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MB2-200 > MB2-200 > Flashcards

MB2-200 Flashcards

1
Q

What is needed in a asynch (background) workflow?

A

Wait conditions

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2
Q

When can you configure a workflow to start?

A
  • Automatically in response to update, create, delete, etc.
  • Manually by a user
  • As a child workflow
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3
Q

What does “as a child process” mean when deciding when a workflow is going to run?

A

It will be able to be started from another workflow

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4
Q

What 3 options do you not need to set when creating a custom action?

A
  • Start when: since actions begin when invoked by another process, or when dev code calls message generated for them
  • Scope: actions will always run in context of calling user
  • Run in background - always real time workflows
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5
Q

What are some ways to troubleshoot workflow performance?

A
  • Power Platform analytics (admin center)
  • Analyze system logs
  • Look for jobs failing on regular basis
  • Open individual job record and view error details
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6
Q

A workflow process is deactivated. What happens to workflows currently in process at the time of deactivation?

A).Current workflows enter a waiting status and can be resumed later.

B).Asynchronous workflows are paused, changes made by synchronous workflows are rolled back.

C).Current workflows are canceled.

D).Nothing. Workflows previously triggered will run to completion or cancelation.

A

D).Nothing. Workflows previously triggered will run to completion or cancellation.

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7
Q 
Which type of workflow runs independent of other workflows and plugins?
A). Real time workflow
B). Background workflow 
C). Parent workflow
D). Child workflow
A

Background workflow

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8
Q 
For a workflow with the scope of business unit, which record field indicates the records that will be exposed to the workflow?
A). Owner
B). Territory
C). Business Unit 
D). Scope
A

Owner

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9
Q 
When an asynchronous workflow is triggered by a change in data, whose security roles are used to give the security context? 
A). The owner of the record
B). The owner of the workflow
C). The system administrator
D). The user modifying the record
A

The owner of the workflow

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10
Q

You have a workflow with a wait condition that waits for a specific status reason value. What step would you use to ensure that the process does not wait indefinitely?
A).Synchronous Wait step using process Start time property.

B).Change Status step to update status reason value to the one matching wait condition.

C).Parallel Wait step using Timeout property of the process.

D).You cannot simultaneously wait on multiple conditions.

A

Parallel wait step using timeout property of the process

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11
Q 
With a business process flow users may trigger \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ by entering or exiting a stage.
A). Reports 
B). Workflows 
C). Templates
D). Synchronization
A

Workflows

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12
Q

What is the total number of BPFs that can be active on an Entity?

A

Ten

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13
Q

How do you apply stage gating to a business process flow?
A).Configure a business rule.

B).Configure the stage as required.

C).Mark one of the steps in the stage as required.

D).Create an action step.

A

Mark one of the steps in the stage as required

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14
Q

What happens when data is entered in a field on a form that also has a business process flow with the same fields represented within a stage?

A

the data appears both in both the form and the business process flow

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15
Q

What can you manage for the CDS using the D365 admin center

A 
Open an instance
Edit an instance
Copy an instance
Delete an instance
Change notifications
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16
Q

Describe a tenant in D365

A

The account you create in the MSOFT online services environment

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17
Q

How many production and non-production instances can a tenant contain?

A

50 production

75 non production (sandboxes)

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18
Q

Does each dynamics instance share a SQL database?

A

No, they each get their own

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19
Q

How much storage, by default, does the Customer Engagement Plan include?

A

10gb

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20
Q 
Which of the following is an authentication process that enables a user to access multiple systems or services through a single set of credentials?
A). Administrative Roles
B). Non-Interactive user 
C). Single sign on 
D). Multi-factor authentication
A

Single Sign On

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding multi-instance deployments?
A). All instances with a tenant share the same db
B). Users are only licensed to access one instance on the tenant
C). Users need a separate set of credentials to access every instance on the tenant
D). Available storage is shared amongst all instances within a tenant

A

Available storage is shared amongst all instances within a tenant

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22
Q 
Which of the following admin roles can assign admin permission to other users in Microsoft 365 admin center?
A) .Global Admin
B) .User Management Admin
C) .Billing Admin
D). Dynamics 365 Service Admin
A

Global Admin

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding updates?
A). Updates are released quarterly and installed automatically into every instance
B). Major updates and minor service updates are installed automatically and don’t schedule down time
C). Only minor service updates are installed automatically. Major updates need to be approved and scheduled before they are installed
D). Updates are installed twice a year and customers can delay the installation of updates for up to a year

A

B). Major update and minor service updates are installed automatically and do no schedule downtime

Customer Driven Updates are no longer available, two major releases a year and these updates are backwards compatible

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24
Q 
Which of the following features is only available on the D365 App for Outlook? 
A). Tracking from Outlook for MAC
B). Offline Mode
C). Email Templates
D). Set Regarding
A

Tracking from Outlook for MAC

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25
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding security privileges to access to the mobile app?
A). Privilege is pre-configured for all roles
B). Privilege is not pre configured by default for all roles
C). Privilege is pre-configured for Sales roles but not other security roles
D). The privilege is pre-configured for System Admin only

A

Privilege is preconfigured for sales roles but not other roles

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26
Q

Which of the following D365 record types will be used for controlling access to Microsoft Portals?

A

Contacts

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27
Q

Which mobile app is used to run a model-driven app?

A

Dynamics 365 for Phones

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28
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding mobile offline synchronization?
A). All D365 entities are enabled for offline access by default
B). No D365 entities are enabled for offline access by default
C). Some D365 entities are enabled for offline access by default
D). Offline access can only be enabled for custom entities

A

C

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29
Q

You log into Dynamics 365 for tablets and notice that two dashboards you have access to on the web client are missing. What is likely the cause?
A). Your user account does not have D365 for mobile privilege
B). The dashboards are not mobile enabled
C). Only system dashboards are available in D365 for tablets
D). Dashboards reference entities that are not mobile enabled

A

B

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30
Q

What is a reference panel?

A

Specialized section that can be added to main forms that offers interaction with related data in context of the hosting entity record. Each form can only have 1 but each can have multiple sub-grids

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31
Q

How do you add an editable grid to a form?

A

You need to add a sub-grid and change its properties and add a control of editable grid

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32
Q 
What  form type should you use if you want to display form data on a dashboard?
A). Quick View
B). Main 
C). Card
D). Quick Create
A

Card form type

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33
Q 
Which of the following cannot be added to a quick form?
A).IFRAME
B). Fields
C). Tabs
D). Script
A

IFRAME

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34
Q

What is an editable grid?

A

Special controls for editing select fields from a view without having to open the specific record

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35
Q

A user can configure in personal setting what emails they would like to track. What are the available options?
A). All email messages
B). Email Messages in response to D365 email
C). Email Messages from D365 records that are email enabled
D). All of the above

A

All of the above

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36
Q

You need to configure CDS to work with Microsoft Exchange on-premise. When configuring the email server profile what server type should you specify?

A).Hybrid.
B).POP3/SMTP.
C).On-premise.
D).Exchange Web Services.

A

A).

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37
Q 
One of the main reasons people use Common Data Service for Apps is to store all customer \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in one place, so anyone with the appropriate permissions can see all relevant customer records. Fill in the blank.
A). Emails
B). Letters
C). Notes
D). Communications
A

D).

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38
Q

What is the limit of related records for each relationship in a template?

A

100

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39
Q

What are a couple things to consider about D365 integration with OneDrive?

A

1) . Deleting a document in D365 does delete the document in OneDrive
2) . Deleting a D365 record does not remove the OneDrive documents
3) . Merging records will result in merged record having multiple document locations

40
Q

What happens when deleting a D365 record associated with a OneNote notebook?

A

Only removes the link pointing to the OneNote files, so they will still remain in share point until deleted

41
Q

Can you turn off OneNote integration?

A

Yes

42
Q

What is the point of Office 365 Groups?

A

Provides environment for collaboration with O365 users who do not use D365

43
Q

What does an O365 groups integration require?

A

Installation of Microsoft provided D365 solution

44
Q

What security role is needed for O365 groups?

A

ISV Extensions

45
Q

How many records can you connect to using the O365 connectors for groups?

A

5

46
Q

What 3 kinds of records are supported using the O365 connector for Groups?

A

Account, lead and contact

47
Q

Can Yammer be removed once connected?

A

No

48
Q

What does a user need before using Yammer in Dynamics?

A

Organization needs to have Yammer enterprise licenses

49
Q 
You are wanting to work with files from SharePoint from within Dynamics 365. Where can you access SharePoint files from in the Dynamics 365 Interface?
A).From the command menu
B). SharePoint Tab on a form 
C). Documents Tab on a form 
D). From the main menu
A

C

50
Q

You have setup the integration between Dynamics 365 and Groups. People with the Sales role have full access to all the functionality offered in Groups from within Dynamics 365. For some reason people that have the customer service role are having problems. What should you check?

A

Check that the customer service role has ISV extensions privilege

51
Q

Unlike word templates, which are generated from a specific record, Excel templates are only generated from______.

A). Tabs
B).Views
C). Sections
D). Forms

A

B).

52
Q

During bulk deletion, if the job fails, what happens with roll back?

A

The records that succeeded before the job failure will remain deleted

53
Q

Do bulk delete jobs trigger delete actions specified by cascade rules?

A

Yes

54
Q 
Some system views, such as accounts ':' no campaign activities in last 3 months, can be exported only to what type of Excel file?
A).Excel online
B).Excel Dynamics worksheet
C).Static Excel worksheet
D).None of the above
A

Static Excel Worksheet

55
Q 
You are using Organization Insights to monitor storage and want a more granular view of between date ranges on your storage consumption what should you do?
A). Change filters
B). Change tabs 
C). Go to data integrations 
D). Go to data policies
A

Change filters

56
Q

Bulk deleting one record causes deletion of related records. What is the reason?
A).Bulk delete is configured to also delete the related records.
B).Bulk deletion triggers a workflow and the workflow deletes the related records.
C).Cascade Delete is configured on the entity relationship.
D).All of the above.

A

C).

57
Q

What are the 4 components/features of portals? And what 3 build the portal foundation?

A

Content, Extensibility, Security, and Functionality

First 3 are the foundation

58
Q

What are the two types of templates that can be used in D365 Portals?

A

Rewrite and Web Template

59
Q

How are portal users stored in Dynamics?

A

As contacts

60
Q

What are the 2 options for portal authentication and what is the difference?

A

Local Authentication - usernames and password hashes stored in D365 contact record

External Authentication - handled by 3rd party, OAuth2 (MSOFT, twitter, etc), Open ID(Azure AD), or WsFederation and SAML2.0

61
Q

What records can Web Role be associated with?

A

Website permissions, Webpage Access Rules, Entity Permissions

62
Q

Where is the content of a Web File stored?

A

Azure Blob Storage

63
Q 
What role is required to be able to provision D365 portal for an organization?
A). System Admin
B). Office 365 global admin
C). System customizer
D). D365 Portal Admin
A

A).

64
Q 
You created a web role Content Editors. What records would you associate this role with to allow front-side editing for users with that role?
A). Web Page Access Rules
B). Website Permissions 
C). Web Page
D). Entity Permissions
A

B). Website Permissions

65
Q

What are the intended audiences of D365 portals?

A

Customers, Employees and Partners

Meant for internal and external communities not competitors

66
Q 
Which record defines the header and the footer for the entire site?
A). Website
B). Website Binding
C). Page Template
D). Site Setting
A

A). Website

67
Q

In a single language portal, how many WebPage records exist for each portal page?
A). 0
B). 1
C). 2
D). Between 0 and 2 depending if page is published

A

2, every webpage will have a root webpage and a content page for the base language

68
Q

Which template type supports inheritance?
A). Rewrite Template
B). Nested template
C). Web Template
D). All template types support inheritance

A

Web Template, can be rendered on their own or can be included as part of another template. They support inheritance where one template is based on and extends functionality of another

69
Q

Which security roles have required privileges to access D365 Portal App?
A).Portal Administrator and System Administrator

B).Dynamics 365 Portal App Access

C).CEO-Business Manager and System Administrator

D).System Administrator and System Customizer

A

D

70
Q

You have provisioned a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement Application. What do you need to do before provisioning a starter portal?
A). Install D365 portals app from app source
B). Download D365 Portal subscription pak
C). Verify if your organization meets minimum licensing requirements for a complementary portal instance
D). Enable sample data in your D365 for customer Engagement Instance

A

C).

71
Q 
What starter portals are NOT available for the customer audience? 
A). Customer self service
B). eCommerce Portal
C). Community Portal
D). Custom Portal
A

B). eCommerce

72
Q

Where do you author new Knowledge Articles for the Portal?

A

Customer Service Hub App

73
Q 
What feature is only available in Community Starter Portal?
A). Forums
B). Blogs 
C). Event Management 
D). Knowledge Articles
A

B). blogs

74
Q

Which part of the portal upgrade must be done by administrator?

Reissue portal authentication key

Backup instance prior to upgrade

Update Portal solutions

Update Portal website hosts

A

Update Portal Solutions

75
Q

What do you need to configure custom domain name for the portal?

SSL certificate from Microsoft

A domain name that starts with the word ‘portal’

SSL certificate signed by a trusted certificate authority

Portal authentication key

A

SSL Certificate signed by a trusted certificate authority

76
Q

Developers complained that the latest changes to metadata are not visible in the portal. What is the most efficient way to resolve the issue?
A). Reset Portal
B). Change portal state to off and then back to on
C). Clear Cache
D). Restart the portal

A

Clear cache

77
Q

What tool would you need to use to migrate portal configuration between the environments?
Custom tool developed for specific portal configuration

SolutionPackager tool

Portal configuration cannot be migrated

Configuration Migration tool

A

Configuration Migration Tool

78
Q 
Which authentication method allows portal users to sign in using username and password stored in Dynamics 365?
A). Windows authentication
B). Local authentication
C). Form authentication 
D). External Authentication
A

B). Local Authentication

79
Q 
Portal user has not confirmed their email. What will they NOT be able to do?
A). Sign in to the portal
B). Use two-factor auth
C). Change their email
D). register for forums notifications
A

B).

80
Q 
You need to invite a group of 50 contacts from the same company to register on your portal. Which registration method would you use?
A). Closed Registration
B). Open Registration
C). Invitation Based Registration
D). Email Registration
A

Invitation Based

81
Q

Which authentication provider is recommended?

A

Azure AD B2C, and if a third party provider is supported (Facebook) then it can be configured in Azure AD B2C instead of portal

82
Q

You created a new partner price list page but accidentally saved it under public company announcements instead of a partner channel page. How can you fix the mistake?
A). Create a shortcut under correct parent page and point it to the price list page. Hide price list page from the site map

B).Change the page partial URL to point to correct parent

C). Edit the page and select correct value in the Parent Page field

D). Drag and drop page in the site map tree

A

C). Any page attribute including Parent Page can be changed when editing the page. You cannot rearrange pages in the site map tree. Other suggestions will not achieve the desired result.

83
Q

You created a Customers Only page on the portal that does not allow anonymous access and added it to the main menu. Business users complained that the page is not visible in the main menu until visitors sign-in, and would like the link to be always visible. How can you implement this requirement?
A).Edit the web link and point it to the Sign-In page but keep Customers Only as a title.

B).Starter Portals do not support this functionality.

C).Select Ignore Security option on the main menu Web Link Set

D).Edit the web link and select Disable Page Validation option

A

D).

84
Q

Business complained that portal search results do not include matching content of the Web Files attachments. You have set site setting ‘Search/IndexNotesAttachments’ to ‘true’ but results are still not returned. What is your next step?
A).Check that Relevance search is enabled in your Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement instance
B).Set ‘KnowledgeManagement/DisplayNotes’ site setting to ‘true’

C).Restart the portal

D).Web File attachments cannot be searched in Dynamics 365 Portals

A

A).
To search within the web files attachments, you must set Search/IndexNotesAttachments to true and enable relevance search in Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement instance.

85
Q

You have been asked to make the background darker on the portal’s Home page only. Designer has provided you with a snippet of CSS that applies the effect. How would you use this CSS?
A).Add new ‘home.css’ web file

B).Replace content of ‘bootstrap.min.css’ file

C).Add new Content Snippet ‘Home/Background’

D).Set Custom CSS field for the Home page.

A

D).

86
Q

All users signing into the portal are implicitly assigned what role?
A). Customers Role
B). Role marked as Authenticated Users Role
C). Built in All Users Role
D). No role is assigned implicitly

A

B).

87
Q

Jane can manage News section of the site because she has News Editors web role assigned. She needs to modify the main site menu to enable direct access to News categories. When she hovers the mouse over the main menu, Edit button does not appear. How would you resolve the issue?
A). Ask Jane to try a different mouse
B). Assign Authenticated User role to Jane
C). Create Website Access Permission record, select Manage web link sets and associate it with news editors role
D). Modify custom CSS for news page and add on mouse-hover true; line

A

D).

88
Q 
What setting for the Right property is used by Webpage Access Control Rule to control read access to a page?
A). Grant Read
B). Deny Access
C). Restrict Read
D). Read Only
A

C).

89
Q

What can be used to allow access to a knowledge article only for the users in a particular web role?
A). Control Access Levels
B). User Language Setting
C). Knowledge article access control rules
D). Unpublish the knowledge article for all users not in the web role

A

D).

90
Q

What is the common flow of activity in Power BI?
A).Create a report in Power BI mobile, share it to the Power BI Desktop, view and interact in the Power BI service.

B).Create a report in the Power BI service, share it to Power BI mobile, interact with it in Power BI Desktop.

C).Bring data into Power BI Desktop and create a report, share it to the Power BI service, view and interact with reports and dashboards in the service and Power BI mobile.

D).Bring data into Power BI mobile, create a report, then share it to Power BI Desktop.

A

C).

91
Q

Which of the following are building blocks of Power BI?
A).Tiles, dashboards, databases, mobile devices.

B).Visualizations, datasets, reports, dashboards, tiles.

C).Visual Studio, C#, and JSON files.

A

B).

92
Q

A collection of ready-made visuals, pre-arranged in dashboards and reports is called what in Power BI?

A

An app

93
Q

Which of the following tools let you shape data sources?

A).The Power BI Gateway.

B).The Relationships view in Power BI Desktop.

C).The Power BI admin portal.

D).Power Query Editor in either Power BI Desktop or Power BI Service.

A

D).

94
Q

Which of the following statements is true about shaping data with Power BI Desktop?
A).The order in which you shape or transform data doesn’t matter, it all comes out the same.

B).When shaping or transforming data in Power BI Desktop, the source data remains unchanged.

C).When shaping or transforming data in Power BI Desktop, the source data is also shaped and transformed.

A

B).

95
Q

What is the recommended method to share your reports?

A

Publish them to the Power BI service

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