Max904511

Question 1

According to the Recommended Practice, principles of firefighting with foam, firefighting foam improves the extinguishing performance of water on many fires. Depending on the foam, list how this may be achieved.

Answer 1

Firefighting foam improves the extinguishing performance of water in several ways, depending on the type of foam being used. The key mechanisms include:
1. Surface Cooling:
• Foam allows water to spread more effectively over surfaces, enhancing its cooling effect and reducing the heat of the fire.
2. Smothering (Oxygen Exclusion):
• Foam creates a barrier between the fuel and the surrounding air, cutting off the oxygen supply needed for combustion.
3. Vapor Suppression:
• Foam prevents the release of flammable vapors from the fuel surface, reducing the risk of re-ignition.
4. Fuel Separation:
• Foam physically isolates the fuel from the fire by covering it with a stable foam blanket, which interrupts the fire triangle (fuel, oxygen, heat).
5. Adhesion to Surfaces:
• Certain foams adhere to vertical or irregular surfaces, providing prolonged protection and cooling of exposed areas.
6. Increased Penetration:
• Some foams, like wetting agents, reduce the surface tension of water, enabling it to penetrate porous or tight surfaces, which is particularly useful for Class A fires (solid combustibles).
7. Heat Resistance:
• A properly formulated foam layer resists breaking down under high temperatures, maintaining its protective qualities longer.

Each type of foam (e.g., Aqueous Film-Forming Foam [AFFF], Class A foam, Protein foam, or Alcohol-Resistant AFFF) is optimized for specific fire scenarios and contributes differently to fire suppression.

Question 2

According to the Recommended Practice, Automatic External Defibrillator (AED) operation is based on three functions which conform to the internationally accepted algorithm of basic life support using AEDs. List these functions.

Answer 2

1. Rhythm Analysis
   The AED automatically analyzes the heart rhythm of the patient to determine whether a shockable rhythm (e.g., ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia) is present.
   
   2. Energy Delivery (Defibrillation)
      If a shockable rhythm is detected, the AED prompts the user to deliver a defibrillation shock to help restore a normal heart rhythm.
   3. Guided CPR Assistance
      Many AEDs provide real-time audio or visual instructions to guide rescuers through chest compressions and rescue breathing during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

Question 3

According to Operations Bulletin 2012/03, list the properties of Natural gas.

Answer 3

Natural gas is:
• a fossil fuel which contains 95% methane (CH4)
• naturally odourless but has an organic sulphur compound added to make it more readily detectable
• non-toxic but it is an asphyxiant (excludes air)
• highly flammable and has explosive limits of 5 - 15% in air
• lighter than air and disperses rapidly.

Question 4

According to the SOG- acetylene is a very volatile gas. Exploding cylinders can penetrate double brick walls or metal freight containers and land 200m away. How many hours after the cylinder is removed from the fire or heat source, if it is not cooled, can this explosion occur?  

Answer 4

Explosion Timing for Acetylene Cylinders:
An acetylene cylinder, if not adequately cooled after exposure to fire or heat, can explode up to 24 hours after being removed from the heat source.

Question 5

According to the SOGs - When providing fire protection for helicopter hot refuelling there are many factors for the FRNSW Commander to consider. List these factors.

Answer 5

The FRNSW Commander should consider the:
• number and size of helicopters using the landing site
• expected number of landings and take-offs
• amount and type of fuel stored on site, and
• availability of reticulated water for firefighting.
If required, the FRNSW Commander shouid request the attendance of additional appliances, foam trailers or bulk water supplies.

Question 6

According to the SOG - When providing fire protection for helicopter hot refuelling, list the information the airbase manager must provide in regard to safety.

Answer 6

During refuelling, firefighters in full PPE will stand by with lines of hose charged, foam eductor attached and B Class foam ready to be inducted.
• Prevent water or foam streams from hitting moving rotors as this may cause catastrophic failure of the rotors and cause serious injury or death for people nearby.
• When life is not at risk, advice should be sought on how to minimise damage to the aircraft before applying foam or water streams.
• When life is at risk, the FRNSW Commander should direct firefighters to apply foam to a fuel fire immediately.

Question 7

According to the Recommended Practice - List the 5 typical scenarios for Attack and Lay Pack use.

Answer 7

Structure fires that cannot be directly accessed from the footpath
• Fires in high rise buildings
• Investigating automatic fire alarms
• Protecting property from bushfires
• Bush and grass fires in difficult to access locations.

Question 8

Complete the following in relation to the Fire and Rescue NSW Act 1989 Part 3, Division 1, Section 11 Brigades to proceed with speed to suspected fires or hazardous material incidents-

(1) When there is an alarm of fire…….

(2) When there is a report of hazardous material incident………….

(a)
 
(b)

Answer 8

Fire and Rescue NSW Act 1989 Part 3, Division 1, Section 11

(1) When there is an alarm of fire:
The brigade must proceed with all practicable speed to the scene of the fire.

(2) When there is a report of a hazardous material incident:

(a) The brigade must proceed with all practicable speed to the scene of the incident.

(b) The brigade must take all reasonable measures to protect life, property, and the environment from harm caused by the hazardous material.

Question 9

Complete the following in relation to the Fire and Rescue NSW Act 1989 Part 3, Division 1, Section 12, Investigation of reported fires and Hazardous material incidents-

(1) The officer in charge may,
(a)

(b)
(2)

Answer 9

(1) The officer in charge may, with or without members of a fire brigade, enter any place-
(a) in respect of which an alarm of fire is raised to ascertain whether there is a fire at the place, or
(b) in respect of which a report of a hazardous material incident has been made to ascertain whether there is any hazardous material at the place that is, or is about to be, the subject of a hazardous material incident.
(2) Reasonable force, whether by breaking down gates or fences or breaking open doors or otherwise, may be used to gain entry.

Question 10

Section 13, of the Fire and Rescue NSW Act 1989 states the “general powers of officers at fires and hazardous material incidents”- State this provision.  
  

Answer 10

13 General powers of officers at fires and hazardous material incidents

(1) At a fire, the officer in charge
(a) may take such measures as the officer thinks proper for the protection and saving of life and property and for the control and extinguishing of the fire, and
(b) is to control and direct the operations of any fire brigade.
(1A) At the site of a hazardous material incident, the officer in charge—
(a) may take such measures as the officer thinks proper for the protection and saving of life and property, for confining and ending the incident and for rendering the site safe, and

(b) is to control and direct the operations of any fire brigade.
The site is taken to be such area in the vicinity of the incident as is for the time being determined by the officer in charge.

(2) If the fire is a bush fire (including a grass fire), the officer in charge is, as far as practicable, to carry into effect any plan of operations in force under section 52 of the Rural Fires Act 1997 in relation to the place where the fire occurs.

(3) The following provisions of this Division are intended to be particular examples of the way in which functions under this section can be exercised and are not intended to limit the generality of this section.

Question 11

Division 1 of the Fire and Rescue NSW Act 1989 lists the powers at fires and hazardous material incidents. State the provisions of Section 19- “General power to remove persons or obstacles.”  

Answer 11

(1) At a fire, the officer in charge—
(a) may take such measures as the officer thinks proper for the protection and saving of life and property and for the control and extinguishing of the fire, and
(b) is to control and direct the operations of any fire brigade.
(1A) At the site of a hazardous material incident, the officer in charge—
(a) may take such measures as the officer thinks proper for the protection and saving of life and property, for confining and ending the incident and for rendering the site safe, and
(b) is to control and direct the operations of any fire brigade.

Question 12

At an incident that has been declared a crime scene, a member of the public seeks details from you, the senior firefighter/officer on duty, about the incident. State the provisions of Fire and Rescue NSW Regulation (2023), Clause 22, Disclosure of information.  
 

Answer 12

A firefighter must not disclose information obtained in the firefighter’s capacity as a firefighter unless the disclosure is made
(a) in the exercise of the firefighter’s functions, or (b)
about factual matters that are generally available to the public, or
(c)
by an approved firefighter to media representatives about operations at a fire or other incident, or
(d)
at the direction or with the permission of the Commissioner, or
(e) with another lawful excuse.

Question 13

Section 17 of the Fire and Rescue NSW Regulation (2023) refers to unacceptable behaviour. List five circumstances when a firefighter’s behaviour would be deemed unacceptable.

Answer 13

Unacceptable Firefighter Behaviour
1. Violence or threats.
2. Discrimination or harassment.
3. Intoxication while on duty.
4. Disobedience of lawful orders.
5. Neglect of duties or unsafe practices.

Question 14

According to Standing Orders, to avoid serious accidents at intersections when responding to an emergency, what are the two actions drivers of responding vehicles should take when proceeding through traffic signals and stop signs.

Answer 14

Intersection Safety During Emergency Response
1. Slow down and stop if necessary to ensure safety.
2. Proceed only when safe to do so, regardless of signals.

Question 15

According to Standing Orders, when are seatbelts required to be worn when travelling in FRNSW vehicles (including tankers)?  

Answer 15

Seatbelt Use in FRNSW Vehicles
Seatbelts must be worn at all times when the vehicle is in motion.

Question 16

Section 27 of the Crown Employees (Fire and Rescue NSW Permanent Firefighting
Staff) Award 2023 states the Notice of Transfer that is required to be given by the Commissioner when an employee is to be transferred to a new location and/or a different platoon. List and detail the three provisions for these as stated in this section.

Answer 16

27.1.1
Seven (7) days notice when the transfer is within the same fire district or within the GSA and on the same platoon,
27.1.2
Fourteen (14) days notice when the transfer is within the same fire district or within the GSA but to a different platoon,
27.1.3
Twenty eight (28) days notice when the transfer is outside the GSA or the employee’s current fire district, and such notice shall be confirmed in writing.

Question 17

State the two provisions under the Fire and Rescue NSW Regulation (2023), Part 3, Section 14: Firefighters to acquire and maintain knowledge of legislation, orders, and functions.  

Answer 17

Knowledge of Legislation and Orders
1. Firefighters must acquire and maintain knowledge of FRNSW legislation, SOGs, and functions.
2. Firefighters must comply with all policies and procedures.

Question 18

According to Recommended Practice- List the general safety points that must be observed at all times when using the Attack and Lay Pack.

Answer 18

Attack and Lay Pack Safety Points
1. Ensure correct hose deployment.
2. Avoid kinking hoses.
3. Maintain control of water pressure.
4. Use PPE and maintain situational awareness.

Question 19

According to the Fire Investigation toolkit on the Intranet, list when you should request FIRU for assistance? 

Answer 19

When to Request FIRU Assistance
1. Suspected arson.
2. Fatalities or injuries at fire scenes.
3. Fires involving significant property loss.
4. Unusual or suspicious circumstances.

Question 20

Found in the toolkit on the Intranet, provide the full name of the form populated by firefighters that gives the Fire Investigator a summary of your observations on arrival and your actions during the fire.
 

Answer 20

SOFA
Summary of observations & firefighter actions

Question 21

According to Definitions on the Intranet - Describe Backdraught.

Answer 21

During the smouldering phase of a fire, in a confined space, fire gases may be at or above their ignition temperature, but will not have burned because of oxygen deficiency. Suddenly admitting air, by opening doors or breaking windows, may cause these gases to burn rapidly. The sudden release of energy as the gases are ignited causes an immediate and violent pressure rise. If there are insufficient openings to vent the pressure, an explosion will occur. This type of explosion is called a backdraught.

Question 22

According to SOGs, - list your role and tasks if you are the first arriving Station Officer into Staging.

Answer 22

The first arriving officer in Staging becomes the Staging Officer, with his or her crew assisting. From that point, the IC only needs to speak with one person (the Staging Officer) to deploy resources into the incident. Staging is similar to other Sectors or Groups, but does not operate within the hazard zone.

Question 23

According to SOGs, - describe the order model of communication and when it must be used.

Answer 23

Order Model of Communication
• The order model involves:
1. Sender gives a clear and concise order.
2. Receiver acknowledges the order and repeats it back.
3. Sender confirms the repeated order.
• This model must be used during critical operations to ensure clarity and avoid miscommunication.

Question 24

According to the GSD for Incident Management, – an Incident Management System is a standardised method used to manage all types of incidents. The method is adaptable and scalable to the incident type and size. List what it enables the Incident Controller to do and when an Incident Management System is required to be used at incidents FRNSW attends?

Answer 24

Incident Management System
• Enables the Incident Controller to:
1. Plan and control the incident effectively.
2. Allocate resources appropriately.
3. Ensure safety of personnel and public.
4. Maintain clear communication and coordination.

When required:
• The system must be used at all incidents attended by FRNSW, regardless of size or type.

Question 25

According to SOGs, -there are eight strategic functions of command the Incident Commander needs to address. List and describe all eight functions 

Answer 25

Deployment
• Provide a steady, adequate and timely stream of appropriate resources.
• Ensure situational awareness of the location and function of each resource.

Command
• Quickly establish incident command from the most
effective position - from arrival of first resource.

Situation evaluation
• Collect and evaluate information, to determine critical factors.
Incident action planning

• Develop an incident action plan that addresses the critical factors and sets objectives.

Incident communications
• Initiate and maintain effective incident communications.

Incident structure
• Build an incident structure - flexible and scalable to incident needs - where functions can be delegated to maintain span of control.

Review and revision
• Once operating, review and revise the plan, to ensure it matches the incident needs

Escalation and de-escalation
• Scale up if needed with additional officers. Scale down once the incident is contained, and conclude operations.

Question 26

According to the GSD for Incident Management, - at every incident there must be a steady, adequate, and timely stream of resources.  Who is the only person to deploy resources at an incident? 

Answer 26

Resource Deployment
Only the Incident Controller is authorized to deploy resources at an incident.

Question 27

A driver in a road tunnel noticed smoke coming from the engine compartment of their car and immediately pulled into the emergency break down bay and called Triple zero. According to SOGs, list the Smoke Management Systems found in road tunnels that could assist in clearing the smoke?

Answer 27

Road tunnel smoke management systems may use:
• longitudinal ventilation (jet fans)
• ducted ventilation
• natural ventilation
• a combination of the above.

Question 28

According to the GSD for Incident Management, - as an incident develops and crews become fatigued, they will need to be rested. List and describe the two ways crews can be rested.

Answer 28

Crew Resting Methods
1. Rotation: Assign crews to non-critical tasks for recovery.
2. Rehabilitation: Move crews to a dedicated rest and recovery area with hydration, food, and medical support.

Question 29

According to the GSD for Incident Management, - List and describe the three incident phases.

Answer 29

Life at risk phase - there are savable human lives. Incident is uncontrolled and requires rapid actions to control risks to lives. A higher level of risk may be acceptable.

Expanding phase - incident is likely to expand beyond accepted limits. Incident is uncontrolled and requires rapid actions to control
risks to lives and property. Some level of risk may be acceptable.

Contained phase - there are sufficient resources to contain
incident within a defined area. There is no life at risk, or lives and
property are already lost. Risk must be minimised as much as
practicable.

Question 30

According to the Standing Orders list the people authorised to ride on FRNSW appliances?
 

Answer 30

Authorized Riders on FRNSW Appliances
1. FRNSW personnel.
2. Approved visitors or observers (e.g., trainees).
3. Other emergency service personnel as required.

Question 31

According to the Recommended Practice for the Multi-head gas detector – Altair 5X, Altair 5X IR and Altair 5X PID, describe the term Time Weighted Average (TWA).

Answer 31

Time Weighted Average (TWA)
The average concentration of a substance in the air over a standard 8-hour, 5day working week, used to assess exposure limits.

Question 32

Section 26 of the Fire and Rescue NSW Regulation 2023 deals with performance of functions. State the provisions of this section

Answer 32

Performance of Functions (Section 26)
• Firefighters must perform their duties efficiently and diligently.
• Firefighters must adhere to FRNSW policies, procedures, and lawful instructions.

Question 33

According to the GSD for Incident Safety, – it is usually reasonable only to document high consequence risks, however as time and resources increase into a protracted incident what is reasonable to document will change. List and describe the two ways that risks can be documented.

Answer 33

Risk Documentation Methods
1. Dynamic Risk Assessment: Ongoing mental evaluation of risks during the incident.
2. Formal Documentation: Written risk assessments when time and resources allow, especially during protracted incidents.

Question 34

According to the definition on the Intranet – what is the full term used when a liquid within a container reaches a temperature well above its boiling temperature, boils, expands and the container fails.

Answer 34

Full Term for Exploding Liquid Containers
Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapour Explosion (BLEVE).

Question 35

According to SOGs – a thermal check of the acetylene cylinder may give an indication that decomposition is occurring internally. List and describe two ways you can conduct a thermal check.

Answer 35

Thermal Check of Acetylene Cylinders
1. thermal image camera : Measure surface temperature to detect hotspots.
2. Water Spray Test: Apply water mist and observe if it evaporates quickly, indicating heat.

Question 36

According to SOGs-expand the acronym – SISIACMR

Answer 36

SISIACMR

S afe approach

I ncident command

S cene security

I dentify HAZMAT

A ssess potential harm

C all in resources

M onitor information

R ender safe & decontaminate

Question 37

According to the GSD for Incident Safety, - Define what incident safety refers to.

Answer 37

Incident safety refers to the management of the health and safety of firefighters at incidents, and, where relevant, at operational training that uses incident safety processes.

Question 38

According to Operations Bulletin 2023-01 – thermal runaway can occur in lithium-ion batteries in small devices at any time without warning. List the indicators of thermal runaway.

Answer 38

Indicators of Lithium-Ion Battery Thermal Runaway
1. Rapid increase in temperature.
2. Swelling or deformation of the battery.
3. Smoke emission.
4. Popping or hissing sounds.
5. Flame or fire.

Question 39

According to the Workplace Safety toolkit on the intranet, what should you complete when a work-related injury, near miss, exposure or illness occurs and in what timeframe after the occurrence should it be submitted?

Answer 39

Within 24hrs of occurrence
Niiems form

Question 40

According to the Workplace Safety toolkit on the intranet, - if you are unable to submit or fill out a NIIENM who else can submit one for you?

Answer 40

If the injured person is unable to submit the report, their Supervisor or co-worker can submit it on their behalf.

Question 41

When shall an employee be entitled to accommodation whist attending training courses in the GSA as listed under section 48.2.2 of the Crown Employees (Fire and Rescue NSW Permanent Firefighting Staff) Award 2023.

Answer 41

Where an employee attends a course within the Greater Sydney Area (GSA), and if the travelling time to and from the training venue exceeds two (2) hours each way (by the approved mode of transport) or if the return distance from the employee’s residence to the training venue exceeds 175 kilometres, the employee shall be entitled to appropriate accommodation.

Question 42

As stated in the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act,1989 - list who is responsible for coordinating rescue operations and for determining the priorities of action to be taken in rescue operations?

Answer 42

NSW Police RESCO

Question 43

According to the GSD for Incident Management, list the fundamental principles of the incident management system.

Answer 43

4 Policy principles
• Every incident FRNSW attends must be managed using the incident management system.

• All FRNSW staff at the incident must operate within the incident management system.

• There must be an IC at every incident. The most senior person in the first arriving crew must formally take on the role of IC and advise FireCOM.

• There should be sufficient resources responded to the incident, and supporting the incident, to enable effective incident management.

• Incidents should be managed by a commander with experience and skills to match the incident needs. Any commander (of any experience and skills) may initially take the role of IC. However, a later arriving commander who has more experience or skills in relation to the incident may take on the role of IC.

• Handovers should be minimised as far as possible.

• Incident management ends when the last FRNSW resource leaves the scene.

• If deviating from the incident management system, for any reason, FRNSW personnel must be able to justify their actions.

• The incident management system roles override ranks.

Question 44

According to the Rescue Training Manual - Fire protection must be established at all MVA’s where the vehicle’s occupants are trapped. List the actions that should be taken when providing fire protection at an MVA.

Answer 44

• The pumper should be positioned in a safe area at least 15-30 metres from the incident, unless circumstances dictate otherwise

• The minimum fire protection required is a 38 mm hose line, charged to 400 kPa with an Akron spray branch with a minimum 90° angle of spray, the pump recirculating valve must be opened to prevent the pump from overheating

• The branch must be hand-held by a firefighter in full turnout gear and BA

• The firefighter holding the branch must be positioned close to the risk, ready to provide immediate protection should a fire ignite and be prepared to:

1. Secure an escape path for the rescue crew; and
2. Isolate the fire from the passenger cell of the vehicle.
   If the hose line is used, the pump operator should close the recirculating valve and increase the pump pressure to 800 kPa

Question 45

According to the Recommended Practice for breathing apparatus, – conditions when SCBA should be worn can be summarised by the acronym HOTS. List and describe each letter of HOTS.

Answer 45

Acronym HOTS for SCBA Conditions
1. H – Heat: High temperatures that could endanger breathing or skin.
2. O – Oxygen: Oxygen levels below 19.5% or above safe limits.
3. T – Toxicity: Presence of hazardous or toxic gases.
4. S – Smoke: Visibility reduction and particulate hazards from smoke.

Question 46

Owners and occupiers of premises can deposit keys at their nearest fire station so that firefighters can gain access without causing unnecessary damage. Located in the Forms tab on the intranet, name the two forms that need to be completed when receiving keys to private premises.

Answer 46

Forms for Receiving Keys to Private Premises
1. FRNSW Key Deposit Form.
2. FRNSW Premises Key Receipt Form.

Question 47

As stated in the Health, Fitness and Wellbeing Toolkit- what is it a mandatory requirement to complete prior to undertaking the annual Fitness Drill?

Answer 47

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
PARQ

Question 48

According to Operations Bulletin 2020-04 – Reporting appliance damage and maintenance issues, when an appliance is found to have unreported damage, the Fleet Operations Officer or Regional Maintenance Officer will notify the Station, Duty, and Zone Commander in writing. Which form must the station submit within 8 days?

Answer 48

Agency Member Motor Vehicle Claim Form

Question 49

According to the Fire ePermit Policy, a fire permit issued within the ‘Bush Fire Danger’ period will be valid for a period of how many days from the date of issue?

Answer 49

Fire Permit Validity
A fire permit issued within the Bush Fire Danger Period is valid for 7 days from the date of issue.

Question 50

According to the Fire ePermit Policy, what aspect of the planned fire does the permit take into account.
.

Answer 50

It imposes conditions on the way a fire is lit and maintained. This safety aspect is the limit of the involvement by FRNSW.
A fire permit can be issued for a fire lit for the purpose of:

• Agricultural purposes such as burning crop stubble or diseased crops, burning sugar cane or clearing land

• Bushfire hazard reduction such as burning a fire break, ecological burn, forestry burn, pile burning, removing a fire hazard/removal of bushfire fuels

• Commercial or domestic waste removal such as destruction of sawmill waste, removal of household refuse (dependant on the Local Government Area the fire is lit within - refer to Section 5- Policy Implementation) or destroying an animal carcass

• Recreational or ceremonial fires such as bonfire, campfire, hangi or numbuk yabun (aboriginal ceremonial fire).
.

Question 51

According to SOGs- list the 6 components of a AS2419.1 hydrant booster.

Answer 51

Six Components of an AS2419.1 Hydrant Booster
1. boost inlets .
2. main wheel valve.
3. non return valve.
4. Pressure gauges: Display water pressure in the system.
5. feed hydrant .
6. towns main

Question 52

According to the Recommend Practice for breathing apparatus– what is the meaning of working duration.

Answer 52

Working duration is the total duration less the safety margin of 55 bar. You
should leave the Hot Zone before the whistle sounds and you start using the safety margin.

Question 53

A mobile data terminal (MDT) is installed in every fire appliance. It provides immediate fingertip access to incident information and a range of additional intelligence to help firefighters deal with the incidents they attend every day. List the information the MDT enables firefighters to indicate, view and access as documented in the Toolkit.

Answer 53

Information Available on the Mobile Data Terminal (MDT)
The MDT allows firefighters to:
1. Indicate: Their status (e.g., responding, on-scene).
2. View: Incident details (e.g., address, nature of the call).
3. Access:
• Pre-incident plans.
• Building layouts and hydrant locations.
• Hazmat information.
• Rescue guides and response protocols.

Question 54

According to SOGs, - firefighters can ‘turn off’ a solar power system to stop electricity feeding into the structure’s circuits or back to the electricity network if configured to do so. List and describe the 6 points to consider.

Answer 54

Only an electrician can completely isolate an alternative power source as it involves disconnecting wiring from the alternative power source.
Firefighters can turn off an alternative power source to stop electricity feeding into the structure’s circuits, or back to the electricity network if configured to do SO.
To turn off an alternative power source:

1. Consult with any on-site experts to determine how best to turn it off and whether it is appropriate.
2. Assume the switchboard and any conductive materials are live. Don insulating gloves, then leather overgloves. Put your helmet visor down.
3. Follow any shutdown procedure displayed. This may be on or near the switchboard or adjacent to the alternative power source.
4. If the shutdown procedure cannot be found:
   • Solar panels - turn off the inverter main switch (usually in the meter box), then turn off the solar panel main switch (usually next to the inverter).
   • UPS - turn off both the input to and the output from the UPS system.
   For a large UPS the switches may be located in the UPS room.
   • Generator - turn off the generator at the switchboard.
   Wiring remains live between the inverter, and the solar panels and any battery. FRNSW voltage detectors do not detect DC electricity
5. Restrict work as far as reasonably practical to that required to protect life or prevent dangerous expansion of the incident. Carefully consider whether the possible benefits of undertaking the work outweigh the risks.
6. If power must be isolated from the alternative power supply, have the owner/occupier contact their electrician.

Question 55

According to Operations Bulletin 2024-02, when a battery energy storage system is present at a residence, there should be an indicator to alert you to this. What is an example of an indicator.

Answer 55

Indicator of a Battery Energy Storage System (BESS)
An example of an indicator is a sign or label stating “Battery Storage System Installed” located:
• Near the main electrical switchboard.
• At the property entrance.

Question 56

Operations Bulletin 2023-01- lists operational actions to follow when dealing with Lithium-ion battery failure in small devices. List these actions.

Answer 56

Knock-down any fire using copious amounts of water.
• Cool the battery with a cooling stream of water.
• Submerge the device in a suitable container of water if safe to do so. Use a tool such as a long-handled shovel to move the device.
• If unable to submerge the device, continue cooling and conduct thermal checks every 15 minutes until ambient temperature is maintained for 60 minutes. Note: an increasing temperature is an indication that a thermal runaway event is occurring.
• Ensure that all cells are accounted for by searching the area around the device. Failure to account for all cells may lead to a secondary fire event.
Notify FireCOM that the incident involves a lithium-ion device. FireCOM will send a notification to FIRU.

Question 57

According to the GSD for Electricity SOGs - fires can occur in solar panels, particularly in the isolators attached to the solar panels. If the solar panel is on a roof, list the actions firefighters should not take.

Answer 57

If solar panels, or the attached isolators, are on fire, in addition to the considerations with turning off an alternative power source:
• Conduct firefighting from the ground or an aerial appliance. Do not get onto the roof to extinguish the fire. Do not put a ladder against the roof as the gutter may be electrified.
• Extinguish the fire with a spray nozzle, using a pulse spray in a dispersed pattern.

Question 58

According to the SMIT on salvage and overhaul, describe the purpose of salvage.

Answer 58

Purpose of Salvage
The purpose of salvage is to:
• Protect property from further damage caused by fire, water, or smoke.
• Minimize losses by using covers, draining water, or relocating valuables.

Question 59

According to the SMIT on salvage and overhaul, describe the purpose of post fire overhaul.

Answer 59

Search & extinguish hidden fires & hot spots.
• Protect the scene after the fire, including the preservation of evidence & identification of cause & origin.
• Restore the premises to a safe condition.

Question 60

According to SOGs, list the four principles to consider when responded to incident involving a gaseous fire suppression system.

Answer 60

FRNSW may be responded to these incidents as an Automatic Fire Alarm, or to a reported fire.
• Unless there is life at risk, firefighters must wait outside the compartment for the hold time, while the system fully discharges and extinguishes the fire.
• Breathing apparatus must be worn when inside the compartment until the atmosphere is confirmed safe.
• Any activation of the system must be investigated.

Question 61

According to the GSD for Bushfires - FRNSW crews generally engage in property protection roles. We generally have three strategies for carrying out property protection. List and describe the three types of defences that may be required in the defensive strategy.

Answer 61

1. Line defence - A line defence is used when conditions would normally allow an offensive attack (eg the fire is not intense, weather conditions are favourable etc.),
   2. Ember defence - An ember defence is used when the approaching line of fire is too intense to be suppressed by offensive means and is producing significant ember attack.
      It involves extinguishing small fires that occur in and around buildings, when and as they occur.
   3. A backstop defence is used when there is no safe defensible space around buildings and/or the approaching fire is so intense that firefighters canciot safely protect the buildings during the impact of the fire. Firefighters withdraw temporarily a short distance away to suitable safe refuges, with the intention of coming back after the fire passes.

Question 62

Operations Bulletin 2023-01- lists the hazards and risks at incidents involving Lithium-ion batteries in small devices. List all as stated in the bulletin.

Answer 62

Hazards and risks involving lithium-ion batteries (Operations Bulletin 2023-01):
1. thermal runway
2. extreme fire behaviour
3. Toxic gas release (e.g., hydrogen fluoride).
4. Hazardous materials and leaked electrolytes
5. stranded energy
6. projectiles
7. Secondary ignition

Question 63

According to the GSD for Incident Management - Australasian Inter-service Incident Management System (AIIMS) has 5 key principles. List and describe the concepts that underpin these principles.

Answer 63

AIIMS principles (GSD for Incident Management):
1. Flexibility: Adaptable structure for various incidents.
2. Management by Objectives: Clear goals for coordination.
3. Functional Management: Assign roles (e.g., Operations, Logistics).
4. Unity of Command: One person, one supervisor.
5. Span of Control: Optimal supervision ratio (3–7 personnel per supervisor).

Question 64

According to SOGs - when an LPG container is involved in fire, what area of the container is considered most crucial and a high priority area for cooling?

Answer 64

LPG container high-priority cooling area (SOGs):
The upper vapor space is the most critical area for cooling to prevent pressure buildup and BLEVE (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion).

Question 65

According to the SMIT on Psychological Preparedness – list the actions that should be taken following a Potentially Traumatic Event.

Answer 65

.Acknowledge as a team that the incident you just attended has the potentially to be traumatic.
• Acknowledge that there is no right or wrong way to respond after attending a potentially traumatic event.
Should you or a crew member need to talk; ensure lines of communication are open, talk to colleagues, family, friends or internal supports, ensuing you maintain your boundaries if you are not ready or comfortable.
Familiarise yourself with available support services should you or someone in your team need them.

Question 66

According to the Work Instruction on “bagging contaminated gear” - list the equipment required for bagging contaminated gear (not PPC) at an incident to minimise the risk presented by hazardous contaminants during storage or transport.

Answer 66

Equipment for bagging contaminated gear (Work Instruction):
1. Heavy-duty plastic bags.
2. Cable ties or duct tape.
3. markers for labeling.
4. Disposable gloves.
5. contaminated labels
6. P2

Question 67

According to the GSD for Bushfires - List and describe the 3 classes of bushfires.

Answer 67

Class 1
A fire under the control of the responsible fire authority, whether or not incidental/low level assistance is provided by other agencies.
Class 2
A fire which, by necessity, involves more than one agency, and where the Bush Fire Management Committee (BFMC) has appointed a person to take charge of firefighting operations. The IC will be advised by FireCOM that the BFMC Executive Officer has declared the fire as Class 2.

Class 3
A major bushfire or fires where an appointment is made or is imminent under the provisions of Section 44 of the Rural Fires Act 1997.

Question 68

According to the GSD for Electricity- SOGs, - electrical transformers in high density areas of cities maybe situated in underground vaults, if a fire occurs in one of these vaults, CO2 can be injected via a wall mounted or footpath CO2 connection box. Describe what the number on the connection box indicates.

Answer 68

Indicates the number of CO2 cylinders required to be injected

Question 69

According to the GSD for Electricity- GSD, list the factors that affect voltage gradient at wires down.

Answer 69

Factors affecting voltage gradient at wires down (GSD for Electricity):
1. composition of ground
2. moisture content
3. Voltage of the electric source
4. Proximity to wires.

Question 70

According to the GSD for Electricity- SOGs, conductors allow electricity to easily pass through them. List five examples of conductors identified in this document.

Answer 70

Examples of conductors (GSD for Electricity):
1. Water.
2. Metal objects
3. Trees, timber
4. Humans body
5. Vehicle tyres
6.wet or dry rope
7. Water including hose lines
8. Flame and dense smoke

Question 71

According to the GSD for Electricity- SOGs - list five measures to control the risks associated with electricity at an incident.

Answer 71

• Stay away from the hazard. Always regard it as live until you know otherwise.
• Assess the risks from at least 8 metres away from the hazard.
• If suspected to be electrically hazardous, establish an Exclusion Zone.
• Have the electricity company isolate power.
• When leaving the incident site, if possible, provide information to the owner or other responsible person on the hazards still present at the site and the control measures in place.

Question 72

As listed on the SIMS Worksheet, Electrical safety kit - list the inventory stored in the green canvas bag of the electrical safety kit.

Answer 72

1. Insulated gloves.
   
   2. leather gloves
   3. Voltage detector glm mini rescue
      4.electrical safety kit bag

Question 73

According to the Recommended practice - When using the gloves from the electrical safety kit, what is the correct donning sequence?

Answer 73

Open the electrical kit
Inspect rubber gloves do a test
Place leather gloves over the top

Question 74

According to SOG for interagency notification, list the four reasons NSW Police are required to be notified of incidents.

Answer 74

Possible terrorist incident
Crime investigation
Site, crowd, traffic and evacuation management
Rescue incidents

Question 75

You are responded to fire in a correctional facility, centre or complex operated by a government agency or private contractor. As documented in SOGs, list the actions that should be taken on arrival.

Answer 75

• Identify and liaise with the Emergency Coordinator.

• While waiting to enter, start developing the IAP by accessing information - eg pre-incident plans, SOGs, and utilities.

• Where entry to the facility is delayed, nominate a staging area and advise FireCOM to inform responding resources. Remain in the staging area until met by the Emergency Coordinator. Notify FireCOM if entry is delayed.
Always remain outside facility on standby if it is unsafe to enter

• At the main entry, access the Red Fire Emergency Plan Box containing the FRNSW pre-incident plan, safety data sheets folder, site plans, and Local Emergency Plans (LEPs) and brief crew about the facility.

• Prepare the appliance and secure equipment before entering the facility.
List all equipment to be taken in.

Question 76

According to the Preventing and Managing Unreasonable Behaviour and Bullying Policy, state the definition of workplace bullying?

Answer 76

Definition of workplace bullying (Policy):
Workplace bullying is repeated, unreasonable behavior directed at an individual or group that creates a risk to health and safety.

Question 77

You respond to an automatic fire alarm at an office building. On arrival you find the gaseous fire suppression system has activated in a data storage unit. You ask employees on site if everyone has evacuated but they cannot be sure. You have to enter immediately to complete a search. According to SOGs list the actions you would you take.

Answer 77

If there is a need to immediately enter the compartment (ie life at risk):
• Wear breathing apparatus and carry a charged line of hose or extinguisher.
• Manage door control and entry to prevent influx of fresh air.
• Consider carrying an extension face mask for the person needing rescue.
• Be aware of electrical hazards from energised equipment.
• Remove the person to a safe atmosphere. Treat them with oxygen. Notify Ambulance.

Question 78

According to the ‘Firefighter’ role description found on the Intranet, list any 5 of the Duties/Accountabilities required in this role.

Answer 78

Five Firefighter duties (Intranet Role Description):
1. Respond to emergencies.
2. rescue and hazmat response
3. medical response
4. Deliver community education.
5. Maintain equipment and station readiness.

Question 79

Standing Orders includes the topic ‘Reporting Absence from duty’. List the procedures the Station Officer is to follow if a firefighter is absent without notification.

Answer 79

If a member of your staff is absent, and they have not notified you of their absence, try to contact them by telephone to find out why they are absent.
If you cannot contact them, record them as being absent without leave and notify your Duty Commander or Manager. If you have concerns for their welfare, contact your Zone Commander, Human Resources Manager or the Manager Operational Personnel.
When a staff member returns to duty after being absent without leave, contact them personally and check whether there are any underlying problems with which the NSWFB could assist, eg through the Employee Assistance Program, Chaplains, etc, noting that you must not request any specific information related to the nature of a firefighter’s illness or medical history.
Request a written explanation of their absence and discuss their options in relation to taking leave to cover their absence. If they cannot show reasonable cause for their absence, they must take leave without pay. Also remind them that sick leave or personal/carer’s leave must be supported by the required documentation.
Ensure that SAM is adjusted accordingly and your Duty Commander or Manager is notified of the outcome. Forward the documentation through your chain of command to the Manager Operational Personnel.

Question 80

According to SOGs – list the procedures you should follow when attending an incident involving underground electrical vault.

Answer 80

At an underground vault incident:
• Contact FireCOM to notify the electricity company and to respond the COz Tender. Consider notifying other affected services.
• Do not enter the vault - wait for the electricity company representative to arrive.
• Do not approach or park vehicles over entry covers (open or closed) due to the risk of explosion.
• Establish a Hot Zone of at least 8 metres radius surrounding the vault.
• Prepare the necessary equipment. Consider requesting hazmat or other specialists. Consult any pre-incident plans.
• Protect all exposures.
Treat all underground vaults, tunnels, pits and vaults as confined spaces.

• Liaise with the electricity company representative on safety and technical issues. Follow all safe work instructions given by the electricity company representative.
• Do not operate any switches without consultation with the electricity company representative.
• Use gas detectors and thermal imaging cameras as appropriate.

Question 81

According to the Fire Investigation Field Guide there are four classifications of cause. List and describe them.

Answer 81

Four Classifications of Cause (Fire Investigation Field Guide):
1. Accidental: Resulting from unintended human actions or equipment failure.
2. Natural: Caused by natural phenomena (e.g., lightning strikes).
3. Incendiary: Intentionally set fires with intent to cause harm.
4. Undetermined: Cause cannot be conclusively identified due to lack of evidence.

Question 82

According to SMIT on MVA terminology – list and describe the 4 recognised types of entrapment.

Answer 82

1. Trapped by Compression: the occupant is physically pinned by deformity in the structure of the vehicle.
2. Trapped by Confinement: the occupant is only trapped in the interior of the vehicle (i.e. a door is jammed).
3. Trapped by Injuries: the occupant is unable to exit the vehicle due the injuries sustained (or are believed to have sustained - spinal injuries etc).
4. Trapped by Impalement: the occupant is physically impaled by a foreign object which prevents them from exiting the vehicle.

Question 83

According to SOGs - there are many duties of the BA Control Operator. List five.

Answer 83

BACOs:
• Establish BA Control as close to the entry/exit point as possible.
• Check and enter all details on the BA Control Board.
• Ensure that BA team members are identified by a call sign determined by the incident communications plan.
• Calculate and monitor entry and exit times.
• Monitor all radio communications within the sector.
• When exit time is reached:
- Immediately contact the individual wearer or BA team leader.
- If unable to contact, notify their Commander.
- Activate the RIT immediately when required and notify the IC.
• Indicate to exiting BA crews the locations of the BA staging area and
Rehabilitation Area.
• Provide updates to their Commander as required. A second radio transceiver may be required for communicating on the tactical channel.
• Ensure BA Control Boards clearly show when extended duration BA (EDBA) is in use. This is indicated by the red tag from the EDBA twin manifold being attached to the wearer’s yellow tally on the board.
• Ensure BA Control Boards clearly show when aerial appliance operators are wearing BA.
• Ensure BA Control Boards clearly show when extension facemasks are in use:
- With air trolley BA (ATBA).
- On aerial appliances.
- With auxiliary facemask from another BA set.
- With an extension airline from a standalone BA set.

Question 84

Safety Bulletin 2024-01 identifies actions firefighters must take operationally should they identify fire doors with fire activated bolts. List what firefighters must do.

Answer 84

Inform the IC immediately if fire door bolts are identified.
• Ensure fire attack and search and rescue crews enter with charged lines of hose.
• Identify alternative egress routes should a fire door bolt operate. If trapped by the activation of a fire bolt fire door with no alternative exit, send a Mayday message.

Question 85

According to SOGs – List what P2 particle masks can be used to protect against.

Answer 85

Uses of P2 Particle Masks (SOGs):
P2 particle masks protect against:
1. Fine particulate matter.
2. Smoke particles.
3. Airborne asbestos fibers.
4. Biological matter
5. Dust

Question 86

Section 29 of the Fire and Rescue NSW Regulation 2023 deals with the occurrence book. State the provisions of this clause.

Answer 86

The officer in charge of a fire station must ensure details of the following are recorded in a document (an occurrence book) kept at the fire station—
(a) all events of significance relating to the operation of the fire station,
(b) all other matters required by this regulation or the Commissioner’s directions to be recorded in the occurrence book.

Question 87

Safety Bulletin 2010-04 identifies precautions appliance drivers should take before responding from fire stations. List these precautions.

Answer 87

1. Activate the emergency warning lights to indicate that the appliance is about to respond.
2. Check that everyone has their seat belt fastened.
3. Check your mirrors and ensure that the surrounding area is clear of people.
4. Only proceed when safe to do

Question 88

Clause 10 of the Fire and Rescue NSW Regulation (2023) deals with Examinations and Assessments. State this provision.

Answer 88

Examinations and Assessments Provision (Regulation 2023, Clause 10):
Firefighters must successfully complete prescribed examinations and assessments to ensure competency and readiness for operational duties.

Question 89

List the exemptions that retained firefighters have when responding in private vehicles to emergency incidents as detailed in the Standing Orders.

Answer 89

No exemption from road rules

Question 90

According to the SOGs for communication plans- list the three basic principles for communication at incidents?

Answer 90

A: to use the principles of ICS and ensure an effective span of control;

B:to establish a flow of information at all levels of the incident , without overwhelming the IC or ComCen with superfluous data; and

C: to ensure the safety of firefighters by using effective communication.

Question 91

The Fire and Rescue Act 1989 and the Australian Road Rules grant exemptions, in certain circumstances, to the drivers of Fire and Rescue NSW vehicles from complying with the Australian Road Rules. State the situations as listed in Standing Orders when FRNSW vehicles are permitted to travel in a bus, tram, transit or truck lane.

Answer 91

When FRNSW Vehicles Can Use Special Lanes (Standing Orders):
1. While responding to emergencies.
2. When attending incidents where access via these lanes is necessary.
3. During training or authorized operations.

Question 92

According to SOGs - Emergency Response Teams have varying levels of skills, equipment, and training. Depending on the hazards involved, the IC must determine, from Pre-Incident Planning and discussion with the Emergency Response Team Leader, their role at an incident. List the three activities Emergency Response Teams can participate in.

Answer 92

Specialist advice to the IC relating to hazards, industrial processes and installed fire systems.
• Operation of valves and other industrial processes.
• Fire attack under the control of NSWFB officers.

Question 93

According SOGs list the principles of de-escalation.

Answer 93

• Both the strategic and tactical levels scale back during de-escalation.
Delegated functions are handed back to the IC. The IC may handover command to another officer.
• Only the IC can release resources - resources must not leave without permission from the IC.
• When possible, released resources should be rehabilitated before departure.
• Before a crew leaves the hazard zone, crew commanders should, where possible, conduct a short ‘hot’ debrief.
• If appropriate, when all FRNSW duties are compete, the IC should hand over the site to another agency or the owner.
• When FRNSW involvement at the incident ends, the IC must inform FireCOM.
• Command is only terminated when the last resource leaves the incident.

Question 94

According to SOGs - the Emergency Control Organisation may consist of people identified by coloured helmets, hats, caps, vests, or tabards. List the members and their identifying colour.

Answer 94

Emergency Control Organisation Roles and Colours (SOGs):
1. Chief Warden: White helmet/tabard.
2. Deputy Chief Warden: White with red stripe.
3. Floor/Area Warden: Yellow.
4. First Aid Officer: Green.

Question 95

According to the SOGs, List the correct meanings for the numerical status codes 1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7.

Answer 95

Numerical Status Codes (SOGs):
1. Status 1: Responding.
2. Status 2: called off
3. Status 3: on scene
4. Status 4: return to station.
5. Status 5: back at station.
6. Status 6: rfs area.
7. Status 7: offline

Question 96

You are completing a pre-incident plan for an occupancy located within your station area. The SO directs you to inspect the Fire Control Room. According to the SOGs, list the features that are included in a Fire Control Room.

Answer 96

A Fire Control Room is usually at or below ground level.
Features include:
• a fire isolated room with a 2-hour fire rating and separate ventilation
• two exit points, to the front of the building and directly into a fire exit
• Fire Indicator Panel
• Fire Fan Control Panel
• Master Emergency Control Panel
• controls for fire pumps
• Security Alarm and Control Panels
• telephone (direct line outside)
• whiteboard, corkboard and plan table
• Tactical Fire Plans (maps and schematics).

Question 97

You are attending an incident at a large cold storage facility. Your SO has directed you to cut into an Insulated Sandwich Panel (ISP). Prior to cutting the ISP, you conduct a risk assessment. According to the SOGs, list the important issues to consider.

Answer 97

Issues to Consider Before Cutting ISPs (SOGs):
1. Fire spread within the panels.
2. Toxic fumes from insulation material.
3. Structural integrity.
4. Hidden electrical wiring.
5. Tools and methods to minimize risks.

Question 98

You are attending a 3rd Alarm structure fire and note the current incident commander is being overwhelmed by radio messages. According to SOGs, following span of control rules, what is the optimal number of people who should be reporting to the IC?

Answer 98

Span of Control for IC (SOGs):
The optimal number of people reporting to the IC is 5-7.

Question 99

It is the responsibility of the Incident Commander (IC) to ensure that in general, each tactical priority has been addressed, according to the SOGs, for structure fires the IC should consider how many sides of the fire? 

Answer 99

Sides of a Structure Fire (SOGs):
The IC should consider all 6 sides (front, back, left, right, top, bottom).

Question 100

On arrival at an incident, you observe the EWIS is operating. Upon closer inspection you note it has defects. According to the SOGs, what actions should you take and who should you notify after you have investigated and found no sign of fire?

Answer 100

Fire safety division

Question 101

You attend a hazmat incident, and you appreciate the importance of correct spelling of a substance when transmitting messages to Comms. You are requested to relay the message using the phonetic alphabet. What is the correct phonetic alphabet transmission for …………….? (Word to be inserted in test paper, knowledge of phonetic alphabet)

Answer 101

Correct Phonetic Alphabet Transmission:
The phonetic alphabet is used to ensure clarity. For example, if the word is “FIRE”, the correct phonetic transmission would be:
Foxtrot India Romeo Echo.
For other words, apply the corresponding NATO phonetic alphabet.

Question 102

An MVA has occurred between a truck and two cars requiring the attendance of a rescue unit, the MVA has occurred on the M5 Motorway in the GSA. There are multiple emergency services within NSW that are responsible for rescue incidents. According to SOGs, who determines which emergency service will send a rescue unit to this rescue incident?

Answer 102

The Police
Resco

Question 103

Fumigation is a process of applying a pesticide chemical to a sealed area for a period, generally to treat insects or other vermin. The pesticide is applied in gas form (or a state that produces a gas) to the area. According to SOGs if a firefighter is exposed to chemicals at a fumigation list the actions needed to be taken on arrival back at station.

Answer 103

1. Notify the Station Officer immediately.
   
   2. Conduct decontamination, including washing exposed skin.
   3. Remove and isolate contaminated PPE.
   4. Complete an incident report Niiems
   5. Seek medical assessment if required.

Question 104

According to SOGs, FRNSW priorities guide the strategy and incident action plan (IAP) for the incident. List our priorities at an incident?

Answer 104

Rescue - save and protect people’s lives (including firefighters);

Exposures - confine the fire to the building/compartment of origin;

Containment - stop the spread of fire;
Extinguish the fire - deploy sufficient resources to overwhelm the fire;

• overhaul - ensure that all pockets of fire are totally extinguished; and

Salvage - commence damage control operations.

Question 105

According to the FRNSW fatigue management procedure permanent firefighters, what is the definition of fatigue?

Answer 105

Definition of Fatigue (FRNSW Fatigue Management Procedure):
Fatigue is a state of physical and/or mental exhaustion that reduces a person’s ability to perform work safely and effectively.

Question 106

According to the GSD for Incident Management- every person at the incident must behave in a manner that ensures that they can be accounted for. List the behaviours of officers not in command that destroy accountability.

Answer 106

Behaviours That Destroy Accountability (GSD for Incident Management):
1. Failing to report to the IC or sector commander.
2. Ignoring designated roles or tasks.
3. Freelancing or acting without authorization.
4. Leaving the incident area without permission.
5. Providing false or incomplete information.

Question 107

According to the intranet toolkit, during a bushfire with CFUs, list the 5 points under the heading CFU members.

Answer 107

• like all residents, must follow Fire Danger Rating instructions and their Bushfire Survival Plan
• do not fight fires or enter bushland; they are only empowered to protect properties in their area of activity from spot fires and ember attack
• are no different to other residents during a bushfire, and do not have any authority, responsibility or role in FRNSW bushfire operations
• must obey instructions from FRNSW firefighters or other emergency service agencies to deactivate and/or evacuate
• after the front has passed, can carry out mopping up on their area of activity, freeing up firefighters to respond to the moving fire front

Question 108

According to SOGs - A medical emergency access incident is an actual or probable situation where either the Police Rescue Coordinator or the Ambulance Service of NSW (ASNSW) Communication Centre Manager considers serious. Describe what they consider a person at risk of if access is not gained quickly?

Answer 108

Risk at Medical Emergency Access Incidents (SOGs):
A person is considered at risk of:
1. Serious injury or deterioration of a medical condition.
2. Loss of life if access is not gained quickly.

Question 109

According to the FRNSW Alcohol and other drugs policy, workers must not be in the workplace with a blood alcohol concentration of how many grams or above of alcohol per 210 litres of breath?

Answer 109

Alcohol Concentration Limit (FRNSW Alcohol and Other Drugs Policy):
Workers must not be in the workplace with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.02 grams or above of alcohol per 210 liters of breath.

Question 110

According to SOGs – list the seven signs that could indicate an impending structural collapse.

Answer 110

Seven Signs of Impending Structural Collapse (SOGs):
1. Cracks in walls or ceilings.
2. Sagging or bowing of floors or roofs.
3. Distorted or leaning structural elements.
4. Sudden creaking or groaning noises.
5. Falling debris or masonry.
6. Smoke or fire venting through new openings.
7. Movement of water or vibrations causing instability.

Question 111

According to SOGs - radio codes for automatic fire alarms (AFAs) are used by the Incident Commander (IC) to send an incident completed (Stop) message to FireCOM at the conclusion of an AFA-reported incident. When AFA call is to an actual fire, one which FRNSW has been alerted to by the activation of an AFA or manual call point, what is required to be reported to FireCOM?

Answer 111

Code 100

Question 112

According to SOGs - safety is paramount at all bushfires. A safety briefing must be completed and communicated to firefighters. Firefighters should constantly review LACES. List and describe each letter of the acronym LACES.

Answer 112

1. L - Lookouts: Assign trained personnel to monitor fire conditions and provide early warnings.
   
   2. A - Awareness: Constantly assess surroundings and fire behavior.
   3. C - Communications: Maintain effective and clear communication between teams.
   4. E - Escape Routes: Pre-plan and communicate safe exit routes.
   5. S - Safety Zones: Identify areas of relative safety away from fire hazards.

Question 113

According to SOGs-fire danger ratings (FDR) give an indication of the consequences of a bushfire. The higher the fire danger, the more dangerous the conditions. List and describe the ratings.

Answer 113

Catastrophic
FBI 100 +
• Uncontrollable extremely fast and intense, spot fires 20 km.
• No structure is guaranteed safe, lives may be lost

Extreme
FBI: 50 - 99
• Uncontrollable, very fast and intense, spot fires 6 km.
• Only prepared houses offer safety; house and life loss possible.

High
FBI: 24 - 49
• Difficult to control, spot fires 2 km.
• Housing may come under increased threat.

Moderate
FBI: 12 - 23
• Controllable, spot fires very close and less likely.
• Prepared houses offer good safety.

No rating
FBI: 0 - 11
• Fires easily controllable, spot fires very unlikely.

Question 114

According to SOGs, list the benefits of effective management at incidents?

Answer 114

Benefits of Effective Management at Incidents:
1. Improves safety for responders and the public.
2. Ensures efficient use of resources.
3. Reduces damage to property and the environment.
4. Enhances coordination between agencies.
5. Facilitates quicker resolution of incidents.

Question 115

According to SOGs - there are three strategies used during bushfires operations. List all three.

Answer 115

Bushfire Strategies:
1. Offensive: Direct fire suppression.
2. Defensive: Asset protection and indirect firefighting.
3. safeguard strategy

Question 116

According to the eAIRS Data Management Policy, describe the roles and responsibilities of the reporting officer

Answer 116

The Reporting Officer is the officer in charge of the first arriving appliance and is responsible for completing the Incident Response tab and the First Arriving tab, in accordance with the eAIRS Data Management Policy.

Question 117

According to FIREFIT Heat exhaustion fact sheet- list the strategies to prevent heat exhaustion.

Answer 117

Appropriate work to rest ratios based on environmental conditions. Increasing rest break durations as ambient temperature increases is warranted.
• Firefighters should identify signs and symptoms which indicate need to slow, modify, or stop activity before medical emergency arises.
• Adequate hydration before, during and after work can help. Maintaining blood volume is a key prevention strategy against developing heat exhaustion.

Question 118

According to the GSD for Bushfires - the status of a bushfire is the degree to which it is under control. List and describe the terminology to be used in radio messages and sitreps to FireCOM.

Answer 118

Bushfire Status Terminology:
1: Going
2: being controlled
3: contained
4: patrol
5: out of

Question 119

According to FIREFIT Heat exhaustion fact sheet- list the treatment for heat exhaustion.

Answer 119

Move the individual to a cool/shaded area and remove excess clothing.
• Cool the individual with fans, self-dousing, forearm immersion (Kore Kooler chairs) and apply cold packs to neck, groin, and armpits.
• Elevate legs to promote blood return to heart.
• Provide oral fluids for rehydration if fully conscious.

Question 120

According to SOGs - describe offensive and defensive strategies.

Answer 120

Offensive and Defensive Strategies:
• Offensive: Actively attacking the fire to extinguish it.
• Defensive: Prioritizing asset protection and limiting fire spread.

Question 121

According to SOGs – list what the Incident Action (IAP) usually describes.

Answer 121

• The IAP is developed to manage the incident. The lAP describes, at any point in time, the risk assessment, strategy and objectives, incident structure, layout of the incident, and any other relevant information.
• The IAP must address the objectives for all incidents:
- To save and protect lives.
- To prevent the incident from expanding beyond a deliberately chosen boundary.
- To minimise further consequences of the incident on the community.
• The IC must develop and implement an IAP from the start of the incident.
• The IAP must be based on the critical factors and hazards identified in the situation evaluation.
• The IAP must include continual operational risk management, to identify hazards, assess the risks, and put control measures in place.
• The IC should consider the phase of the incident and the amount of risk that may be accepted:
- Life at risk phase, where there are savable human lives. The incident is uncontrolled and requires rapid actions to control the risks to lives. A higher level of risk may be acceptable.
- Expanding phase, where the incident is likely to expand beyond accepted limits. The incident is uncontrolled and requires rapid actions to control risks to lives and property. Some level of risk may be acceptable.
- Contained phase, where there are sufficient resources to contain the incident within a defined area. There is no life at risk, or lives and property are already lost. Risk must be minimised as much as practicable.
• The IAP must declare an overall strategy for the incident, or for a specific sector or compartment of the incident. There can only be one strategy for a sector or a compartment. The strategy can be:
- Offensive - operating in close proximity to the hazards.
- Defensive - operating away from the hazards.
• The strategy must be communicated to everyone at the incident via the incident structure.
• The lAP must be developed before any physical work can take place - ie the strategy dictates the task level work, not vice versa.

Question 122

According to the heat stress minimisation fact sheet-exertional heat illness (EHI) occurs in otherwise fit and healthy individuals during vigorous activity while wearing PPC which inhibits the body’s ability to cool effectively. List and describe the three factors that increase the risk of EHI in firefighters found in the fact sheet.

Answer 122

1. Vigorous work demands - resulting in the build-up of significant metabolic heat.
2. Wearing PPC - inhibit the body’s ability to cool effectively.
3. Extreme environmental heat - including high atmospheric temperature and radiant heat.

Question 123

According to the Clean firefighter policy describe the aim of onsite decontamination.

Answer 123

Aim of Onsite Decontamination:
To remove contaminants and reduce exposure risks for firefighters, equipment, and environments.

Question 124

According to SOGs - twin bore tunnels, where traffic flows occur in separate tunnels, the tunnels are usually separated by 4-hour fire-resisting construction. Crossover passages between the tunnels are usually how many metres apart?

Answer 124

Crossover Passage Distance in Twin Bore Tunnels:
Typically spaced 120 meters apart.

Question 125

According to SOGs - list the roles of FRNSW at incidents involving bomb threats or detonations.

Answer 125

The FRNSW Commander must:
• Position appliances so they can be moved rapidly in an emergency.
• Face appliances away from the incident with windows fully open, behind substantial cover, away from large areas of glazing.
• Keep access routes clear.
• Follow Police advice on the safe use of communication equipment.
Messages which could contain classified or sensitive information must be sent by mobile telephone.
• Ensure FRNSW crews wear Level 1 PPC. Wear eye protection at all times.
• Employ defensive rather than offensive strategies. If firefighting is necessary, consider the use of ground monitors and hydrants to restrict fire spread.
• Use the minimum number of firefighters for each task.
• Use the minimum amount of water (where possible) and avoid sweeping of debris to assist in the preservation of evidence.
• Ensure exposures from the main fire are protected and only attempt extinguishment from protected positions outside buildings. Once the fire has been extinguished leave the exclusion zone.
• If suspect devices are found by FRNSW personnel, make no attempt to move, tilt or tamper with them and notify NSW Police.
WARNING
FRNSW personnel must immediately leave the area.
• Confirm with the Police Incident Commander when all necessary firefighting and rescue duties have been completed.

Question 126

According to the Clean firefighter policy state the definition of exposure.

Answer 126

occurs when a harmful substance enters the body through a route (i.e. inhalation, ingestion, or dermal/ocular absorption). Exposure to a hazardous substance may create a risk of harm or illness.

Question 127

According to SOGs, Standards Australia refers to Breathing Apparatus (BA) as supplied air respirators. Fire and Rescue NSW uses positive pressure supplied air respirators to provide the highest level of protection. List and describe them.

Answer 127

• Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).
• Extended duration breathing apparatus (EDBA): An SCBA set in twin cylinder
configuration which allows firefighters to work for approximately twice the time
as single cylinder SCBA.
• Airline respirator: An extension facemask with an airline supplied from a source
of compressed air. These sources include:
− Air trolley breathing apparatus (ATBA): A mobile trolley with compressed air
cylinders, a valve assembly and an airline connected to an extension facemask.
− An independent SCBA set.
− SCBA worn by a firefighter: An extension facemask and airline worn by a
second person which is attached to the auxiliary connection of an SCBA or
EDBA set worn by a firefighter.

Question 128

According to SOGs, decontamination is the process of removing contaminants from people and equipment to prevent further injury and reduce the spread of the contaminant. List and describe three ways decontamination can be implemented (not the methods

Answer 128

Decontamination is the process of removing contaminants from people and equipment to prevent further injury and reduce the spread of the contaminant.
• Standard decontamination is implemented where there is no life at risk.
• Emergency decontamination is implemented where there is a life at risk (a person is rescued from the Hot Zone), or an immediate response is required due to an accidental contamination.
• Mass decontamination is implemented in an unexpected and dangerous situation which must be dealt with immediately where a group of people are contaminated.

Question 129

According to SOGs - when dealing with radiological incidents, the first priority is to minimise the exposure to radiation while rendering the incident safe. List and describe considerations to minimise exposure at radiological incidents.

Answer 129

Minimizing Exposure at Radiological Incidents:
1. Time: Spend minimal time in the radiation area.
2. Distance: Stay as far as possible from the source.
3. Shielding: Use barriers or protective materials.

Question 130

According to GSD Radiological Incidents – list the three types of radiation.

Answer 130

Types of Radiation:
1. Alpha: Short-range, harmful if ingested or inhaled.
2. Beta: Moderate penetration, requiring clothing protection.
3. Gamma: High energy, requiring dense shielding

Question 131

According to SOGs - materials that contain asbestos are known as asbestos containing materials (ACM). If asbestos is encountered at an incident, as far as practical, employ dust suppression tactics and leave ACM in situ. List three examples of dust suppression tactics.

Answer 131

Dust Suppression Tactics for Asbestos Containing Materials (ACM):
1. Apply fine water spray or mist to keep materials wet.
2. Use foam or a wetting agent to suppress dust.
3. Cover materials with plastic sheeting or tarpaulins to contain particles.

Question 132

Materials that contain asbestos are known as asbestos containing materials (ACM). There are generally two categories of ACM. List and describe them.

Answer 132

Categories of ACM:
1. Friable ACM: Easily crumbles to release asbestos fibers (e.g., pipe insulation).
2. Non-Friable ACM: Fibers are bound in a solid matrix, less likely to release fibers unless damaged (e.g., asbestos cement sheets).

Question 133

According to definitions on the Intranet- describe flashover.

Answer 133

Definition of Flashover:
Flashover is the near-simultaneous ignition of combustible materials in a room or compartment caused by a buildup of heat and radiation. It marks the transition to fully developed fire conditions.

Question 134

According to Standing Orders - list the purpose of hydrant inspections.

Answer 134

Purpose of Hydrant Inspections:
1. Ensure hydrants are operational and accessible.
2. Verify water flow and pressure availability.
3. Identify and report maintenance issues.

Question 135

According to the After-Action Review (AAR) Policy - AARs are held for the purpose of reviewing organisational performance, resulting in a series of observations, which are analysed to produce thematic insights. What timeframe should a Type 1 review be conducted?

Answer 135

Hot debrief at incident or back at station

Question 136

As stated in in the FRNSW Code of Conduct and Ethics -the NSW government sector and FRNSW values underpin how we interact with our colleagues, the government, stakeholders and members of the community. List the FRNSW and NSW government sector values.

Answer 136

FRNSW and NSW Government Sector Values:
1. Integrity: Act honestly and ethically.
2. Trust: Foster community confidence.
3. Service: Prioritize public safety and needs.
4. Accountability: Take responsibility for actions.
5.

RISC

Question 137

According to FRNSW Managing Gifts, Benefits and Hospitality Policy and Procedure - Any offer of a gift or benefit in excess of $50 or not token in nature, whether it is accepted or not, must be declared with which section of FRNSW?

Answer 137

Declaration of Gifts or Benefits:
Declare any gift or benefit over $50 with the Professional Standards Unit (PSU).

Question 138

According to the infection prevention and control manual, an infection occurs when another organism enters your body and causes disease. List the six main transmission routes.

Answer 138

Six Main Transmission Routes of Infection:
1. Direct contact.
2. Indirect contact.
3. Droplet transmission.
4. Airborne transmission.
5. Vector-borne transmission.
6. Common vehicle transmission (e.g., contaminated food or water).

Question 139

The Quarantine and malfunction of equipment and personal protective clothing procedure outlines the procedures to be taken if equipment or personal protective clothing fails at an incident or drill, and it is not a safety incident. List these procedures.

Answer 139

Procedures for Equipment or PPC Malfunction:
1. Remove faulty equipment or PPC from service.
2. Tag the item as faulty.
3. Notify the officer in charge.
4. Complete the necessary report (e.g., eAIRS).
5. Send the item for repair or replacement.

Question 140

According to the GSD for Asbestos, the risk of developing asbestos related disease depends on many factors. List these factors.

Answer 140

Factors Influencing Asbestos-Related Disease Risk:
1. Duration and frequency of exposure.
2. Concentration of asbestos fibers.
3. fiber characteristics
4. Other exposures

Question 141

State the General functions of Commissioner as outlined in 5A of the Fire and Rescue NSW Act 1989.
(1) (2) (a)
(b)
(c)
(3)

Answer 141

(1) It is the duty of the Commissioner to take all practicable measures for preventing and extinguishing fires and protecting and saving life and property in case of fire in any fire district.
(2) It is the duty of the Commissioner to take all practicable measures
(a) for protecting and saving life and property endangered by hazardous material incidents, and
(b) for confining or ending such an incident, and
(c) for rendering the site of such an incident safe.
(3) The Commissioner is authorised to take measures anywhere in the State for protecting persons from injury or death and property from damage, whether or not fire or a hazardous material incident is involved and, in the case of a fire, it does not matter whether or not the persons are, or the property is, within a fire district.

Question 142

According to SOGs - operators of aged care facilities have emergency plans, which include a staged evacuation plan. List and describe the stages and identify the stage FRNSW would likely be involved.

Answer 142

Stages of Staged Evacuation in Aged Care Facilities:
1. Stage 1: Evacuate affected room or area.
2. Stage 2: Evacuate to a safe zone within the building.
3. Stage 3: Evacuate to an external assembly area.
• FRNSW Involvement: Likely involved in Stage 3 for external evacuation.

Question 143

According to SOGs - during bushfire operations safeguarding strategy is not fire suppression but can be used when defensive operations are not safe. Describe the actions taken in this strategy.

Answer 143

When offensive or defensive strategies are no longer viable with intense fires under the worst conditions, the actions during safeguarding strategy, while not fire suppression, warns, escorts (moves) and protects community members to ensure their safety.

Question 144

According to SOGs, at a high-rise structure fire, what area provides a safe location with building communications, control equipment and plans?

Answer 144

The Fire Control Room provides a secure location with building communication, control equipment, and plans.

Question 145

According to SOGs, in some cases, mostly at larger structures and complexes it may not be appropriate to turn off power to the entire structure. List three of these structures or complexes and the reasons it may not be appropriate for each one.

Answer 145

In some cases - mostly at larger structures and complexes - it may not be appropriate to turn off power to the entire structure, eg:
• Industrial complexes - some processes may be difficult to shut down quickly
• High-rise buildings - lights or lifts may be needed during evacuation of residents
• Health care facilities - life-sustaining equipment may be in use.

Question 146

According to the FRNSW smoke alarm installation procedure, when installing a smoke alarm in a residential dwelling, what is the most suitable fixing method to attach to surfaces?

Answer 146

Double sided sticky tape adhesive

Question 147

Suspicious substance incidents (including suspicious package incidents) are multiagency incidents. FRNSW, the NSW Police Force and the Ambulance Service of NSW have developed multi-agency procedures to provide emergency services personnel with the knowledge, skills, and ability to ensure a consistent and safe approach for management and resolution of suspicious substance incidents. The level of risk can be identified by a colour. List the colours and the corresponding risk level for each colour.

Answer 147

Risk Levels by Colour for Suspicious Substances:
1. Red: high risk
2. blue: medium risk
3. green: low risk

Question 148

Sexual harassment is against the law and never acceptable. FRNSW adopts the legal definition of sexual harassment as per the Anti- Discrimination Act 1977. Describe the meaning of sexual harassment as described in the Act?

Answer 148

. Definition of Sexual Harassment (Anti-Discrimination Act 1977):
Unwanted or unwelcome conduct of a sexual nature that makes a person feel offended, humiliated, or intimidated.

Question 149

According to Definitions on the intranet - Describe the Critical Incident Support Program.

Answer 149

The Critical Incident Support Program (CISP) is a program which offers help to FRNSW employees affected by individual traumatic incidents or the cumulative effect of incidents over the course of their career.
The Program is accessed through a Peer Support Model, staffed by firefighters who volunteer their time.

Question 150

According to the Crown Employees FRNSW Permanent Firefighting Staff) Award 2023- Change of shift agreement. The applicant must apply in writing at least how many hours in advance?

Answer 150

24hr in advance

Question 151

According to the Fire and Rescue NSW Act 1989, state the definition of a hazardous material incident?

Answer 151

Definition of a hazardous material incident (Fire and Rescue NSW Act 1989):
An incident involving the actual or potential release of hazardous materials that pose a threat to life, property, or the environment.

Question 152

According to the NSW RFS and FRNSW Memorandum of Understanding, in relation to response to AFAs within the jurisdictional, responsibility of the RFS the first arriving brigade can de activate the local alarm. Who can carry out resetting of the alarm?

Answer 152

Only Fire & Rescue

Question 153

According to the Toolkit Workplace Safety- Annual Workplace Safety Inspections aim to reduce the number of safety incidents by identifying and controlling a broad range of potential hazards in FRNSW-owned or leased workplaces. When must each FRNSW-owned or leased workplace be inspected by each year?

Answer 153

Zone Commanders and Managers are to ensure that each FRNSW-owned or leased workplace is inspected by 31 May each year. The inspection is done by working through the relevant inspection form

Question 154

According to SOGs, list the priorities if an LPG cylinder is involved in a fire situation.

Answer 154

evacuate unnecessary persons;
cool flame impinged on heated tanks and cylinders;
•
control leaks by closing appropriate valves; and
extinguish fires external to the tank causing flame impingement or heating.

Question 155

According to SOGs, when using a hydrant booster, the IC will instruct the pump operator to run the hydrant booster system in one of three modes. List all three modes

Answer 155

Modes for using a hydrant booster (SOGs):
1. standby mode
2. activation mode.
3. deactivation. Mode

Question 156

According to the workplace safety toolkit, every workplace should have a prominently displayed Health & Safety Notice Board. List all documents that should be attached.

Answer 156

• SIRA Poster - If you get injured at work
• Commissioner’s Safety Statement
• Safety and Wellbeing Plan 2021-2022
• FRNSW Return to Work Policy and Program Summary
• Workplace Evacuation Diagrams - Email your request to propertyhelpdesk@fire.nsw.gov.au
• WHS Issue Resolution Flowchart
• Guide - NIIENM Submission Workflow
• Safety information and Contacts
• Safety Representatives Template
• First Aid Officers Template (not necessary for stations)
• Fire Warden Template (not necessary for stations)

Question 157

According to Standing Orders - Smoke screen security devices produce a barrier of dense white fog when a monitored security alarm system is activated. FRNSW may be responded to buildings where the smoke screen has been activated and mistaken for a fire. List two things’ firefighters should consider before entering the building?

Answer 157

•Requesting the attendance of Police as intruders may still be inside the building
• Confirm with NSWFB Communications Centre if an Automatic Fire alarm has activated

• A fire may have set off motion detectors and activated the smoke screen security device.
• Locating the seat of any fire prior to conducting any ventilation operations.

• Establish the location and operation of such systems when conducting pre-incident planning operations.

• Be mindful of other similar processes that will create similar visual conditions. Eg
Fumigation and fogging of premises (Operations Bulletin 2004/2)

Question 158

According to Fire and Rescue NSW Regulation 2023, Section 20 complete the following.
(1) A firefighter- (a)
(b)

Answer 158

20 Loss or damage to uniform or personal equipment
(1) A firefighter–
(a) must take care of all articles of uniform and personal equipment issued to the firefighter, and
(b) may be required to meet the replacement cost of an article of uniform or equipment damaged or lost through the firefighter’s negligence.
(2) Before a firefighter leaves the firefighter’s employment or service, the firefighter must return–
(a) all departmental property, and
(b) uniform and equipment in the firefighter’s possession, other than an article of uniform or equipment the Commissioner allows the firefighter to keep.
(3) The Commissioner may require a firefighter to pay compensation for–
(a) if the firefighter fails to return departmental property-the loss of the property, or
(b) if any departmental property returned by the firefighter is damaged–the damage to the property, unless the damage is due to fair wear and tear.
(4) The Commissioner may deduct any compensation required to be paid by the firefighter under subsection (3) from money due to the firefighter for the firefighter’s service.

Question 159

According to the Crown Employees (Fire and Rescue NSW Permanent Firefighting Staff) Award 2023. Section 25.17. Performance of out duties how many out duties can a firefighter be directed to perform per calendar year.

Answer 159

Out duties per calendar year (Crown Employees Award 2023, Section 25.17):
Firefighters can be directed to perform a maximum of 12 out duties per calendar year.

Question 160

According to the GSD for Bulk Solid Storage Facilities - when dealing with fires at bulk solids storage facilities, list the environmental considerations.

Answer 160

. When dealing with fires at bulk solids storage facilities:
• Monitoring of firefighting water run-off.
• Preventing run-off from entering water sources.
• Where smoke plumes affect populated areas, evacuation of the affected areas.

Question 161

At a structure fire incident in the GSA, list the resources that would be responded to a message requiring a “Third Alarm” as stated in SOG 2.3 Alarm Response Protocols

Answer 161

6 pumps
1 Pumper for RIT
1 Rescue
1 Aerial
1 Hazmat
LSV
2 duty commanders

Question 162

According to SOGs - confined spaces pose dangers because they are usually not designed to be areas where people work. List the risks of working in a confined space

Answer 162

The risks of working in a confined space include:
• Loss of consciousness, impairment, injury, or death due to the immediate effects of airborne contaminants.
• Fire or explosion from the ignition of flammable contaminants.
• Difficulty rescuing and treating an injured or unconscious person.
• Asphyxiation resulting from oxygen deficiency or immersion in a free-flowing material, such as grain, sand, fertiliser, water or other liquids.

Question 163

According to SOGs Community Fire Units have 3 types of members. List and describe the members and their roles.

Answer 163

Community Fire Unit (CFU) members and roles (SOGs):
1. operational members - prepare act survive strategies.

2. Associate members not trained in equipment use.
3. Cadet members trained in safe equipment use (16,17yr)

Question 164

You are responding to a fire call in a Class 3 Scania P320 pumper through small roundabouts in wet weather and the driver reports that the vehicle’s brakes are operating independently and intermittently. In accordance with the Operations Bulletin 2014-02, what actions should be taken?

Answer 164

An ESP system is a significant safety feature that assists with vehicle control and collision avoidance. Vehicles equipped with ESP are inherently safer than those without.
If a vehicle fitted with ESP is driven close to what the system analyses as its limit of traction, the ESP system will automatically change the speed and/or direction of the vehicle to compensate.
The driver of a passenger vehicle can temporarily disable the ESP system when driving on a surface likely to result in significant wheel slippage. In these circumstances the driver should drive with increased caution as a safety feature has been temporarily disabled on the vehicle. (For information about how to temporarily disable the ESP system, consult the vehicle owner’s manual.)
The ESP system cannot be disabled in Scania P320 pumpers. Scania P320 pumpers should not be driven on a surface likely to result in significant wheel slippage. If drivers of Scania P320 pumpers are continually activating the ESP system, they are travelling too quickly for the road conditions and must alter their driving behaviour.

Question 165

According to the SOGs for Incident safety, describe Hazard and Risk.

Answer 165

A hazard is a situation or thing that has the potential to cause harm. A risk is the harm that may be caused by the hazard. A hazard may have more than one risk

Question 166

List the principles of the Fire and Rescue NSW eAIRS Data Management Policy.

Answer 166

Principles of FRNSW eAIRS Data Management Policy:
1. Accuracy.
2. usefulness .
3. Timeliness.
4. security .

Question 167

Hoses are inspected after use and according to the SIMS schedule. According to the Repairing Firefighting Hose Toolkit on the Intranet, before sending hose for repair, Station Commanders must compare the cost of the anticipated repair with the cost of a replacement hose. When assessing hose describe what must be considered.

Answer 167

Hose assessment before repair (Repairing Firefighting Hose Toolkit):
1. Extent of damage.
2. Cost of repair vs. replacement.
3. Operational reliability post-repair.

Question 168

You attend a 3rd Alarm structure fire, and the Incident Commander appoints you the Safety Officer. According to SOGs, list 5 roles the Safety Officer is responsible for.

Answer 168

Safety Officer roles at a 3rd Alarm (SOGs):
1. Identify hazards.
2. Identify unsafe conditions
3. correct unsafe work practices
4. assist the IC with risk assessment
5. confirm all health and safety systems are in place
6. Confirm utilities are identified
7.confirm all crews know hazard zones and exclusion zones
8. Maintain awareness

Question 169

According to the GSD for Bushfires-A sound knowledge of fire behaviour will allow firefighters to recognise dangerous situations. List the situations that require a high degree of caution.

Answer 169

slope
• wind speed and direction
• spotting activity
• localised temporary weather events eg channelled winds
• interaction between 2 fires (coalesce)
• lightning and extreme multi-directional wind from fire induced thunderstorms.

Question 170

You are performing a fire duty after a fire at a factory. The cause is yet to be determined; the Fire Investigation and Research Unit and Police are at work. An employee asks if he can go and retrieve some personal belongings. State Part 3 Section 31 of the Fire and Rescue Regulation 2023.

Answer 170

Part 3 Section 31 of the Fire and Rescue Regulation 2023:
A firefighter can refuse access to any premises under their control if the safety of the site, evidence, or ongoing investigation may be compromised. Personal belongings can only be retrieved with authorization from the IC or Police.

Question 171

According to the GSD for Incident Management, as the Incident Commander, you may choose a fast attack command position. What does fast attack enable the IC to do?

Answer 171

Fast attack is used when, on arrival, there are outward signs of an emergency, or obvious signs that task level actions need to be done immediately which may resolve the incident.
The IC exits the vehicle and undertakes command on foot. Fast attack enables the IC to:
• More fully size up the incident.
• Directly supervise the crew.
• Assist the crew with task level work if needed
• Take advantage of the limited window of opportunity available while the incident is in its early stages.
However, fast attack is a poor ongoing command position as:
• The IC is operating at strategic, tactical and task levels at the same time, and must split their attention among these elements.
• It is difficult to manage rapidly changing information.
• There is reduced span of control.
• There is less ability to maintain situational awareness.
• It does not allow the IC to document the incident action plan.
• It can be difficult to communicate.
If the task level actions taken during fast attack do not quickly resolve the incident, the IC should move to a stationary command position, or transfer command to a later arriving (but not necessarily more senior) officer who will operate in a stationary command position.

Question 172

Hazardous chemical (Hazchem) emergency action codes provide information for the fire brigade and police on how to deal with a fire or spillage. List what the 3-digit code gives basic information on.

Answer 172

3-digit Hazchem emergency action codes provide information on:
1. Actions to contain the hazard.
2. PPE requirements.
3. Evacuation and extinguishment guidelines.

Question 173

While participating in a community event at the local oval and armed offender attack occurs. According to SOGs, list and describe what actions you take?

Answer 173

Escape

Hide

Tell

Question 174

According to the SOGs for Bushfires, alert levels are linked to the Fire Danger Ratings and the time to impact on a community. List and describe the alert levels.

Answer 174

Bushfire alert levels (SOGs):
1. Advice: Awareness of a fire, no immediate danger.
2. Watch and Act: Conditions are changing, prepare to act.
3. Emergency Warning: Immediate danger, take action to survive.

Question 175

Clause 39 of the Crown Employees (Fire and Rescue NSW Permanent Firefighting Staff) Award 2023 relates to sick leave. How many hours of sick leave are you entitled to in a calendar year?

Answer 175

Firefighters are entitled to 120 hours of sick leave per calendar year.

Question 176

A Station Inventory Management System (SIMS) display board is provided for each operational fire appliance. List the six components to the SIMS display board

Answer 176

maintenance calendar

Information sheets

Defect sheet

Inventory

Seals

Appliance recommended practice

Question 177

According to the GSD for Bulk Petrochemical Storage, what is a petrochemical?

Answer 177

Definition of a petrochemical (GSD for Bulk Petrochemical Storage):
A petrochemical is a chemical product derived from petroleum or natural gas, used in various industrial processes.

Question 178

According to FRNSW’s Fatigue Management Procedure, short-term fatigue management is the management of acute fatigue that may occur as a result of tasks undertaken by firefighters during work hours and contributing factors outside of work. As a guide, a break from physically and mentally demanding tasks should be taken how often?

Answer 178

May need to be more than 30 minutes

Question 179

According to the GSD for Bulk Petrochemical Storage- List the four conditions that must be present for boilover to occur.

Answer 179

Boilover is the sudden and violent expulsion of burning oil from a tank.
Boilover occurs because, after sustained burning, residues from the burning oil becomes denser and heavier than the unburned oil, then slowly sink. The residue forms a heated layer which travels downward through the unburned oil at a rate of approximately 300-400 mm per hour.
There is often water at the bottom of the tank. When the heated layer reaches this water, the water is super-heated, boils, and turns to steam. The volume of the water is increased up to 1700 times. The steam then violently and explosively ejects the burning oil from the tank, exploding at great speed, over a wide area.
Dependent on the quantity of product contained in the tank, it could take many hours for a boilover event to occur.
Boilover occurs only with heavy fuel oils. As there are no operating refineries in NSW the risk of a crude oil boilover is reduced, however products such as marine fuel oil (also called bunker fuel) and bitumen are still a boilover risk.

Question 180

According to SOGs, if CO2 is used to extinguish a fire in an underground vault substation what is the minimum time it needs to be kept sealed within the vault?

Answer 180

Minimum sealing time for CO2 in an underground vault substation (SOGs):
The vault must remain sealed for 20 minutes.

Question 181

According to the GSD for Decontamination, describe what decontamination is.

Answer 181

Decontamination is the process of removing contaminants from people, clothing and equipment to prevent exposure to a contaminant and minimise spread of the contaminant. Equipment includes vehicles.

Question 182

During a bushfire, your sector contains an area where trees and grass are alight under high voltage power lines. According to SOGs, list the safe working distances and what firefighting activities can you perform.

Answer 182

High voltage power lines may not be able to be isolated. They are critical infrastructure and support essential community services. De-energizing them may have significant impact on public safety.
• Do not engage in firefighting under high voltage power lines.
• Keep people and vehicles a minimum of 25 metres clear of a fire burning under or near power lines.
• If crossing a power line easement, ensure that there is adequate clearance between the highest point of the vehicle (including
aerials) and the power lines.
The clearance varies between 3 and 8 metres
depending on the voltage of
Wind direction
Power lines
the power lines. Avoid areas with tall vegetation under power lines.

Question 183

According to the toolkit on the intranet describe what the Station Inventory Management System is used for and what it consists of.

Answer 183

Purpose of Station Inventory Management System (SIMS):
SIMS tracks and manages inventory, maintenance, and fault reporting for firefighting appliances and equipment.

Question 184

According to the Station Inventory Management System (SIMS) Guide at permanently staffed stations who conducts a pre-operational check of the appliances breathing apparatus?

Answer 184

The motor driver / All FF’s responsible to do their BA checks

Question 185

According to SOGs, there are five members of a decontamination team. List all members and their duties.

Answer 185

1. decontamination officer
   
   2. wash opertaor.
   3. wash assistant
      4 disrobe assistant
2. Pump operator

Question 186

At an incident, fire crews believe accelerants may have been used. According to Standing Orders, list the possible signs of accelerant use?

Answer 186

Signs of accelerant use (Standing Orders):
1. Unusual burn patterns.
2. Presence of fuel containers.
3. High burn intensity in isolated areas.

Question 187

According to the toolkit, if you discover a fault while conducting a SIMS inspection on the appliance or equipment, list your actions.

Answer 187

Report all defects and faults to your Station Commander. If there is an obvious safety issue, the Station Commander must take the appliance offline and immediately notify Fleet.
In addition, for all faults:
Report faults using the contact details and procedures on the Appliance Maintenance and Reporting toolkit (Toolkits > Operational > Major Fleet > Appliance Maintenance and Reporting).
• Keep a record in the e-Occurrence Book.

Question 188

As listed in Section 3 of the Fire and Rescue NSW Act 1989, define flammable matter.

Answer 188

(a) any substance capable of ignition or combustion by the application of heat, by means of sparks or spontaneously, and
(b) any substance prescribed as flammable for the purposes of this definition.

Question 189

State the definition of relieving employee as defined in Clause 4 of the Crown Employees (Fire and Rescue NSW Permanent Firefighting Staff) Award 2023.

Answer 189

Subject to the exceptions in subclause 25.4.1, employees cannot be directed to perform relief duty outsid the Fire District to which they are attached.

Question 190

According to the GSD for Incident Management, describe a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR).

Answer 190

A personnel accountability report (PAR) is a report between the IC and any commander that seeks to find out if all resources assigned to the commander can be accounted for. It is generally a radio report, but does not have to be.

Question 191

According to SOGs, FRNSW may be requested to retrieve a reptile from an area where the reptile is causing a possible threat of injury or death to people. Describe the response procedure to this incident.

Answer 191

Respond under normal road conditions

Question 192

According to the GSD for Incident Safety, incident safety worksheets are one method available to create a written record for incident safety. List the information that is recorded on the worksheet.

Answer 192

• Incident details.
• Details of the hazard and/or risk, including its location. It may be necessary to state both the hazard and risk if the relationship is clear.
• Control measures that are planned or in place, an indication of when the control measures were actioned (ie implemented), and when the control measures were reviewed.

Question 193

According to the GSD for Incident Management- Describe pre-deployment.

Answer 193

Pre-deployment automatically applies - ie it does not have to be designated by the IC.
Pre-deployment allows the IC to deploy resources into the incident in an orderly fashion, giving the IC much needed mental space to task and deploy crews into the right location, doing the right things.
Appliances should pre-deploy in the direction of their travel into the incident, within radio range, and at a point that would allow them to quickly deploy into the incident when requested - eg one block back from the incident, or at the entrance of a large industrial park.

Question 194

According to the GSD for Incident Management- Describe Staging.

Answer 194

The Staging area should be far enough away from the incident to avoid traffic congestion but within radio range. It should be an area large enough to position a number of appliances - eg a carpark. (It may have been identified as part of a pre-incident plan.)
The Staging area should ideally be within walking distance of the incident so that an appliance can be left away from the incident if not needed.

Question 195

You are the Incident Commander at a hazardous materials incident and find water coming from an adjoining business is entering the Hot Zone and spreading contaminants. You order this water supply to be shut off, but the business owner next door complains that he will lose money by shutting down production. State Section 15 Use of water etc of the FRNSW Act?

Answer 195

The officer in charge at a fire or hazardous material incident may, for the purpose of extinguishing or controlling a fire or confining or ending the incident or rendering the site of the incident safe, without payment-
(a) take and use any water from any source on any land, and
(b) cause water to flow into or be shut off from any main or pipe.

Question 196

According to Clause 46.4 of the Crown Employees (Fire and Rescue NSW Permanent Firefighting Staff) Award 2023 what is the minimum period of advertisement for a non-Station based role.

Answer 196

No later than 3 months

Question 197

According to SOGs, describe the term “All Clear.”

Answer 197

The term all clear indicates that primary and secondary searches have been completed - ie primary all clear and secondary all clear - for a compartment, location, or the entire structure, at a fire or hazmat incident. This confirms to the IC that firefighters have checked for occupants in those locations and none have been located.

Question 198

According to Clause 39.6 of the Crown Employees (Fire and Rescue NSW Permanent Firefighting Staff) Award 2023 relates to unsupported sick leave absences. List when such absences may not be taken.

Answer 198

Unsupported sick leave absences (Clause 39.6):
Unsupported sick leave may not be taken:
1. On public holidays.
2. Before or after rostered days off.

Question 199

You are responded to a report of an unknown odour at an abandoned petrol station.
You inform your crew to prepare a 4-head gas detector for use on arrival. According to recommended practices, what do all Altair 5Xs detect?

Answer 199

Altair 5X gas detector capabilities:
1. Oxygen levels.
2. Carbon monoxide.
3. Hydrogen sulfide.
4. Flammable gases.

Question 200

FRNSW is committed to achieving the principles and requirements of the Equity, Diversity, and Inclusion Policy. To achieve this what are all employees responsible for?

Answer 200

Responsibilities for Equity, Diversity, and Inclusion (FRNSW Policy):
1. Treat everyone with respect.
2. Eliminate discrimination.
3. Promote equal opportunities.
4. Report breaches of policy.

Question 201

According to the Transfer and Mobility Policy, list the reasons permanent Officers and Firefighters may seek transfer or be transferred to other locations.

Answer 201

Reasons for transfer under the Transfer and Mobility Policy:
1. Career development.
2. Operational needs of FRNSW.
3. Personal or family circumstances.
4. Medical reasons.
5. Compassionate grounds.

Question 202

According to the GSD for Incident Management, when locating a staging area at an incident, list what you should consider.

Answer 202

Staging is the act of reporting to a designated Staging area somewhere near the incident and waiting until deployed into the incident. The Staging area is a non-hazard zone sector of the incident.

Question 203

According to the GSD for Incident Management- A strong command presence from the Incident Commander (IC) is essential at all incidents in order to manage it safely and effectively. Describe what a strong command presence means.

Answer 203

A strong command presence means that a commander provides effective leadership and direction and is recognised as the commander. All levels of commander, including the IC, should have a strong command presence.

Question 204

According to the GSD for Incident Management- The FRNSW, Officer in Charge at an incident can be identified by a tabard. List the identifying tabards.

Answer 204

Identifying tabards for FRNSW Officers in Charge:
1. Incident Controller.
2. Operations Officer.
3. Safety Officer.
4. Sector Commander.

Question 205

Insulated Sandwich Panels (ISPs), especially those with Expanded Polystyrene (EPS) cores can create an extremely hazardous environment for firefighters and may force adoption of a defensive strategy from an early stage. According to the GSD for Buildings with Insulated Sandwich Panels, list the reasons for this.

Answer 205

ISPs, especially those with EPS cores, create an extremely hazardous environment for firefighters and may force adoption of a defensive strategy at an early stage, for the following reasons:
1. EPS melts and flows like a liquid. It is highly flammable, inducing rapid fire spread, which is undetectable with thermal imaging cameras (due to the insulating properties of the panels) and can spread to areas remote from the fire origin.
2. Panel delamination, where the hot metal panel skins bow and open up, rapidly increases the rate of fire spread, which heats the ceiling void, creates secondary pool fires from melted EPS, and causes panels to collapse (Figure 2).
3. There is an increased risk of flashover and backdraught.
4. Large volumes of toxic, thick, black, acrid smoke are produced
5. Sudden, loss of structural integrity may cause substantial building collapse.

Question 206

According to the GSD for Incident Management, describe critical factors.

Answer 206

Critical factors are a set of elements that can be managed or considered at one time by the IC. Generally they are elements that, if not dealt with rapidly, cause expansion of the incident, or a threat to firefighters or others.

Question 207

According to SOGs, when responding into a Rural Fire District, when are you required to send a Code 6?

Answer 207

• A Code 6 must be transmitted:
- Immediately it becomes apparent to the Officer-in-Charge (OIC) of an
FRNSW appliance that they have received a call to an incident located within a Rural Fire District, or
- With the Code 1 (responding) message if it is known at the time of the call that the incident is in a Rural Fire District.

Question 208

According to Operations Bulletin 2023-02, describe the risk management measures that should be taken when attending incidents involving hydrogen fuel cell electric vehicles.

Answer 208

Conduct atmospheric monitoring with a four head gas detector for LELs to detect if hydrogen is leaking.
• Use a thermal imaging camera (TIC) to identify if hydrogen fire is present.
• Conduct thermal checks on the battery using a TIC to determine whether thermal runaway may be occurring within the lithium-ion battery. Increasing temperature is an indication that a thermal runaway event may be occurring. If so, use a hose stream to cool.
• Establish an exclusion zone (minimum 15 m) around any hydrogen FCEV incident.

Question 209

According to the GSD for Incident Management, critical factors fall into two broad categories. List and describe the two categories.

Answer 209

Variable - elements that allow for some form of task level action. For example, a room fire can be managed by tasking a crew to attack, contain and extinguish the fire.
• Fixed - elements that cannot be changed but will need to be considered when developing the incident action plan. For example, a large and complex building layout may need to be considered, but cannot be changed.

Question 210

According to the GSD for Incident Management, describe a 360-degree size up at an incident.

Answer 210

A 360 degree size up is a rapid walk around the incident (360 degrees if possible to observe the incident from all sides, and perhaps see critical factors not visible from the vehicle.

Question 211

You are the Officer in Charge at a hazardous materials incident, and the site manager is failing to cooperate. You advise the site manager of your authority to enter and operate under the FRNSW Act. List the sections of Act that allow you to enter any place and also control and direct the operations.

Answer 211

Section 13
Section 19
Section 20A 1,2,3

Question 212

According to the Toolkit for Respectful Workplaces, clear communication is one of the best ways to build a respectful workplace and to avoid conflict. What is the tool that will help employees to communicate clearly when addressing difficult topics?

Answer 212

Straight talk

Question 213

According to the Toolkit for Mental fitness, what program offers an external service that provides professional and confidential counselling/coaching to help you with challenges, issues or concerns that may be affecting you at work or home?

Answer 213

The Employee Assistance Program (EAP) provides support for personal and work-related challenges.
Converge

Question 214

According to SOGs, during the de-escalation of an incident, at what stage is command terminated?

Answer 214

Command is terminated when the last resource leaves the incident .

Question 215

According to SOGs, describe four of the principles of situation evaluation in incident management?

Answer 215

• The Incident Commander (IC) must identify a set of critical factors - ie elements that, if not dealt with rapidly, could cause expansion of the incident or a threat to firefighters or others - and process them into an incident action plan (IAP).
• The IC can only deal with 3-7 critical factors at any one time. If there are more than this, consider expanding the incident structure so that delegation can occur.
• Collecting and evaluating information may start before arriving on scene.
• Once on scene, further information is collected and rapidly evaluated via an initial size up from the vehicle. Whenever possible, the IC should collect additional information via a 360 degree size up.
• Critical factors must be communicated to FireCOM.
• The IC should continually collect information during the incident from commanders and other external sources such as onsite experts, Bureau of Meteorology, and other agencies.
• Critical factors may change rapidly as the incident evolves. The IAP must be modified as critical factors change.
• The IC’s initial size up and decision-making about critical factors may need to be rapid. Once the incident is contained, the IC should take a more deliberate approach.
• Situation evaluation only ends when command is terminated.
• Anyone at the incident may collect information regarding critical factors.
These need to be communicated to the IC. Critical safety concerns can be addressed immediately if required, before informing the IC.

Question 216

According to the Recommended Practice, describe why the thermal imaging camera may or may not be suitable for use in a flammable atmosphere.

Answer 216

Thermal imaging cameras may not be suitable in flammable atmospheres as their electrical components can become ignition sources if not intrinsically safe.

Question 217

According to SOGs - A major goal for the IC is to develop an Incident Action Plan for the incident. What is an incident action plan?

Answer 217

• The IAP is developed to manage the incident. The IAP describes, at any point in time, the risk assessment, strategy and objectives, incident structure, layout of the incident, and any other relevant information.
• The IAP must address the objectives for all incidents:
- To save and protect lives.
- To prevent the incident from expanding beyond a deliberately chosen boundary
- To minimise further consequences of the incident on the community.
• The IC must develop and implement an IAP from the start of the incident.
• The IAP must be based on the critical factors and hazards identified in the situation evaluation.
• The IAP must include continual operational risk management, to identify hazards, assess the risks, and put control measures in place.
• The IC should consider the phase of the incident and the amount of risk that may be accepted:
- Life at risk phase, where there are savable human lives. The incident is uncontrolled and requires rapid actions to control the risks to lives. A higher level of risk may be acceptable.
Expanding phase, where the incident is likely to expand beyond accepted limits. The incident is uncontrolled and requires rapid actions to control risks to lives and property. Some level of risk may be acceptable.
Contained phase, where there are sufficient resources to contain the incident within a defined area. There is no life at risk, or lives and property are already lost. Risk must be minimised as much as practicable.
• The IAP must declare an overall strategy for the incident, or for a specific sector or compartment of the incident. There can only be one strategy for a sector or a compartment. The strategy can be:
-Offensive - operating in close proximity to the hazards.
- Defensive - operating away from the hazards.
• The strategy must be communicated to everyone at the incident via the incident structure.
The lAP must be developed before any physical work can take place - ie the strategy dictates the task level work, not vice versa.

Question 218

According to the GSD for Incident Management– List and describe the terms used in an initial radio report, to indicate the size of a structure at a fire incident.

Answer 218

The terms small, medium, large, very large and mega are useful in an initial radio report, to indicate the size of a structure at a fire incident. They are used in conjunction with building type - eg terrace, free-standing house, factory.
The terms are defined in terms of hose lay as follows:
• Small - One hose lay can cover the entire structure.
• Medium - One hose lay can cover 75% of the structure.
• Large - One hose lay will cover 50% of the structure.
• Very large - One hose lay will cover 25% of the structure.
• Mega - One hose lay will cover 10% of the structure.
Hose lay is considered to be 50 metres - ie two 30 metre lengths of hose which includes 10 metres from the entry point.
The IC uses this information to more accurately determine the resources needed or the need for multiple entry points. Actual dimensions are difficult to provide until a follow-up 360 degree size up has been conducted.
For examples, see Example - Initial radio report.

Question 219

As stated in GSD for Incident Management, Example -Initial radio report - The initial radio report (IRR) is sent by the first arriving officer to FireCOM. It time-stamps command, confirms and identifies the IC, and records initial details about the incident. It should be in Conditions, Actions, Needs (CAN) format. What should include?

Answer 219

Confirmation of address.
• Conditions: Brief description of the incident; obvious critical factors including hazards.
• Actions: Initial incident action plan (IAP); assumption of command and naming of incident; strategy.
• Needs: Increase of alarm level as per the Alarm Response Protocol (ARP), or, in areas where this does not operate, request for particular resources as per local arrangements (FireCOM will confirm the availability of requested resources).

Question 220

According to Standing Orders, the Community Activities Reporting System (CARs) is the platform for reporting community activities engaged in at a station level and by our other specialist units. Who is authorised to enter completed activities in CARs?

Answer 220

All FF’s & SO

Question 221

According to FRNSW’s Cyber Security Policy, employees are responsible to protect the information they use and manage as part of their daily job. Employees are expected to complete Cyber Security Awareness Training how often?

Answer 221

Employees must complete Cyber Security Awareness Training annually.

Question 222

According to the Bushfire Hazard Reduction Procedure - There are two types of broad area prescribed burns. List and describe them.

Answer 222

There are two types of broad area prescribed burns - simple and complex.
A ‘simple’ prescribed burn is characterised by low risk, low intensity, small area, low potential impact on assets, completion in one shift and minimal variation of fuel and terrain.
A ‘complex’ prescribed burn is characterised by moderate to high risk, a range of fire intensity, medium to large areas, significant potential impact on assets and involve a variety of fuels and terrain.

Question 223

According to the Bushfire Hazard reduction procedure, pile burns may be carried out by FRNSW to dispose of vegetation resulting from which activities?

Answer 223

Activities resulting in vegetation for pile burns (Bushfire Hazard Reduction Procedure):
1. Clearing for firebreaks.
2. Land management activities.
3. Hazard reduction projects.

Question 224

According to the Bushfire hazard Reduction Policy, list occasions when prescribed burning conducted by FRNSW is not permitted in a fire district.

Answer 224

Occasions when prescribed burning is not permitted (Bushfire Hazard Reduction Policy):
1. Total fire bans.
2. Adverse weather conditions.
3. During nesting or breeding seasons for local fauna.
4. Where there are insufficient resources to conduct the burn safely.

Question 225

According to Case Study 2023-06, four firefighters injured by unauthorised equipment, during 2020-2021, four firefighters required treatment in hospital after being injured by unauthorised equipment that had been brought into FRNSW workplaces. What is the definition of unauthorised equipment as described in the case study.

Answer 225

Unauthorized equipment is any equipment that has not been tested, approved, or issued by FRNSW for operational use.

Question 226

According to the GSD for Incident Management, review and revision is undertaken to ensure that the IAP meets the ongoing tactical requirements of the incident and considers the safety of the firefighters. List the questions that review, and revision can help to answer.

Answer 226

Review and revision helps answers the following questions:
• Are the objectives of the lAP being achieved?
• Are the strategy and tactics employed safe?
• Are the tactics effective?

Question 227

According to the Guidelines for Managing Unsatisfactory Performance for Permanent and Retained Firefighters, describe generally unsatisfactory performance.

Answer 227

Consistently failing to meet expected standards of conduct, competence, or behavior required for the role.

Question 228

According to Standing Orders, who must be contacted before conducting PIP inspections on a premises to ensure the information is accurate?

Answer 228

There is no legislated “Power of Entry” for PIP Inspections.
Consent from building owner or occupier is required.

Question 229

According to the Six Minute Intensive Training – for Door entry, list the door entry techniques that can be used with the Halligan tool?

Answer 229

Inward adze roll
Fork drive
Outward adze ( drive and steer )

Question 230

According to the Six Minute Intensive Training for Door entry, list and, describe the five steps to forcing a door?

Answer 230

Size up
Gap
Set
Force
Control

Question 231

According to Six Minute Intensive Training, Search and Rescue, during Firefighting Operations, what does fire attack crew never ignore?

Answer 231

Never ignore a casualty

Question 232

According to the Six Minute Intensive Training for Search and Rescue during Firefighting Operations, the objective of a search is to confirm an ALL CLEAR, this is usually broken into two components, list and describe them?

Answer 232

Components of a search (Six Minute Intensive Training):
1. Primary Search: Quick, focused search for victims in immediate danger.
2. Secondary Search: Thorough search after fire suppression.

Question 233

According to the GSD for Incident Management, describe the terms withdraw and abandon as used by the IC to indicate to crews the urgency required to move from an offensive to a defensive strategy.

Answer 233

1. Withdraw: Orderly retreat of crews and equipment.
   
   2. Abandon: Immediate evacuation without regard for equipment.

Question 234

As stated in Six Minute Intensive Training – Search and rescue during firefighting operations, list the signs that would indicate it’s time to withdraw.

Answer 234

Worsening fire/smoke conditions
Signs of structural collapse (see STP 33Z)
• Previously unknown hazards e.g. Acetylene Emergency Radio Message signaling:
Loss of PAR
Change to a Defensive Strategy via an order from the I.C. to Withdraw or Abandon

Question 235

According to Safety Bulletin 2023-03 TIC lanyard entanglement risk - If the TIC needs to be handed between members of firefighting or search and rescue teams, describe the safest method to pass to the front firefighter.

Answer 235

Around the side of the body of the front firefighter and not over the shoulder

Question 236

According to the Six Minute Intensive Training, working safely on roads, what is the purpose of placing an appliance in the fend off position?

Answer 236

To shield the incident scene and crews from oncoming traffic.

Question 237

According to the SIMS worksheet, warning gear is used to mark off incidents sites and warn the public that FRNSW operations are nearby. As listed on the worksheet list the warning gear.

Answer 237

1 x carry bag
1 x red carry bag
4 × Eflare (dual red/blue flashing beacon)
5 x white strobes
4 x rubber base
5 x white lenses
4 x cone mounting clips
6x cones
Tape
Sign

Question 238

According to the SIMS Worksheet for extinguishers, all extinguishers are inspected and serviced by who and at what timeframes?

Answer 238

Inspected and serviced by licensed technicians every six months.

Question 239

According to the Toolkit, Mayday – Firefighter down, list the fast technique for removing a firefighter who is unconscious or has a decreased level of consciousness from their full firefighting ensemble and BA so that they can be assessed and treated.

Answer 239

Mayday drag

Remove SCBA straps, unzip the coat, and slide the ensemble off while maintaining airway control.

Question 240

According to SOGs when responded to a Community First Responder incident and the patient refuses care, what should you do?

Answer 240

If care is refused, observe the patient until the ambulance arrives.
Assume an unconscious patient wants assistance.
If a patient previously refusing treatment loses consciousness, treat them.

Question 241

According to the GSD for Incident Management-, until the IC delegates functional areas, the IC is managing all functions. The IC can delegate whatever functions are required to improve span of control, or deal with critical factors. List 5 of the functional roles that can be delegated.

Answer 241

Incident commander
Operations Officer.
Deputy operations officer
Safety Officer.
Staging officer.

Question 242

According to the Recommended practice for Personal Protective Clothing, equipment and uniform, to ensure visibility, firefighters must always wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when working on roadways. List the PPE that can be used.

Answer 242

PPE for working on roadways (Recommended Practice):
1. High-visibility vest.
2. Helmet
3. Structural firefighting boots.
4. Gloves.
5. Bushfire jacket

Question 243

According to the GSD Incident Management, there are several ways to communicate at an incident. List the most effective and preferred method.

Answer 243

Preferred communication method (GSD for Incident Management):
Face-to-face communication.

Question 244

According to SOGs, where FRNSW is requested to assist the NSW RFS at a structure fire in a rural Fire District who will be the Incident Controller?

Answer 244

Incident Controller in a rural fire district (SOGs):
The NSW RFS Incident Controller.

Question 245

According to the Recommended Practice, list the safety precautions when using extension ladders.

Answer 245

Safety precautions for extension ladders (Recommended Practice):
1. Ensure proper angle (1:4 ratio).
2. Secure the base.
3. Avoid overreaching.

Question 246

According to SOG 18.3, there are two levels of incident ground rehabilitation.
Describe when Level 1 or Level 2 Rehabilitation is recommended.
​

Answer 246

Level 1 Rehab - recommended for small incidents not requiring the response of a specialist incident ground rehabilitation capability. Level 1 Rehab uses equipment carried on front line firefighting appliances. Generally, the Incident Controller (IC) manages Level 1 Rehab.
• Level 2 Rehab - recommended for:
- long duration incidents
- in circumstances where crew rotation is limited
- hot and dry, or cold and wet, conditions
- where working conditions are arduous
- where breathing apparatus usage and rotation is high, or
- where conditions are such that specialist incident ground rehabilitation capabilities are required.
Generally, the IC appoints a dedicated Rehabilitation Officer for these incidents.

Question 247

According to the GSD for Incident Safety, FRNSW manages the safety of firefighters at incidents using what two strategies that lay out safe working practices?

Answer 247

Strategies for incident safety (GSD for Incident Safety):
1. Training
2. doctrine

Question 248

According to the GSD for Incident Safety, there are many aspects to ensuring safety at an incident, from the IC implementing the correct strategy, down to the firefighters wearing the right PPE for their assigned tasks. Incident safety can therefore be described in terms of what three levels?

Answer 248

Three levels of incident safety (GSD for Incident Safety):
1. Strategic: IC’s safety plan.
2. Tactical: Sector-level safety measures.
3. Task-level: Individual firefighter safety.

Question 249

Describe the term Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL) as found on the intranet.

Answer 249

The short term exposure limit (STEL) is the maximum concentration of a substance to which a worker may be exposed for no more than 15 minutes, 4 times a day over an 8 hour day with 60 minutes between exposures.

Question 250

According to the GSD for Incident Safety, what safety related worksheet is used as method of documenting hazards or risks and control measures at an incident?

Answer 250

The Incident Safety Worksheet.

Question 251

According to the GSD for Illicit Laboratories, list the categories of illicit labs.

Answer 251

Categories of illicit labs (GSD for Illicit Laboratories):
1. Drug manufacturing labs.
2. Explosive labs.
3. Counterfeit labs.

Question 252

According to the GSD for Electricity, describe what each letter of UPS. stands for.

Answer 252

UPS meaning (GSD for Electricity):
Uninterruptible Power Supply.

Question 253

According to the GSD for Illicit Laboratories, describe what FRNSW defines as an illicit lab.

Answer 253

Fire and Rescue NSW defines an illicit lab as any site that is used for unauthorised storage, processing or manufacturing of illicit substances, including drugs, chemicals, explosives, biological and radiological substances.
The substances involved may be harmful with long term consequences to both health and the environment. If radiological substances are suspected, refer to SOG 10.9 Radiological incidents.

Question 254

According to the GSD for Illicit laboratories, if you find yourself in what you believe to be an illicit lab, list the do nots associated.

Answer 254

engage with occupants
• enter any site if you suspect it to be an illicit drugs laboratory.
If you find yourself in a what you believe to be an illicit lab, DO NOT
• use phones/radios until clear of site
• turn on/off any lights or electrical appliances or remove power sources to the premises
• touch, smell, remove or tamper with anything
• allow persons to re-enter site.
Leave the site immediately and try to remember everything you have seen

Question 255

As stated in the Infection prevention and control manual, a yellow sharps container must always be available on every appliance and in each fire station to enable appropriate and safe disposal of sharps. Who must ensure that one is available?

Answer 255

All FF’s
Motor driver looking after Sims check

Question 256

According to Standing Orders what are the aims of annual occupational health and safety inspections of all fire stations and workplaces?

Answer 256

Aims of annual OH&S inspections (Standing Orders):
1. Identify hazards.
2. Ensure compliance.
3. Promote a safe working environment.

Question 257

According to Standing Orders Risk Management – Describe what a Pre incident plan is.

Answer 257

A strategic document detailing response protocols and resource allocations for potential incidents.

Question 258

According to Standing Orders, list the procedures Incident Controllers must follow when handing over control at the conclusion of an incident:

Answer 258

Seek out a responsible person, who may be the owner, occupier, agent or representative of the owner or occupier, or the person in charge of the site, and advise them that Fire and Rescue NSW believes the incident to be under control and is preparing to leave the scene.
2. Request that the person accept responsibility for the building, vehicle, vessel or property.
3. Fill in the Site handover form (see page 95) in accordance with the instructions on the pad, and ensure that the original and the copy are signed by both the Incident Controller and the person accepting responsibility.
4. Send a message to the Communication Centre advising that control has been passed to another person or entity, so that there is a time-logged record.
5. Advise the senior Police Officer on scene, if any, that Fire and Rescue NSW has transferred control, and to whom.
6. Where there is nobody to pass control to, ensure as far as practicable that the scene and any property is secured, or that appropriate arrangements are in place to safeguard it. Request the attendance of the Police if necessary.
7. Include details of the person or entity to whom control was passed in the AIRS report together with the precise time of handover.

Question 259

According to Standing Orders, why is a site handover form completed and what information does it include?

Answer 259

Site handover form

Question 260

According to the GSD for Water Rescue, list who the legislated combat agency is for flood, storm and tsunami

Answer 260

The SES (State Emergency Service).

Question 261

Section 28 of the Work Health and Safety Act 2011, lists the duties of workers while at work. List these duties.

Answer 261

Duties of workers (Work Health and Safety Act 2011):
1. Take reasonable care for their safety.
2. Ensure their actions do not harm others.
3. Comply with instructions.

Question 262

According to SOGs when establishing a hot zone at a major LPG gas leak, what distances should be established around tanks?

Answer 262

Hot zone distances for LPG leaks (SOGs):
1. Small tanks: 100 meters.
2. Large tanks: 300 meters.

Question 263

Safety and Operations Bulletins are communication tools that can be used as part of a plan to manage a risk or communicate an issue. According to Safety and Operations Bulletins policy list what are all staff responsible for?

Answer 263

Staff responsibilities for bulletins (Safety and Operations Bulletins):
1. Read and understand bulletins.
2. Implement measures as required.

Question 264

Section 46 of the Fire and Rescue NSW Regulation 2023 deals with false alarms. State the provisions of this section

Answer 264

the false alarm resulted from the activation of the alarm other than during a test of which prior notice was given to a fire brigade officer and that the Commissioner is satisfied was properly carried out, and
(b) it is the second or subsequent occasion of a false alarm by the alarm, in circumstances specified in paragraph (a), during a period of 60 days.

Question 265

Section 18 of the Fire and Rescue NSW Regulation 2023 refers to damage or misuse of departmental property. State the provisions of this clause.

Answer 265

A firefighter must not—
(a) wilfully or negligently damage departmental property, or
(b) fail to promptly report damage to departmental property, regardless of how the damage was caused, or
(c) use departmental property for an unauthorised purpose, or
(d) engage, whether directly or indirectly, in unauthorised use of departmental property.