken, so the tenant is discharged from his/her rent obligation and is entitled to compensation for the taking.

254
Q

Frustration of purpose does what and applies when?

A

excuses tenant’s duty to pay rent if Property becomes unsuitable for contemplated use due to unforeseeable:
- change in property’s physical condition (not caused by tenant)
- change in law (eg, zoning code)
- government action other than condemnation (eg, wartime rationing)

255
Q

Material breach by landlord excuses tenant’s duty to pay. When is there material breach?

A

Landlord breaches:
- implied promise to deliver possession
- implied warranty (ie, quiet enjoyment, habitability)
- express lease provision

partial eviction and constructive eviction matter too (under implied warranty?)

256
Q

Every lease (commercial and residential) contains an implied covenant of quiet enjoyment, under which the landlord promises

A

not to interfere with the tenant’s possession of the leased premises. It is breached only when the landlord prevents the tenant from possessing the leased premises (i.e. not fault of landlord, not breaching implied covenant)

257
Q

constructive eviction and tenant’s duty to pay rent

A

the landlord (not someone else e.g. gov’t) breaches a duty to the tenant that substantially interferes with the tenant’s use and enjoyment of the leasehold (e.g., failing to make repairs).

A tenant’s duty to pay rent is excused if the landlord was responsible for the partial eviction.

258
Q

Partial eviction and a tenant’s duty to pay rent

A

A partial eviction occurs when a tenant is prevented from possessing or using a portion of the leased premises.

The tenant is excused from paying rent for the entire premises if the landlord was responsible for the partial eviction.

259
Q

if the lender releases or impairs the mortgaged property the debtor is

A

relieved of personal liability for the mortgage debt.

In some states, a release completely discharges the debtor’s personal liability.

In other states and under the Restatement, the debtor’s personal liability is discharged only to the extent of the value of the released property.

260
Q

A debtor remains personally liable for the mortgage debt even after the mortgaged property is transferred to another. But the debtor will be relieved of personal liability if

A

the lender releases or impairs the mortgaged property.

261
Q

Seller’s duty to disclose - minority approach

A

CL: No duty to disclose property defects unless otherwise provided (Caveat emptor - burden on buyer)

262
Q

Seller’s duty to disclose - maj approach

A

Modern approach:

Must disclose known material defects that buyer could not reasonably discover

Exception: “as is” clause or specific disclaimers without seller’s fraud

263
Q

Implied warranty of habitability - who promises? applies to what kind of sales? what is promised?

(ie, implied warranty of fitness or suitability, quality, workmanlike construction)

A

Implied promise by builder, developer, or other commercial seller of

NEW house

that house was built in reasonably workmanlike manner & is suitable for living

264
Q

defeasible fee types

A

Fee simple determinable

Fee simple subject to condition subsequent

265
Q

indefeasible estate ends naturally - future interest

A

owner has a reversion

or

if it goes to a third party, the third party has a remainder.

266
Q

is Fee simple determinable alienable, devisable, and descendible?

A

yes but always subject to the stated condition

267
Q

seller needs _____ title to deliver marketable title to the buyer at closing.

A

legal

268
Q

A land-sales contract is executed when

A

the seller promises to deliver marketable title

269
Q

will a court enforce a K for land-sales when a seller doesn’t possess title to the land?

A

yes, if seller can deliver marketable title at closing (or within reasonable time if time not of essence)

270
Q

A mortgage is generally enforceable only to the extent that

A

the underlying obligation is enforceable.

271
Q

Therefore, a mortgage ______ subject to the same defenses as the underlying obligation secured by the mortgage—e.g., ________

A

is

mistake, duress, lack of capacity, statute of limitations.

272
Q

The terms of a mortgage agreement may allow the lender (mortgagee) to pursue an action based on the personal liability of the owner (mortgagor) or an action to foreclose on the mortgage. If so, does one have to be done before the other? does choosing one foreclose the other option?

A

If so, then choosing one option does not preclude subsequently pursuing the other, and one option need not be pursued before the other.

273
Q

may a mortgage be enforced separately from the obligation for which the mortgage serves as security?

A

Yes. A mortgage may be enforced separately from the obligation for which the mortgage serves as security.

274
Q

recording doesn’t effect lender’s ability to

A

enforce the mortgage and foreclose.

275
Q

can extrinsic evidence be admitted to clarify ambiguities in the deed?

A

yes

though extrinsic evidence can be used to identify the grantee, the deed will be deemed void if such evidence is also unclear.

276
Q

liquidated damages clause generally enforceable when

A

the amount of liquidated damages is reasonable—e.g., no more than 10 percent of the purchase price. But when evaluating reasonableness, courts may also consider:

  • the sophistication of the buyer
  • the nature of the transaction (commercial v. residential) and
  • whether the seller suffered an actual loss (if not, courts may refuse to enforce the clause).
277
Q

AP - In a majority of jurisdictions, the nonpermissive requirement is met when

A

(1) the land is possessed without the owner’s permission and (2) the possessor objectively demonstrates an intent to claim the land as his/her own—the possessor’s subjective intent is irrelevant.

278
Q

Implied easement types

A

Necessity

Existing prior use

279
Q

implied easement - necessity requirements

A

Severance of common ownership

Strict necessity for use & enjoyment of land

280
Q

implied easement - Existing prior use requirements

A

Severance of common ownership

Prior existing use

Apparent & continuous

Reasonable necessity for use & enjoyment of land

281
Q

When a foreclosure is conducted by a judicially supervised sale, the foreclosing mortgagee (lender)

must

may

A

must give notice to the holders of any junior interests in the property and make them parties to the foreclosure action so that they can participate or send a representative—otherwise, the junior-interest holder’s interest will remain after the sale

may, but need not, join others who have an interest in the property (e.g., a senior-mortgage holder) or are liable on the debt (e.g., a guarantor) as proper, but not necessary, parties

282
Q

Cotenants - do they have fiduciary duty?

A

Cotenants owe a duty of fair dealing—but generally not a fiduciary duty—to each other. However, a fiduciary duty may be imposed on cotenants who:

jointly purchase property in reliance on each other

or

acquire their interests at the same time from a common source (e.g., by gift, will, or inheritance).

283
Q

How fiduciary duty between cotenants arises commonly:

A

This duty primarily arises when the co-owned property is sold at a tax or mortgage foreclosure sale and purchased by a cotenant. The other cotenants then have the right to reacquire their original interests by paying their share of the cost paid to acquire the property (based on the cotenant’s ownership interest) within a reasonable time.

284
Q

Land sales K - seller’s remedies

A
  • Rescission & restitution (Rescind (ie, cancel) agreement & recover possession of property; Rental value & physical damages are recoverable; Buyer not liable for purchase price)
  • Specific performance (Seek an injunction ordering buyer to pay agreed purchase price;
    May be unavailable if money damages provide adequate compensation & property is not unique
    eg, condominium identical to other units in complex)
  • Damages (Loss of bargain = contract price – market value at time of breach;
    Liquidated damages = amount designated in the sales contract as compensation for breach;
    Retain buyer’s deposit (up to amount of seller’s actual damages);
    Incidental & consequential damages that were contemplated during sales contract or reasonably foreseeable)
285
Q

Liquidated damages are recoverable when…

A

the liquidated amount bears a reasonable relation to anticipated damages.

Many courts have held that a deposit of no more than 10% of the purchase price is reasonable.

286
Q

A liquidated damages provision __ more likely to be enforced against a sophisticated buyer.

A

is

287
Q

Equal dignities rule

A

The equal-dignities rule requires that an agent’s authority be in writing when the act performed by the agent on the principal’s behalf is subject to the statute of frauds (e.g., transfers of real-property interests).

However, this rule does not apply to persons merely acting as the principal’s amanuensis (i.e., scribe or secretary) by signing a specific deed at the grantor’s request.

288
Q

a fixture that the tenant has attached to the leased property may be removed if:

A

the leased property can be and is restored to its former condition

and

the removal and the restoration are made within a reasonable time.

289
Q

reasonable time to remove fixture as a tenant

A

A reasonable time for removal generally does not extend beyond the termination of the lease.

However, it does so when (1) the termination was not due to a breach by the tenant and (2) the date of termination was not foreseeable by the tenant sufficiently far enough in advance to permit removal before the lease terminates

290
Q

Notice for termination of periodic tenancy

A

the landlord must give the tenant notice of termination before the beginning of the intended last period of the periodic tenancy.

291
Q

Special relationships creating a duty to control others

A

Parent and child

Mental-health professional and patient

Employer and employee

Custodian and prisoner

Mnemonic: Please Make Everyone Careful

292
Q

A seller of real property has a duty to disclose to a buyer

A

Depends if on land or off land….

ON LAND

unreasonably dangerous natural or artificial conditions on the land if:

the condition exists at the time of the sale

the seller knows or has reason to know of the condition and its unreasonable risk to persons on the land

the buyer does not know or have reason to know of the condition or risk

and

the seller has reason to believe that the buyer would not discover the condition or realize its risk.

OFF LAND

The seller may also be liable to persons off the land for artificial conditions if (i) the condition existed at the time of the sale, and (ii) the seller knew or should have known the condition existed and that it posed an unreasonable risk

293
Q

Remedy for seller of real property that breaches duty to disclose unreasonably dangerous natural or artificial ocnditions on the land:

A

A seller who breaches this duty is liable for physical harm caused by the unreasonably dangerous condition—at least until the buyer has had a reasonable opportunity to discover and remedy the condition.

However, if the seller created or actively concealed the condition, then the seller’s liability continues until the buyer has actually discovered and had a reasonable opportunity to remedy the condition.

294
Q

Does NIED plaintiff need to have witnessed the event?

A

Zone of danger - yes

Bystander - yes

Special-situations theory - NO for corpse mishandling, asked about other two

295
Q

Liability under the special-situations theory arises when the

A

defendant negligently:

  • delivered an erroneous announcement of death or illness
  • mishandled the corpse or bodily remains of a loved one or
  • contaminated food with a repulsive foreign object.
296
Q

Negligence for products liability - A commercial seller owes a duty of reasonable care to any foreseeable plaintiff (i.e., purchaser, user, bystander). Does this include inspections?

A

Yes - This duty is breached when the commercial seller fails to exercise reasonable care in the inspection or sale of the product and the defect would have been discovered had such care been used.

297
Q

In most jurisdictions, the measure of recovery in intentional misrepresentation cases is ____. How is it calculated?

A

the benefit of the bargain.

That is determined by calculating the difference between the actual value received by the plaintiff in the transaction and the value that would have been received had the representation been true.

example: The actual value received by the woman in the transaction was zero because the chainsaw was worthless. And the value that would have been received had the lumberjack’s representation been true was $1,000. Therefore, the benefit of the bargain is $1,000, which is the highest amount the woman can recover.

298
Q

Doctrines affecting conveyance by will

A

Lapse

Ademption

Exoneration

Abatement

299
Q

a _______ statute does not require that the subsequent purchaser record the conveyance to prevail.

A

notice statute

(unlike race or race-notice statute)

300
Q

anti-lapse statutes

A

prevent a gift from lapsing when:

the gift is made to parties specified by the statute (usually the testator’s immediate relatives)*

and

those parties leave children or other descendants (i.e., issue) who survive the testator.

*In most jurisdictions, the anti-lapse statute is limited to grandparents or a descendant of a grandparent of the testator (e.g., aunts, uncles, parents, siblings, children).

301
Q

Foreclosure-sale proceeds are typically distributed in the following order of priority:

A

Costs from the foreclosure sale
Mortgage being foreclosed
Junior mortgages or liens, in the order of priority
Debtor

302
Q

impact of Modification of a senior mortgage - impact on mortgage priority

(e.g. bank mortgage, another mortgage, bank refinances mortgage)

A

generally has no impact on the senior mortgagee’s priority over junior mortgages or liens.

However, a modification that materially prejudices a junior interest (e.g., increase in interest rate) will subordinate the senior mortgagee’s interest only as to the modification. The senior mortgagee’s original interest will therefore remain superior to the junior interest.

303
Q

Types of easements

A

Easement appurtenant
- Benefits easement holder’s land
- Automatically transfers when land is conveyed (eg, easement by necessity)
- Easements are presumed to be appurtenant unless otherwise stated
- Unless otherwise stated, an easement appurtenant cannot be used for the benefit of property other than the dominant estate.

Easement in gross
- Benefits easement holder personally
- Does not transfer when land is conveyed (eg, prescriptive easement for utility line)

304
Q

Remedy if easement owner tries to use easement appurtenant to also benefit subsequently acquired property?

A

Not allowed.

Remedy: damages or injunction

Damages are appropriate when there is no increased burden on the servient estate.

305
Q

Rights of cotenants

A

Possess & enjoy entire property (absent an agreement to the contrary, a cotenant generally has no duty to pay rent to the other cotenants)

Receive proportionate shares of net profits from removal of natural resources
Receive pro rata shares of rent from third parties

306
Q

duties of cotenants

A

Pay proportionate shares of expenses that may give rise to lien (eg, mortgage, property tax)*

Contribute to repair or improvement costs, but only upon agreement**

*A cotenant can collect contribution from the other cotenants for paying more than his/her portion of necessary or beneficial operating expenses (e.g., taxes). But a cotenant in sole possession can collect only for the amount that exceeds the property’s rental value.

**cotenants have no right to be reimbursed by other cotenants for repairs made to the property—even when those repairs were necessary—absent an agreement.

307
Q

RAP contingent future interests

A

Contingent remainder

Vested remainder subject to open

Executory interest

Power of appointment

Right of first refusal

Option (RAP applies UNLESS the right was granted in a lease to a current leasehold tenant)

308
Q

RAP majority rule on what happens if contingent future interest could possibly vest more than 21 years after validating life ends

A

A majority of jurisdictions have adopted the Uniform Statutory Rule Against Perpetuities (USRAP), which adopts a “wait and see” stance with respect to the applicability of the Rule.

Under this stance, an otherwise invalid interest is valid if it does in fact vest within 90 years after its creation.

Under the USRAP, the Rule generally does not apply to future interests arising from commercial transactions, including options to purchase, preemptive rights (e.g., right of rst refusal), and future leases.

309
Q

A joint tenant (in joint-tenancy) can grant a mortgage w/o consent?

A

A joint tenant may only grant a mortgage on his/her own joint-tenancy interest without the other joint tenant’s consent.

May grant mortgage on whole thing with consent

310
Q

effect of mortgage by one joint tenant on joint tenancy

A

Whether the joint tenancy remains intact depends on the jurisdiction:

Lien theory (majority rule) – a mortgage is merely a lien on the property, which means that granting a mortgage does not sever the joint tenancy but a severance will occur upon a foreclosure sale following a default

Title theory (minority rule) – a mortgage constitutes a transfer of title, which means that granting a mortgage does sever the joint tenancy and the mortgagor-tenant becomes tenants in common with the other joint tenants

311
Q

Products liability claims

A

Strict products liability

Negligence

Intentional tort

Misrepresentation (strict liability - regardless of defective)

Warranty
- Merchantability (implied)
- Fitness for Partic Purpose (implied)
- EXpress

312
Q

Strict products liability elements

A

Commercial seller (ie, manufacturer, distributor, retailer) produced or sold defective product

Defect caused plaintiff harm

313
Q

Product liability - Negligence elements

A

Seller (commercial or noncommercial) failed to use reasonable care in producing or inspecting defective product

Product caused plaintiff harm

314
Q

Product liability - intentional tort

A

Seller (commercial or noncommercial) purposefully or knowingly produced or sold defective product

Product caused plaintiff harm

315
Q

Products liability - Misrepresentation elements and type of liability

A

Commercial seller misrepresented material fact about product

Consumer justifiably relied on misrepresentation when purchasing product

Product caused plaintiff harm

Commercial sellers are strictly liable for the misrepresentations they make regarding their products—regardless of whether those products are defective.

316
Q

Products liability - Warranties and their elements

A

Merchantability (implied)
- Commercial seller warranted product is generally acceptable & reasonably fit for its ordinary purpose

Fitness for particular purpose (implied)
- Seller (commercial or noncommercial) warranted product is fit for particular purpose
- Purchaser relied on seller’s judgment or skill to purchase product

Express
- Seller (commercial or noncommercial) made affirmation of fact or promise that is part of basis of bargain

317
Q

remedy for breach of implied warranty of merchantability

A

plaintiff can recover damages resulting from:

physical harm—i.e., personal injury or damage to property—and

economic losses—including consequential damages (e.g., lost profits)—that stem from the alleged physical harm.*

*Purely economic losses do not stem from any physical harm and are available only in breach of implied warranty claims—not other products liability claims.

318
Q

The commercial seller of the product may generally disclaim or limit the remedies and warranties available in a products liability action. EXCEPTIONS:

A

any such disclaimer or limitation does not bar or reduce an injured plaintiff’s recovery for physical harm.

in the case of consumer goods, any limitation of consequential damages (e.g. lost profits) for personal injuries is unconscionable and therefore invalid.

319
Q

Landlord’s duty to deliver posession

A

English rule (Maj): Deliver ACTUAL possession to tenant (i.e. remove third party wrongfully possessing property)

American rule (Minority): deliver LEGAL possession to tenant (ie ensure no third party has “right” to possess property

320
Q

Remedy for breach of landlord duty to deliver possession

A

Withhold rent to acquire possession

Seek damages to period not in possession

Terminate lease

321
Q

Landlord rejects tenant’s offer of abandonment (of lease)… tenant is obligated to…

A

pay rent for the remainder of lease.

In most jx, landlord has duty to mitigate damages by making reasonable effort to re-rent the property (and tenant’s liability for rent will be reduced accordingly)

322
Q

ways landlord can accept tenant’s offer to surrender rights to lease… and what is tenant’s obligation under lease if accepted?

A

by LL express agreement

by LL retaking possession of property plus either LL’s own use or re-renting to third party.

Lease is terminated and tenant is NOT liable for future rent

323
Q

Profit a prendre

A

aka profit

nonpossessory interest in land that gives the profit holder the right to enter another’s land to remove specific natural resources.

Bc interest in land, profit holder is entitled to comp if gov’t condemns the property under the power of eminent domain (true regardless of whether profit holder paid value or has exclusive right to remove the resources)

324
Q

Easement by prescription

A

Easement acquired through use that is:

Open & notorious – apparent or visible to reasonable owner

Continuous – uninterrupted for statutory period

Actual – use of land

Nonpermissive – hostile & adverse to owner

Mnemonic: OCAN

325
Q

What duty does a land possessors owe to trespassers?

A

Traditional: owe a limited duty to known or anticipated trespassers to (1) warn trespasser about hidden, artificial dangers that are KNOWN to land possessor but UNLIKELY to be discovered by the trespasser; AND
(2) use reasonable care while conducting activities on their land

Modern approach: owe a duty of reasonable care to all land entrants (except flagrant trespassers)

326
Q

Location of express easement

A

set by its terms.

when terms unclear, cts look to parties’ intent (often evidenced by parties’ conduct)

327
Q

Relocation of easements

A

Servient owner may relocate (at own expense) to permit normal use/dev of servient estate if relocation (1) is reasonable, and (2) does not violate express easement’s terms, significantly lessen easement’s utility, increase burden on dominant owner’s use or enjoyment of easement, frustrate easement’s purpose.

328
Q

Two funds rule of marshallling

A

applies when a sr creditor has 2 funds available to satisfy a debt (eg mortgage on multiple properties) and a jr creditor also has an interest in one of those funds. It requires the sr creditor to first look for satisfaction from the fund that is not shared so as to preserve the jr creditor’s interest in the shared fund.

329
Q
A
330
Q
A
331
Q
A