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MB2-716 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main components of a solution?

A
  • Schema
  • Templates
  • UI
  • Misc
  • Processes/Steps/Code
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2
Q

Is the default solution managed or unmanaged?

A

Unmanaged

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3
Q

What are general characteristics of managed solutions?

A
  • Cannot be modified directly
  • Becomes managed after being exported as managed and installed in to another org
  • Cannot be exported
  • When removed, all component items are removed
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4
Q

What are the differences in importing and removing managed vs. unamanged solutions?

A

Unmanaged is like a container, so changes remain when you remove it

Managed is like an application, so it removes the components

Importing an unmanaged solution always overwrites

When importing managed, can opt to maintain or overwrite any unmanaged changes

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5
Q

What are the types of entities?

A

System
Custom
Activity

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6
Q

What is a system entity?

A
  • Built in and created when system is deployed
  • Some cannot be modified
  • Cannot be deleted and cannot be locked down by a managed solution
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7
Q

What are the entity properties?

A
  • Entity name, which cannot be changed
  • Prefixed with publisher
  • Ownership cannot be changed once set
  • Can enable/disable ISH
  • Primary field, name can be changed
  • Can be defined as activity
  • Additional include queue, data services, etc.
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8
Q

What 3 things become read only after creating an entity?

A

Name, ownership and activity entity definition

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9
Q

What are the 3 field types?

A

Simple, calculated and rollup

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10
Q

Once a field is defined as calculated, can you change it to simple?

A

No

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11
Q

How many rollup fields can you have per entity?

A

10

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12
Q

What 3 levels can field security apply at?

A
  • Entity - managed through security profiles
  • Record - enabled by sharing specific records
  • Field - controlled by using field security profiles
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13
Q

What are the 4 relationship behaviors?

A
  • Parental - what happens to the parent will cascade down
  • Referential - Changes are not cascaded down
  • Referential Restrict Delete - cannot delete parent if it still has children
  • Configurable Cascading - allows to manually set logic
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14
Q

What does cascade all mean?

A

Performing the action on all of the child records

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15
Q

What does cascade active do?

A

Perform the action only on active child records

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16
Q

What does cascade user owned do?

A

Performs the action on all child records owned by that user

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17
Q

What does cascade none do?

A

Does nothing to child records

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18
Q

What does remove link do?

A

Removes the link

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19
Q

What does restrict do?

A

Applies to delete, which is not allowed if there are other entity instances that reference the ID of the entity being deleted.

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20
Q

How many tabs can a form have?

A

3

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21
Q

How many columns can a section have?

A

4

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22
Q

What is a sub-grid?

A
  • Displays data from other records on a form
  • Usually related records, but can be unrelated
  • Shows data as a list or chart but not both
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23
Q

How do access teams work?

A

A user will add other users to an access team using a sub-grid to grant them access to a record. Records are shared with the access team and not individual users. The user adding new access team members to a record need to have share privileges.

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24
Q

What are the options for business rule scope?

A
  • Single Form
  • All forms
  • Entity
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25
Q

Are business rules triggered when a form is saved?

A

Yes

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26
Q

What are the 3 kinds of views?

A

System
Public
Personal

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27
Q

What is a public view?

A
  • Available for all users for viewing list of records

- Cannot be deleted, but can be renamed/customized or deactivated

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28
Q

Describe the differences between system and personal charts?

A
  • Personal are not included in solutions
  • Personal cannot be included in system dashboards
  • System available to all users, personal can be shared with users or teams
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29
Q

Describe the root business unit

A
  • Cannot be deleted
  • Created when organization is deployed
  • Same name as the organization
  • Cannot be moved to have a parent
  • Can be renamed
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30
Q

What are the main differences in user management between on-premise and online instances of D365?

A

On-prem has authentication dome through domain account and user must exist in active directory

Online is done through O365 account, user must be added to 365 first and them assigned CRM license

31
Q

What are the access levels?

A
  • None
  • User
  • Business Unit
  • Parent:Child
  • Organization
32
Q

What is the user access level?

A

Can only do something to something you own

33
Q

What is the business unit access level?

A

Allows access within business unit or records that have been shared with the business unit

34
Q

What is the parent:child access level?

A

Gives the business unit and records owner and or shared with users in any business unit subordinate to your own unit

35
Q

What is the organization access level?

A

You have access to anything

36
Q

What are the two options for hierarchy security?

A

Manager and Positional

37
Q

Can business process flows contain workflows?

38
Q

Once enabled on the entity, can you disable business process flows?

39
Q

How many entities can you have per stage in a business process flow?

40
Q

What is the maximum number of stages a business process flow can have? And, how many steps can a stage contain?

A

30 stages

30 steps

41
Q

How man levels deep can you go with conditional branching in business process flows?

A

5 levels deep

42
Q

What do you first need to do for to include an entity in a business process flow?

A

Enable the processes in the entity definition when creating

43
Q

When creating a workflow, you need to associate it with a primary/triggering entity, can you change this after creation?

A

No, once set it cannot change

44
Q

How many folder tracking rules can be active at a given time?

45
Q

What are some general benefits of integrating SharePoint with D365?

A
  • Allows for collaboration of non D365 users
  • Gives infrastructure for OneNote
  • Gives access to SharePoint document management features (versioning)
46
Q

Does deleting a document in D365 delete that document in SharePoint if integrated?

47
Q

In terms of integrating SharePoint with D365, what do you need to consider when it comes to security roles?

A

The integration assumes that users will have permissions on both sides to perform actions

48
Q

Do on-premise D365 instances have the option to integrate with OneNote?

49
Q

For SharePoint integration, what are the 2 architectures that exist? Briefly describe them.

A
  • Client-side -generally on-prem and requires list component
  • Server Based - recommended and does not require list component
50
Q

What are the 2 possible folder structures for SharePoint? Briefly describe them.

A
  • Default - creates a separate folder for each record

- Entity Based

51
Q

Does changing an owner in D365 for a OneNote note change the owner in OneDrive?

52
Q

What is the default status of a OneNote note in D365?

A

Private; however, you can share it

53
Q

When will duplicate detection run?

A
  • Record update or creation
  • D365 going offline to online
  • During data imports
  • Can set when the job will run/how often
54
Q

Are SharePoint and/or OneNote integrations part of the solution?

A

No, they need to be configured when moving from Development to Production environments

55
Q

How would you go about setting up Office 365 groups for the D365 user/instance?

A
  • Ensure the user has an O365 subscription that includes Exchange Online and SharePoint online
  • CRM Admin center, set it up
  • Enable ISV extensions in security roles
56
Q

Which business unit is always at the top of the business unit hierarchy?

A

Root Business Unit

57
Q

Which business unit will always default to the root upon unit creation?

A

Parent business unit

58
Q

What are the 5 supported configurations for server-side synch?

A 
D365 Online to Exchange Online 
D365 Online to Exchange On-Prem
D365 On-Prem to Exchange On-Prem
D365 On-Prem to Exchange Online 
D365 to POP/SMTP Servers
59
Q

For a rollup field, what is the max number of records that can be processed when manually refreshing a field? And, what about when it is automated?

A

50,000 max manually

No limit when auto-run

60
Q

For a quick create form, what does it only support?

A

Fields and Spacers

61
Q

How many tabs and columns are quick view forms constrained to?

A

Fixed to 1 Tab

Fixed to single column sections

62
Q

Which of the following are types of forms in D365?

  • Mobile
  • Quick Create
  • Main
  • Quick View
  • Tablet
A

Quick Create
Main
Quick View

63
Q

Which of the following cannot be changed after you save a field?

Field Security
Display Name
Data Type
Auditing

64
Q

Which if the following cannot be turned off once enabled on an entity?

Access Teams
Document Management
Queues
Allow for Quick Create

65
Q

When mapping attributes, what are some of the limitations?

A
  • Mapping only works when a new record is created in the context of a parent record
  • Doesn’t apply if a user creates a new record outside of the context of a parent record
  • Does not keep data synchronized
66
Q

What are restrictions of data/entity mapping?

A
  • Mapped attributes MUST be same data type
  • Length of target should be equal or greater than source
  • Target attribute shouldn’t be involved in another mapping
  • Cannot map to or from a disabled field
67
Q

When does the system check if a user has access to a record through the Hierarchical security model?

A

If the user does not have full access through the Standard Security Model

68
Q

You created a custom entity with forms and views, and published all of your customizations. You see it but no other users can. Which of the following is likely the cause?

  • Forgot to set the managed properties
  • Did not configure relationships
  • Did not set security roles to allow access to the entity
  • Set ownership to organization owned instead of user/team owned
A

Did not set security roles to allow access to the entity

69
Q

What are the 3 field security permissions that can be granted?

A

Read
Create
Update

70
Q

What security concepts does OneNote mirror?

A

SharePoint

71
Q

Does OneDrive require SharePoint integration to already be configured?

72
Q

Does deleting a document in CRM delete it in OneDrive?

73
Q

Does deleting a CRM record remove the OneDrive documents?

74
Q

What are some examples of custom mobile controls?

A 
Calendar
Arc Knob
Auto-Complete
Bullet Graph
Flip Switch
Input Mask
Linear Gauge
Linear Slider
Multimedia
Number Input
Option Sets
Radial Knob
Signature/Pen
Star Rating
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