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Maycro Flashcards

1
Q

Droplet nuclei is transmitted through?

a. Coughing/Sneezing
b. Speaking/Gossiping
c. Singing
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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2
Q

The laboratory received a stool culture from a patient experiencing severe abdominal cramps and bloody diarrhea. The sample should be minimally processed using:

a. BSL-1 safety practices
b. BSL-2 safety practices
a. c. BSL-3 safety practices

A

b. BSL-2 safety practices

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3
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is under what BSL?

a. BSL-I
b. BSL-II
c. BSL-III
d. BSL-IV

A

c. BSL-III

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4
Q

Handling the Mycobacterium tuberculosis and preparing AFB smears and non-aerosolizing procedures STRICTLY REQUIRES:

a. BSL-1 safety practices
b. BSL-2 safety practices
c. BSL-3 safety practices
d. BSL-4 safety practices

A

b. BSL-2 safety practices

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5
Q

Suspected Mycobacterium tuberculosis is grown, propagated, manipulated for molecular testing and sonication:

a. BSL-2 safety practices with NIOSH certified Respirator masks
b. BSL-2 safety practices without NIOSH certified Respirator masks
c. BSL-3 safety practices with NIOSH certified Respirator masks
d. BSL-3 safety practices without NIOSH certified Respirator masks

A

c. BSL-3 safety practices with NIOSH certified Respirator masks

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6
Q

Identify the transmission-based isolation technique: (contact/droplet/airborne)

C. difficile

A

Contact

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7
Q

Identify the transmission-based isolation technique: (contact/droplet/airborne)

Rubeola virus

A

Airborne (Measles)

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8
Q

Identify the transmission-based isolation technique: (contact/droplet/airborne)

B. pertussis

A

Droplets

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9
Q

Iodophor is composed of iodine and?

A. 75% ethanol
B. QUATS/Detergent

A

B. QUATS/Detergent

NOTE: 75% ethanol is for tincture of iodine

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10
Q

Which antibiotic is used to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns caused by N. gonorrhoeae?

A. Erythromycin
B. Silver nitrate
C. Mercuric chloride
D. Both A and B

A

A. Erythromycin

Silver nitrate also prevents ophthalmia neonatorum, HOWEVER it is NOT an antibiotic

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11
Q

True/False:
Autoclave tapes determine the successful killing of all microbes in the waste

A

FALSE; autoclave tapes only determine the performance of autoclave [if it reaches 121C]

To determine if there is a successful killing of all microbes in the waste, perform CULTURE.
No growth = all microbes are killed

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12
Q

TRUE/FALSE:
Pre-treated biological wastes can be considered and handled as non-infectious waste?

A

FALSE

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13
Q

Biosafety issue/Biosecurity issue?

Recapping of needle

A

Biosafety issue

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14
Q

Biosafety issue/Biosecurity issue?

Protestant Activists

A

Biosecurity issue

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15
Q

Biosafety issue/Biosecurity issue?

Work overload

A

Biosafety issue

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16
Q

Biosafety issue/Biosecurity issue?

Disgruntled staff

A

Biosecurity issue

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17
Q

Biosafety issue/Biosecurity issue?

Lack of staff training

A

Biosafety issue

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18
Q

Biosafety issue/Biosecurity issue?

Alarms maintenance overdue

A

Biosecurity issue

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19
Q

BSC with 70% air recirculated?

A

BSC II A1

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20
Q

In gram stain, what is the color of the Escherichia coli after addition of Gram Iodine and washing it with water?

A. Purple
B. Red
C. Colorless

A

A. Purple

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21
Q

Use of an acidic iodine or omitting iodine from the procedure will make S. aureus color ____ at the end of gram stain?

A. Purple
B. Red
C. Colorless

A

B. Red

S. aureus is Gram positive (+). However, in this situation, an acidic iodine was used (should be basic). Hence, gram(+) appears as gram(-) at the end of gram stain (safranin)

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22
Q

Poorly staining Legionella in safranin is resolved using?

A. Carbolfuschin
B. 0.1% fuchsin
C. 10% fuchsin
D. Acridine orange

A

B. 0.1% fuchsin

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23
Q

Final evaluation of microorganisms is done using?

A. Low Power Objective (10x)
B. High Power Objective (40x)
C. Oil Immersion Objective (100x)

A

C. Oil Immersion Objective (100x)

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24
Q

Mucoidal colonies in BAP indicates presence of:

A. Flagella
B. Spores
C. Capsule
D. Metachromatic granules

A

C. Capsule

Mucoidal = slime layer/antiphagocytic

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25
Q

Bacteria X at incubator = 0 CFU
Bacteria X at Candle Jar= 70 CFU
Bacteria X at Gas Pak Jar = 0 CFU

What bacteria classification?

A

Capnophilic bacteria

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26
Q

Bacteria X at incubator = 100 CFU
Bacteria X at Gas Pak Jar = 0 CFU

What bacteria classification?

A

Obligate Aerobe (requires oxygen)

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27
Q

Bacteria X at incubator = 100 CFU
Bacteria X at Gas Pak Jar = 50 CFU

What bacteria classification?

A

Facultative anaerobe

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28
Q

Bacteria X at incubator = 100 CFU
Bacteria X at Gas Pak Jar = 100 CFU

What bacteria classification?

A

Aerotolerant anaerobe

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29
Q

To subculture Prevotella spp. from a thioglycolate broth, you should stick the loop

A. at the top layer of the tube
B. at the middle layer of the tube
C. at the bottom layer of the tube
D. anywhere in the tube

A

C. at the bottom layer of the tube

Prevotella spp. (anaerobic bacteria): they are obligate anaerobe, settled in the lower portion of the thioglycolate broth

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30
Q

Growth in BAP
No Growth in MAC
No growth in CAP

A. Gram (+)
B. Gram (-)

A

A. Gram (+)

Gram (+) only grows in BAP

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31
Q

Growth in BAP
Growth in MAC
Growth in CAP

A. Gram (+)
B. Gram (-)

A

B. Gram (-)

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32
Q

No Growth in BAP
Growth in MAC
No Growth in CAP

A. Gram (+)
B. Gram (-)

A

B. Gram (-)

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33
Q

No Growth in BAP
No Growth in MAC
Growth in CAP

A. Gram (+)
B. Gram (-)

A

B. Gram (-)

Neisseria, Haemophilus, Francisella

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34
Q

If a microbial media contains antibiotic, then, it is used to grow?

A. Fungi
B. Bacteria
C. Virus
D. Fungi and Virus
E. Bacteria, Fungi, and Virus

A

D. Fungi and Virus

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35
Q

If a microbial media contains Gentamicin and Amphotericin B then, it is used for?

A. Fungi
B. Bacteria
C. Viruses
D. Fungi and Bacteria
E. Fungi and Virus

A

C. Viruses

Gentamicin is an antibiotic (kills bacteria).
Amphotericin B is an antifungal (kills fungi)

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36
Q

What are the Components of Viral Transport Media (VTM)?

A

Amphotericin B and Gentamicin

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37
Q

Which media is not used to isolate common enteric organisms?

A. TCBS
B. HEA
C. CNA
D. MAC

A

C. CNA

Also PEA. CNA and PEA are for gram positive

38
Q

Which bacteria may be missed out using common transport media?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Enterobacteriaceae
C. Campylobacter fetus
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Common transport media: Amies, Stuarts.
JEMBEC is used for Neisseria

39
Q

Taq Polymerase is used in:

A. Denaturation
B. Annealing
C. Elongation
D. All of the above

A

C. Elongation

40
Q

Majority of Laboratory exposure is caused by?

A. Equipment failure
B. Equipment failure
C. Engineering factor
D. Human factor

A

D. Human factor (80% exposure)

Equipment failure &
Equipment failure (20% exposure)

41
Q

Specimens in the micro lab are processed in:

A. First-come First-serve basis
B. Accordance to level of prioritization
C. Sequential manner according to time received
D. Accordance to the patient’s relation to the Medtech

A

B. Accordance to level of prioritization

42
Q

Which of this is acceptable to prevent clotting of synovial fluid for GS/CS?

A. Heparin
B. Citrate
C. Oxalate
D. SPS

A

D. 0.025% SPS (best answer)

Heparin contains inhibitor; only good for viral/M. tuberculosis culture. It inhibits gram pos (+) and yeasts.

43
Q

What anticoagulant should be requested for blood culture collection?

A. blue-top
B. citrate
C. yellow-top
D. SPS

A

D. SPS (0.025%)

44
Q

Which is a rejected sample for culture?

A. Stool for cholera
B. Stool with urine for bacterial culture
C. Ear swab for anaerobic culture
D. CSF for anaerobic culture

A

B & C

45
Q

6 mm depth of MHA will lead to?

A. higher MIC
B. lower MIC

A

A. higher MIC

6 mm depth MHA (incorrect; should be 3-5 mm only) –> more nutrients –> advantageous to bacteria –> false resistant –> SMALLER zone of inhibition –> HIGHER MIC

46
Q

0.2 McFarland standard is used for Kirby bauer susceptibility testing.

A. higher MIC
B. lower MIC

A

B. lower MIC

0.2 McFarland standard (incorrect; should be 0.5) –> lower inoculum size –> less bacteria is inoculated –> disadvantageous to bacteria –> false sensitive –> LARGER zone of inhibition –> LOWER MIC

47
Q

Bacterial growth inside the zone of inhibition indicates?

A. Mixed culture
B. Resistant mutant strains
C. Both A and B

A

C. Both A and B

48
Q

In disk diffusion method, which statement is true?

A. Drug concentration for each disk is set by FDA
B. Bacterial suspension should be equivalent to 5 McFarland standard
C. Surface of plate is swabbed in 4 directions and a rim on the plate
D. Disk diffusion is preferred method for slow-grower and anaerobes

A

A. Drug concentration for each disk is set by FDA

  • 0.5 McFarland standard
  • 3 directions
  • Less preferred (Broth dilution is the preferred)
49
Q

All are read using reflected light except:

A. Methicillin and vancomycin zone of inhibition
B. SBA hemolytic patterns
C. Both A and B

A

C. Both A and B

both should be read using transmitted light not reflected light

50
Q

Antibiotic generally effective for gram positive organisms is:

A. aminoglycoside
B. Beta-lactam drugs
C. Folic acid inhibitors
D. Nitrofurantoin

A

B. Beta-lactam drugs
(Targets the penicillin binding proteins that is present in the cell wall of gram pos (+) organisms)

51
Q

Treatment of choice for MRSA is?

A. Kanamycin
B. Gentamycin
C. Vancomycin
D. Erythromycin

A

C. Vancomycin

52
Q

TRUE/FALSE: In AST of capnophilic organisms such as Neisseria, Haemophilus, and Streptococcus, the test medium agar plates should be incubated in candle jar.

A

TRUE

53
Q

A MedTech noticed concentric rings of growth as he is testing proteus isolate for amikacin sensitivity, he should:

A. Use another antibiotic disk
B. Read using transmitted light
C. Ignore and record defined zones
D. Repeat the Kirby Bauer disk diffusion

A

C. Ignore and record defined zones

Concentric = swarming

54
Q

A continuation of MIC test is for determination of tolerance is?

A. MBC
B. E-test
C. Chromogenic cephalosporin
D. ICR

A

A. MBC

55
Q

Which is incorrect regarding testing of MRSA?

A. Incubate at strictly no above 35degC
B. Cefoxitin is used to detect mecA gene-mediated oxacillin resistance
C. It is oxacillin resistant
D. Adding 2% NaCl causes false resistant

A

D. Adding 2% NaCl causes false resistant

56
Q

Which swab is not ideal for both Neisseria and PCR?

A. Flocked Nylon swab
B. Rayon swab
C. Dacron swab
D. Calcium alginate swab

A

D. Calcium alginate swab

57
Q

Genital ulcers are best swabbed at the:

A. Surface of the lesion
B. Base of the lesion
C. Edge of the lesion
D. Any of the choices

A

B. Base of the lesion

Edge of the lesion is for –> Erysipeloid and Fungi

58
Q

What part of the bacteria is being used as a biological indicator?

A

Spores

59
Q

VP positive, PYR negative

A. S. aureus
B. S. epidermidis
C. S. schleiferi
D. S. citreus

A

A. S. aureus (also DNase +)

60
Q

The most predominant cause of bacterial skin infection such as impetigo, boils, sty, or even acne is?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

A. Staphylococcus aureus

61
Q

TRUE/FALSE: Staphylococcus that don’t produce clumping factor is called CoNS (Coagulase-negative Staphylococcus)

A

FALSE - Free coagulase (tube coagulase) should be the basis if Staphylococcus is CoNS or not (Confirmatory coagulase)

62
Q

Bacitracin disc in Group A streptococcus from throat swab is primarily used for?

A. Susceptibility testing to detect drug resistant strains
B. Identification
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B

A

B. Identification

63
Q

Group A streptococcus is positive in:

A. NaCl tolerance
B. Pyrrolidonyl acrylamidase
C. Staphylocoagulase activity
D. Bile esculin hydrolysis

A

B. Pyrrolidonyl acrylamidase

64
Q

Which bacteria is considered as colonizers, except:

A. S. agalactiae
B. S. pyogenes
C. Viridans streptococci
D. Enterococcus

A

B. S. pyogenes (always considered as a pathogen)

65
Q

Equivocal (<14 mm) results in Taxo P for S. pneumoniae is confirmed using:

A. PYRase
B. Hemolysis test on BAP
C. Bile esculin hydrolysis
D. Bile solubility

A

D. Bile solubility

66
Q

What is the Biosafety Level of M. tuberculosis?

A. BSL 2
B. BSL 3

A

B. BSL 3

67
Q

Identify specie based on the FF. unique characteristics:

Neufeld quellung and bile solubility test positive, Taxo P

A

S. pneumoniae

68
Q

Identify specie based on the FF. unique characteristics:

Test tube brush appearance, catalase negative

A

E. rhusiopathiae

69
Q

Identify specie based on the FF. unique characteristics:

Serpentine cord factor positive

A

M. tuberculosis

70
Q

Identify specie based on the FF. unique characteristics:

Gray-white pseudo membrane in throat

A

C. diphtheria

71
Q

Identify specie based on the FF. unique characteristics:

Branching, Casein positive

A

N. brasiliensis

72
Q

Non-acid fast, no spores, non-branching:

A. Mycobacteria
B. Bacillus
C. Corynebacterium
D. Nocardia

A

C. Corynebacterium
(Has no spores but with metachromatic granules)

73
Q

Which is not ideal for collecting Neisseria specimen?

A. Cotton swab
B. Ice packs
C. Calcium alginate swab
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

74
Q

A purulent penile discharge has a lot of intracellular and extracellular gram-negative cocci in PMN, the next test to do is?

A. Catalase test
B. Oxidase test
C. Superoxol test
D. Carbohydrate utilization in CTA

A

C. Superoxol test

75
Q

Part of the bacteria that is considered as the basis for classification?

A

cell wall

76
Q

What is the basis of classification for viruses?

A

nucleic acid/genome

77
Q

Proteus vulgaris antigens are OX19 and:

A. OX20
B. OXK
C. OX2
D. OXF

A

C. OX2

78
Q

Which disk diffusion scenario will require a repeat AST?

A. Smooth hazes around SXT disk is observed.
B. Proteus swarming is very evident in almost whole plate
C. Confluent lawn of growth is observed but no zone of inhibition is noticed after incubation for 18 hrs.
D. Opaque creamy colonies with some translucent flat colonies are seen in the plate of an identified Staphylococcus specie

A

D. Opaque creamy colonies with some translucent flat colonies are seen in the plate of an identified Staphylococcus specie (2 colony characteristics = not pure culture, hence REPEAT)

79
Q

Which antigen/s is/are used to identify the serotypes of shigella?

A. O antigen
B. H antigen
C. either of the choices
D. neither of the choices

A

A. O antigen

80
Q

Which bacteria may grow in media with 0% NaCl?

A. V. cholerae
B. V. parahemolyticus
C. V. vulnificus
D. V. alginolyticus

A

A. V. cholerae (also V. mimicus)

Not halophile

81
Q

Which organisms are plump coccobacilli that may resist decolorization (may appear as gram positive) or may be mistaken for Neisseria spp. based on shape and arrangement?

A. Acinetobacter
B. Bordetella
C. Stenotrophomonas
D. Burkholderia

A

A. Acinetobacter

82
Q

A rectal swab is submitted for anaerobic culture. The medtech should:

A. Set up swab on the routine laboratory media for Gas Pak culture
B. Set up the swab on routine stool and anaerobic media
C. Reject the specimen
D. Use the swab for toxin testing to identify C. difficile

A

C. Reject the specimen

Swab is not for anaerobes and fungi

83
Q

Aside from gram stain, cellular morphology, and spore formation, what other tests is used to identify anaerobic bacteria?

A. Enzyme immunoassay
B. Gas-liquid chromatography
C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
D. Special staining

A

B. Gas-liquid chromatography
(metabolites detection)

84
Q

Which will ensure that anaerobiosis is achieved?

A. condensation is observed in the media
B. Resazurin indicator strip turns into pink
C. Methylene blue indicator turns colorless
D. All of the above

A

C. Methylene blue indicator turns colorless

85
Q

Infant botulism is caused by?

A. ingestion of spores in food/liquid
B. Ingestion of preformed toxin in food

A

A. ingestion of spores in food/liquid

86
Q

Foodborne botulism is caused by?

A. ingestion of spores in food/liquid
B. Ingestion of preformed toxin in food

A

B. Ingestion of preformed toxin in food

Foodborne botulism (classical botulism)

87
Q

Enumerate the three bacteria that can cause food poisoning due to preformed toxins?

A

Bacillus cereus
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium botulinum

88
Q

Specimen characteristics of an anaerobic infection include:

A. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and green fluorescence
B. Foul odor, presence of metachromatic granules, and green fluorescence
C. Foul odor, sulfur smell, and red fluorescence
D. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and red fluorescence

A

D. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and red fluorescence

89
Q

A gram-negative rod is isolated from a clinical specimen collected from a female patient with a genital swab. the organism is characterized as kanamycin-sensitive, colistin-sensitive, vancomycin-resistant, bile hydrolysis-negative, and positive for urea hydrolysis and nitrate reduction. this organism is most likely:

A. Fusobacterium
B. B. ureolyticus
C. Veilonella
D. C. difficile

A

B. B. ureolyticus

90
Q

Majority of laboratory errors occur in what testing phase?

A. Preanalytical/Preexamination
B. Analytical/Examination
C. Postanalytical/Postexamination
D. Occurrence are distributed among the 3 phases

A

A. Preanalytical/Preexamination

91
Q

Which ISO is used by medical laboratories in developing their quality management systems and assessing their own competence, and for use by accreditation bodies in confirming or recognizing the competence of medical laboratories?

A. ISO 17025:2005
B. ISO 17043:2010
C. ISO 15189:2007
D. ISO 19518:2007

A

C. ISO 15189:2007

92
Q

Gaas pak jar should be checked every use, while speed of centrifuge is twice a year.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the first statement is true
D. Only the second statement is true

A

A. Both statements are true

Compilations (4 decks)

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