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MBB165 Flashcards

1
Q

A. nidulans is a homothallic species. What does this mean?

A

There are no mating type differences.

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2
Q

Where is the centromere found in a paracentric inversion?

A

Outside the inverted segment.

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3
Q

What special mycelium is grown when A. nidulans goes through asexual reproduction?

A

Dikaryon.

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4
Q

Dipolids in yeast can undergo asexual reproduction by mitosis. This allows for dominance and complementation tests. What happens to allow gene segregation, gene interactions and linkage to be studied?

A

Sporylation of diploids.

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5
Q

A. nidulans have an asexual and sexual cycle. What one of these is longer?

A

The sexual cycle which lasts 14 days. The asexual cycle last 2 days.

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5
Q

What life cycles does yeast contain?

A

Haploid and diploid life cycles.

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5
Q

What can the YsxC protein bind?

A

GTP.

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7
Q

What is increased through the use of a slope culture?

A

Surface area.

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7
Q

What are the characteristics of mutant/recessive corn kernals?

A

Sweet and yellow.

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7
Q

What type of inheritance is shown with Brachdactyly disorder?

A

Autosomal dominance.

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8
Q

Conidia are ____ nucleate and are usually ____. These can give rise to _____ which grow by apical extension and laternal branching to make ______.

A

Uni, haploid, hypthea, mycelium.

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9
Q

What type of colour blindness is this describing? The part of the spectrum normally seen as green is grey or indisitinct.

A

Deutan.

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10
Q

What would you call a chromosome that has its centromere in the middle?

A

Metacentric.

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10
Q

All enzyme activity in soil comes from enzymes associated with micro-organisms. True or false?

A

False.

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11
Q

What do temperature sensitive mutants allow you to identify?

A

Genes essential for survival.

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11
Q

What is plotted on the Y axis of a Lineweaver-Burk plot?

A

1/v.

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12
Q

Malt contains a large number of simple and complex sugars. What is the most common complex sugar found in malt?

A

Maltose.

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13
Q

Do gram positive or gram negative bacteria have a thin cell wall?

A

Gram negative.

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13
Q

Is pink sarafranin also used as a counterstain when looking at endospores?

A

Yes.

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13
Q

What is the cross linking like in the G75 beads?

A

Medium. Above 80kd is excluded?

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14
Q

The dipolid nuclei found in the sexual reproduction in A. nidulans have a relatively short life. What can they not undergo that yeast can?

A

Mitotic division.

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14
Q

How are sulphatses classified?

A

Depending on the type of sulphate ester they hydrolyse.

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14
Q

What colour is the DCPIP dye when it is reduced?

A

Colourless.

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15
Q

Damage to the cell wall caused by heat shock is irreversible. True or false?

A

False. When the cells have returned to a normal temperature the pores can reseal.

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16
Q

Endospores do not effect the staining procedure of bacteria. True or false?

A

False. They make them harder to stain.

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16
Q

How do you work out the relative length of a chromosome?

A

(Length of chromosome/ total length of haploid set of autosomes) x 100

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17
Q

What do single gene disorders tend to show that complex disorders do not?

A

Regular and predictable inheritance patterns.

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18
Q

What are the five stages that prophase can be split into?

A
  1. Leptotene 2. Zygotene 3. Pachytene 4. Dipolotene 5. Diakinesis
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19
Q

What is the ‘void volume’ in gel filtration?

A

The molecules that are excluded from the beads as they have been eluted first. The volume of their elution is equal to the amount of liquid outside of the beads.

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20
Q

A. niger, A. oryzae and P. chrysogenum all have economic importance, however they do not have a sexual cycle. What can not be done as a result of this?

A

The genes can not be mapped.

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20
Q

What three temperatures are used in PCR?

A

94, 50, 72.

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21
Q

What stain will be taken up by endospores?

A

Macahite green.

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22
Q

Where is the centromere in a telocentric chromosome?

A

At one end.

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22
Q

What buds of conidiophores?

A

Chains of uninucleate conidia through successive mitotic divisions.

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24
Q

What is a Helber slide used to do?

A

Count cells. It is made of 1mm^2 of 400 small squares.

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25
Q

In what stage of mitosis do chromosomes become visible?

A

Prophase.

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25
Q

What are Ishihara test cards used for?

A

To test colour blindness.

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25
Q

The total volume of the beads is equal to Vt-Vo. What else does it also equal?

A

Vi+Vs.

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26
Q

What washed methyl violet from gram negative bacteria?

A

Alcohol/ acetone.

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27
Q

What does the Km value show?

A

How much of the rate is dependent on substrate concentration.

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28
Q

What enzyme can break down lactose into glucose and galactose?

A

Lactase.

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29
Q

Through measuring the amount of CO2 produced in fermentation what can you determine?

A

The ability of alcohol dehydrogenase to act on different substrates and reactions optimum conditions.

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30
Q

How many break points does an inversion need?

A

2.

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30
Q

When prepping tissue extracts to measure the effect cofactors have on respiration how do you remove the oxygen to ensure that the reaction happens anaerobically?

A

Gas the tube with nitrogen.

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31
Q

What type of culture is being described here? 10ml of agar solution is solidified upright and is then inoculated in the middle with a needle.

A

Stab culture.

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32
Q

Does staining and light microscopy allow the visulisation of individual chromosomes?

A

No.

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32
Q

Why will supercolied DNA move further through the gel in electrophoresis?

A

Because it is more compact.

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33
Q

What is the difference between pour plates and overlay cultures?

A

Less melted agar is used in overlay cultures.

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34
Q

What do you need to know for affinity chromatogr

A

A specific binding property such as the presence of an insulin receptor.

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35
Q

What are three purposes of gel filtration

A
  1. Desalting/ buffer exchange. 2. Purification of buffer macromolecules. 3. Analysis of the oligomeic state or proteins.
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36
Q

Is BG synthasised when glucose is present?

A

No. This is because there would be no cAMP present.

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37
Q

A proton is produced when lactate is broken down by lactate dehydrogenase. How is this removed?

A

Through a glycine containing buffer ( an alkaline reaction medium).

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38
Q

How many times should you pass a slide through a flame in heat fixation?

A

3.

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38
Q

What leads to a colour change in phenol red at high pH’s?

A

The dissociation of a H+ ion.

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39
Q

Sulphur in the soil mainly comes from sulphate ions but can also come from organic sulphate esters. True or false?

A

False, 90% of the sulphur comes from organic sulphate esters.

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40
Q

What can phenylketonuria lead to?

A

A mental defect.

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41
Q

What stain is commonly used in a gram stain?

A

Methyl/ crystal violet.

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41
Q

What shape is an ascus, which holds 8 ascospores?

A

Spherical.

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42
Q

What is flanked by the primers in the buccal smear sample test?

A

The DYZ region found on the Y chromsome and not on the X.

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43
Q

What stage of prophase is being described here? Bivalents contain two homologous chromosomes that include centromeres. Still held together at a few points called chiasmata where crossing over has occurred. Sister chromatids are attached at centromeres.

A

Dipolotene.

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45
Q

The human karyotype can be divided into 7 groups, named A-G. What are these groups based on?

A

The size and the position of the centromere.

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47
Q

Is agar needed in broth culture?

A

No.

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47
Q

What sort of inheritance is shown with phenylketonuria?

A

Autosomal recessive.

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49
Q

What type of culture is being described here? A cool medium is allowed to set into an even, smooth layer. The inoculation is then streaked over the plate.

A

Streak plate.

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50
Q

What type of medium is used in a broth culture?

A

Liquid medium.

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51
Q

When NaOH is added to the reaction between aryl sulphatase and p-nitrocatechol substrate it stops the reaction. What else does it do?

A

Deprotanates the nitrocatechol so it can be assasyed spectrophotometrically.

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52
Q

What are MDR-TB and CRE?

A

Antibiotic resistant strains.

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53
Q

What two buffers do E.coli cells need to be washed in to render them component?

A

TFB1 and TFB2.

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53
Q

What does this equation show? Vo+Vi+Vs?

A

The total voume inside the column. Vs is the volume of the solid beads. This is normally between 5% and 15% of the total volume.

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55
Q

What are general stains used for?

A

To visualise morphology.

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55
Q

Many bacterial species contain the YsxC protein. If an antibiotic was created to target this protein what would it be classed as?

A

A broad spectrum antibiotic.

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56
Q

What charge do acidic amino acids have at a pH of greater than 4?

A

A negative charge. Basic amino acids tend to have a positive charge.

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56
Q

There was a delay in BG activity after IPTG was added. Why is this?

A

Because the IPTG needed to react/ be metabolised before the reaction could start.

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57
Q

What does aryl sulphatase catalyse?

A

The hydrolysis of synthetic substrate p-nitrocatechol sulphate into nitocatechol and sulphate.

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59
Q

Specific patterns on chromosomes given by G stain is not sufficient to distinguish between different chromosomes. True or false?

A

False.

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60
Q

Why does a heatshock cause pores in the membrane of a bacterial cell?

A

Due to pressure difference between the inside and the outside of the cell.

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61
Q

Why can the level of ethanol, NAD+ and carbon dioxide all show how much fermentation has taken place?

A

As they are all made in a 1:1:1 ratio.

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62
Q

What do sulphatases hydrolyse?

A

Sulphuric acid esters.

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63
Q

When the concentration equals 0, what does It equal?

A

I0.

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64
Q

Beta galactosidase can cleave ONPG. What colour is ONPG?

A

Colourless.

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65
Q

What two strains of S. cerevisiae are used in brewing?

A
  1. Ale yeast 2. Larger yeasts
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66
Q

What do Aspergillus niger, Aspergillus oryzae and Penicillum chrysogenum all have?

A

Economic importance.

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67
Q

Colourless substances do not absorb visible wavelengths of light. What can they absorb instead?

A

UV light on infra red radiation.

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67
Q

What is the advantage of using a Lineweaver-Burk plot over a Michaelis-Menton plot?

A

It is easier to determine Km and Vmax.

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67
Q

What does anion exchange chromatography separate proteins by?

A

Charge. Resin is positive.

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67
Q

What does Duniella use as a compatible solute?

A

Glycerol.

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69
Q

What stage of prophase is being described here? Condensation begins. Each chromosome becomes paired and can be visulised as chromatids.

A

Leptotene.

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70
Q

When dipolid zygotes in yeast sporulate each nuclei divides to form what?

A

A tetrad.

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70
Q

Compounds at a low potential are _______ by those at a higher potential.

A

Oxidised.

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71
Q

What fixative is made up of Orcein, latic and acetic acid?

A

Clarkes fixative.

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71
Q

Why are readings above 1 from a spectrophotometer not ideal?

A

As the spectrophotometer does not read these readings accurately.

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72
Q

Do gram positive or gram negative bacteria have a thin outer membrane?

A

Gram positive.

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72
Q

How does sexual reproduction occur in A. nidulans?

A

Two haploid spores come together.

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73
Q

What is the cross linking like in G25 beads?

A

Tight. Anything about 5kd is excluded.

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74
Q

Does isolating plasmid DNA require acid or alkaline hydrolysis?

A

Alkaline.

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75
Q

What do acidic amino acids have in their side chain?

A

A carbonyl group.

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75
Q

When making a brain tissue extract the tissue is homogenised with ice cold hypotonic solution containing potassium bicarbonate and nicotinamide. How is undistrupted tissue then removed?

A

Centrifugation.

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77
Q

What type of culture is being described here? 10ml of agar is heated and melted. This is then set on a slanted position to increase the surface area. This is ideal for small amounts of bacteria.

A

Slope.

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78
Q

What is the significance of Mata and Matalpha in yeast?

A

They are ‘sexes’ as they contain unlike alleles at the mating type locuses.

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78
Q

The Michaelis-Menton plot shows the relationship between Km and Vmax- it is a curved graph. This graph is often replotted into a linear graph, what is this graph called?

A

Lineweaver-Burk plot.

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79
Q

What occurs to allow a teratype to form?

A

A single crossover between the two alleles.

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80
Q

What two polymer matrices are normally used in electrophoresis?

A

Polyacrylamide and agarose.

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81
Q

What does the Y intercept show on a LB plot?

A

1/vmax.

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81
Q

What does Vi show in gel filtration?

A

The amount of liquid in the beads. this is equal to VI-V0.

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83
Q

What stage of mitosis are mammalian chromosomes most easily seen in?

A

Metaphase.

84
Q

Asperigullus has no economic importance however related fungi do. True or false?

A

True.

86
Q

The diploid nuclei in A.nidulans can not undergo mitotic divison. What process happens instead?

A

Meiosis and the mitosis, giving rise to 8 ascospores.

87
Q

What does the X intercept show on a LB plot?

A

-1/km.

88
Q

How much bacteria can be grown on a slope culture?

A

A small amount.

89
Q

Labs typically use 1% agarose gels. What size DNA fragments can be resolved trough these?

A

1-10kb.

91
Q

When genes are far apart what can you say the PD class equals?

A

The NPD as they would segregate independently.

91
Q

Can the buccal smear test be used on its own to establish sex?

A

No, as it can give rise to false positives and negatives.

91
Q

What two properties can be changed in anion exchange chromatography?

A

pH and salt.

93
Q

What plating method is prepared the same way as a streak plate apart from the fact that the innoculant is a drop liquid culture?

A

Spread plate.

93
Q

What temperature should the primers used in PCR melt at?

A

Around 60 degrees.

94
Q

In gel filtration what are particles separated according to?

A

Their size.

96
Q

In a human pedigree do Arabic numbers or roman numerals identify the generation?

A

Roman numerals.

97
Q

What is IPTG?

A

An inducer of the lac operon.

98
Q

What was the purpose of the ethanol validation assay carried out in the industrial biotechnology practical?

A

It allowed the level of NADH to be determined also allowing the determination of the amount of ethanol produced by fermentation.

99
Q

What happens at a high pH to basic amino acids?

A

They loose the proton so are not charged.

99
Q

What can small changes in the pH of the blood result in?

A

Coma or death.

100
Q

How long does it take for the mycelium to differentiate into conidiophores in A. nidulans?

A

2 days.

100
Q

Can yeast be manipulated in similar ways to prokaryotes?

A

Yes.

101
Q

How does yeast reproduce?

A

Asexually through budding.

102
Q

Conidia are normally green. What two colours can they be when they are mutant?

A

White- no pigment is present. Yellow - incomplete pigment synthesis

104
Q

What colour is the carbonyl fuchsin/ safranin?

A

Pink/ red.

105
Q

Why do you need to degrease slides?

A

As even strong oxidizing agents will not degrease the slides. Flames need to be used.

106
Q

Why would you use a pour plate? (2 reasons)

A
  1. Isolation of bacterial cultures from a mix media. 2. When lawn cultures are needed.
108
Q

What sort of taste can phenylthiocarbamine be described as?

A

Bitter.

109
Q

What is the cross linking like in the G200 beads?

A

Loose. Above 600kd is excluded.

110
Q

What type of DNA moves the slowest through the gel?

A

Supercolied dimers.

111
Q

You can measure growth of a microorganim by counting the number of cells and by measuring biomass. What other way can you use?

A

Measuring the turbidity/ optical density of a culture.

112
Q

What method is used to distinguish between individuals in a population?

A

DNA profiling.

113
Q

What can fermentation be described as?

A

An anaerobic cellular process in which organic compounds are converted into simple molecules which chemical energy being produced.

115
Q

What can areas of polymorphism be used as ?

A

Genetic markers.

115
Q

At a high pH what colour is phenol red?

A

Red.

117
Q

What organism is random spore analysis carried out on?

A

Aspergillus nidulans.

117
Q

Why are very low OD readings, such as ones below 0.3 not ideal?

A

As error from inaccurate measurements will have a large effect.

118
Q

Is the counter stain taken up by all cells?

A

Yes, but in gram positive bacteria the methyl purple stain will predominate.

120
Q

What do general stains act on?

A

All bacteria.

121
Q

What does barbitone inhibit?

A

NADH dehydrogenase. In the experiment we carried out this had no effect on the rate of electron transport as we were looking from complex 2 onwards (succinate dehydrogenase).

122
Q

You can measure respiratory activity by measuring the uptake of oxygen. What other method can you use which is experimentally convenient?

A

Using a a different terminal electron acceptor. Dyes can be used which tap of the reducing equivalents from the respiratory chain.

123
Q

When counting spores do you ignore the spores which appear on the lines?

A

Some of them. Count the spores on the top line and the left boundary.

123
Q

Where is the YsxC protein found?

A

In Bacillus subtilis.

124
Q

Proliferating mico-organisms can release enzymes into the soil. True or false?

A

True.

125
Q

How would you remove cofactors from a brain tissue extract?

A

You would pour the tissue through a sausage shape bag of a semi permable membrane. This bag is dialysed against a bicarbonate/nicotinamide solution.

126
Q

Does nicked DNA or linear DNA move further through the gel?

A

Nicked.

127
Q

What stage of prophase is being described here? The bivalents become shorter and thicker. Crossing over occurs also they are not visible.

A

Pachytene.

128
Q

What size gel bead is used in desalting or in buffer exchange?

A

G25.

128
Q

Is the role of YsxC known?

A

No.

130
Q

What type of inheritance is shown with Zea mays/ corn?

A

Dihybrid. Each kernal is a result of an individual fertilisation.

131
Q

Why can gram positive bacteria maintain stains?

A

Because they have a thick cell wall and a thin outermembrane.

132
Q

What causes phenylketonuria?

A

An enzyme deficiency.

133
Q

What is the purpose of a streak plate?

A

To isolate separate colonies.

134
Q

When a sample is placed into the column to allow for gel filtration it occupies the ‘narrow zone’. How much of the column volume does this occupy?

A

1-5%.

136
Q

Where is it easiest to visualise mitosis?

A

Root tips.

137
Q

What is plotted on the X axis of a Lineweaver-Burk plot?

A

1/s.

138
Q

what does I0/It show?

A

Change in absorbance. By logging this number you can get A.

140
Q

Inversions normally happen in a gene. True or false?

A

False. They normally happen between genes.

141
Q

Why does brain tissue need to be kept on ice?

A

To allow the glycolytic enzymes originally found in the cytoplasm to retain their activity.

143
Q

Do gram positive or gram negative bacteria have a thick cell wall?

A

Gram positive.

144
Q

Where is the centromere on a acrocentric chromosome?

A

Near one end.

145
Q

When isolating plasmids does the plasmid or chromosomal DNA form a ‘white gloop’ with the SDS/lipid/protein percipitate?

A

The tangled chromosomal DNA.

147
Q

What does the pKa show?

A

What pH the protein has a ‘buffering’ action at.

149
Q

Are proteins or substrates more commonly coloured?

A

Substrates. Proteins are rarely coloured.

150
Q

What molecules can enter the beads in gel filtration?

A

Small molecules.

151
Q

What colour is the stain toluidine used in chromosome visulisation?

A

Blue.

152
Q

How many nuclei are found in a dikaryon?

A

Two, one from each parent.

153
Q

The distance a molecule travels in a gel is plotted on a arithmetic scale. What scale is the size of the molecule plotted on?

A

Log10 scale.

155
Q

If you determine the pH in which [A-] equals [HA} what can you determine?

A

pKa.

156
Q

Why is EDTA included in the buffer used in the reaction of lactate and lactate dehydrogenase?

A

It chelates any divalent metal ions that could catalyse the production of NADH from NAD+.

157
Q

Why did we have to compare the NADH reading with and without alcohol dehydrogenase?

A

As there is a basel level of NADH in the cells.

159
Q

Are conidia involved in the asexual or sexual reproduction of A. nidulans?

A

Asexual.

160
Q

Broth culture can produce a large number of bacteria. What can it not produce?

A

Discrete colonies.

161
Q

When plasmid DNA is lysed with NaOH do the strands remain intertwined?

A

Yes.

162
Q

What colours are confused in the comments congenital case of colour blindness?

A

Red-green.

164
Q

What are the characteristics of pure breeding corn kernals?

A

Starchy and purple.

165
Q

As the cell density increases what else increases?

A

The optical density reading.

166
Q

What can be observed in flower buds, grasshopper testes and locuses?

A

Meosis.

167
Q

What type of beads can the histidine affinity tags bind to?

A

Na2+ beads.

168
Q

What can phase contrasting microscopes do?

A

Allow the visualisation of chromosomes without staining.

169
Q

Why is it a negative thing to gave too much mitrochondria in the curvette when measuring electron transport?

A

As it can adust the OD readings.

170
Q

What are the three steps to produce slides?

A
  1. Degrease slides 2. Preparation of flims 3. Heat fixation
171
Q

What enzyme can break down starch into smaller disaccharide and trisaccharide sugars such as maltose?

A

Alpha amylase.

172
Q

What does random spore analysis involve?

A

Squashing a single cleisothecium to obtain random prodgeny as it is difficult to dissect out individual asci.

173
Q

Where is the centromere in a pericentric inversion?

A

In the inverted segement.

174
Q

What stage of prophase is being described here? Further shorting and thickening of chromosomes.

A

Diakinesis.

175
Q

What is the name given to a chromosome when its centromere is between the middle and the end?

A

Submetacentric.

176
Q

What can absolute ethanol do to nucleic acids?

A

Catalyse them to form ppt.

177
Q

What three things can you abstract from Duniella?

A
  1. Glycerol 2. B carotene 3. Neutral lipids.
178
Q

What are the two types of linear molecules often joined in a cloning experiment?

A

A vector molecule or a insert molecule, such a fragments of chromosomal DNA cut with the same restriction enzyme.

181
Q

Can spectrophotometry be used to identify chemical bonds and establish purity?

A

Yes.

181
Q

What is glycerol often described as ?

A

A commodity chemical. This is because it is used in foods, cosmetics, plasmids and explosives.

182
Q

After the addition of the SDS phase chromsomal DNA will form a white gloop which can be removed. Apart from plasmid DNA what else is found in the remaining solution?

A

rRNA and tRNA. Some chromosomal DNA may also be present due to shearing.

184
Q

When are endospores produced by some bacteria?

A

In unfavorable conditions.

185
Q

Thousands of asci are formed at the same time in a single structure called a _________.

A

Cleistothecium.

187
Q

What is malonate a competitive inhibitor to?

A

Succiante in the succinate dehydrogenase enzyme.

189
Q

Why is the agar cooled to roughly 50 degrees on a plate culture?

A

To stop the plate from cracking and to prevent antibiotics being inactivated.

189
Q

What does the buccal smear sample test?

A

The presence of a Y chromosome.

190
Q

Why is the actual length of the nuclei not useful when determining chromosome length?

A

Some chromosomes made be more or less elongated.

192
Q

What can lactic acid do to foodstuffs?

A

Improve their flavor and storage properties.

193
Q

What are the two forms of red-green colour blindness?

A
  1. Protan. 2. Deutan.
194
Q

What can you describe the side chains of a neutral amino acid to be?

A

Non-ionisable.

195
Q

Why is glycerol contained in the buffer involved in gel loading?

A

It is heavy and allows the sample to sink to the bottom of the gel.

196
Q

What stage of prophase is being described here? Homologous chromosomes become associated in bivalents by a process of synapsis.

A

Zygotene.

197
Q

Do positive or negative stains colour the organism?

A

Positive, negative colour the background.

198
Q

After the DAN is lysed with NaOH potassium acetate is added to bring the pH back to neutral. What does this do to the DNA?

A

It allows the strands to renature. Long chromosomal stands can not rehybridise correctly and instead form a partially hybridized tangle. Shorter plasmid DNA can correctly rehybridise.

200
Q

What colour blindness is this describing? Caused by alleles on two linked genes for colour sensitive pigements of cone cells in the retina. This causes a restriction at the visable red end of the spectrum also causing blue/green to appear as grey or indistinct.

A

Protan.

202
Q

Is the amount of NADH produced equivalent to the amount of lactate produced in anerobic respiration?

A

Yes.

203
Q

Where does the agar solidify in overlay cultures?

A

On the top.

204
Q

What does a ocular eyepiece allow?

A

The determination of the size of the object being studied.

205
Q

What is the purpose of the SDS when isolating plasmid DNA?

A

It dissolves the lipid compnents of the cell membrane and cellular proteins.

206
Q

What is special about exoenxymes and endoenzymes?

A

They are both free living and are found in soil. Exoenzymes are released from living cells and endoenzymes are released from disintegrating cells.

208
Q

Inversions always cause a mutant phenotype. True or false?

A

False. There is only a mutant phenotype if the break is in the gene.

209
Q

What was used to carry out original DNA profiling experiments?

A

DNA fingerprinting. This involves the analysis of polymorphisms across the genome which are roughly 10-100 nucleotides long and are called microsatellites.

210
Q

Inversions always cause inversion loops.True or false?

A

False. They will not if the inversion is small.

212
Q

What is the purpose of iodine in the gram staining procedure?

A

It traps the stain in the peptidoglycan cell wall.

212
Q

What stage of growth should the gram stains been used on?

A

Exponentially growing bacteria.

213
Q

Is lactose or IPTG a more effect inducer of BG synthasis?

A

Lactose.

214
Q

What is the intermediate made when pyruvate is made into ethanol?

A

Acetyl aldehyde.

216
Q

Why is glycolysis dependent on added glucose in brain tissue?

A

As there is a very low glycogen content.

217
Q

What bond is formed during ligation?

A

Covalent/ phosphodiester bond.

218
Q

What are dilute carbonyl fuchsin or safranin used as?

A

A counterstain.

219
Q

When lactate and NAD+ is added to lactate dehydrogenase what is produced?

A

Pyruvate and NADH.

219
Q

What is a plasmid defined as?

A

An independently replicating extra chromosomal element of DNA.

221
Q

Why does cyanide massively accelerate the electron transport chain?

A

It blocks the electrons from reaching O2 meaning more are given of by succinate.

223
Q

70% ethanol is used when plasmids are being isolated. What is its purpose?

A

It washes salts and removes any remaining SDS which can interfere with the restriction digest.

224
Q

Is the clockwise or anticlockwise hair whorl dominant?

A

Clockwise.

225
Q

What can Brachdactyly disorder be characterised by?

A

Short fingers.

226
Q

What is Beta carotene a precursor for?

A

Vitamin A.

227
Q

What are roots placed into to allow the visualise of chromosomes?

A

HCl and distilled.

229
Q

Do DNA ligases need ATP?

A

Yes.

230
Q

Glycolysis is essential in muscles. What other system is it vital in the functioning of?

A

The nervous system.

231
Q

Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that can inhibit protein synthesis. What is the purpose of adding this with IPTG when inducing the synthesis of BG?

A

It will help determine if the induction of BG requires the synthesis of the BG enzyme. (Results show that it does involve the synthesis of the enzyme.)

232
Q

When genes are closely linked do you get more parental or more recombinant classes?

A

More parental.

233
Q

What type of bacteria can be grown with a stab culture?

A

Anerobic.

234
Q

Being able to taste phenylthiocarbamide requires the recessive genotype. True or flase?

A

False. Non tasting is recessive.

235
Q

Beta galactosidase can cleave ONPG into o-nitrophenol. What colour is o-nitrophenol (under alkaline conditions)?

A

Bright yellow.

236
Q

What equation could you use to work out the melting point of a primer?

A

4 (G+C) + 2(A+T).

238
Q

What do basic amino acids have in their side chain?

A

A group which is able to bind H+.

239
Q

What is stored in Clarkes fixatives for 4 degrees for three weeks , squashed and dipped in liquid nitrogen to allow the visulisation of chromosomes?

A

Grasshopper testes.

240
Q

The cdc mutant can grow at 25 degrees. What temperature can it not grow at?

A

36 degrees.

241
Q

What two processes can allow for accurate analysis of the human karoytype?

A
  1. FISH 2. G banding
242
Q

Do gram positive or gram negative bacteria have a thick outermembrane?

A

Gram negative.

244
Q

When [A-] equals [HA] what does pKa equal?

A

pH.

245
Q

What is the cause of smearing in gel lane?

A

Nuclease enzymes such as DNases degrading left over fragments of sheared DNA.

246
Q

Is A.nidulans filamentous?

A

Yes.

247
Q

At a low pH what colour is phenol red?

A

Yellow.

248
Q

What type of culture is being described here? 20ml solid medium is grown in a 9 inch petri dish. This is melted and cooled to roughly 50 degrees.

A

Plate culture.

249
Q

At a alkaline pH the colour of aryl sulphatases substrate it yellow. What is the colour of p-nitrocatechol at a alkaline pH?

A

Red.

251
Q

Why do the products of the reaction between lactate and lactate dehydrogenase have to be removed for the reaction to reach completion?

A

Because the equilibrium lies far to the left.

252
Q

What type of stain is methylene blue?

A

A positive stain.

253
Q

What dye is used in electrophoresis?

A

Midori green.

254
Q

The smallest molecules that can completely penertrate the beads elute with a volume equal to the whole volume of liquid in the column. Is this known as VI or Ve?

A

Vi. Ve are different sized beads that have a specific elution volume.

255
Q

What colour is the DCPIP dye when it is oxidised?

A

Deep blue.

256
Q

What does karyogamy involve?

A

The fusion of the two hapolid nuclei in A. nidulands to form a diploid nuclei in sexual reproduction.

257
Q

What type of culture is being described here? The innoculum is added to a melted and cooled agar medium which is then poured into plates. The petri dish is then rotated to ensure an even distribution.

A

Pour plate.

258
Q

Why are E.coli cells washed with TFB1 and TFB2 when they are made competent?

A

It allows the outer membrane to become permeable to Ca2+ and Rb2+.

259
Q

What region of the chromosome does the G stain stain?

A

The heterochromatin ie the gene poor regions,

260
Q

Why are sulphatases found in the soil in Canada very important?

A

As the soil lacks sources of sulphur.

First year (10 decks)

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