Maureen (Best voted) Flashcards

1
Q
A user's laptop is unable to keep a stable network connection. Which of the following measures would MOST likely need to be configured?
A. SSID name
B. WAP encryption strength
C. WAP radio power
D. Channel overlay
A

C. WAP radio power
WAP radio power is the signal strength through which you can specify the range from which you can stay connected to the network and access internet. Here, when the user is not able to maintain a stable connection then it is a problem with the signal strength for sure so you can try to increase the signal strength by increasing the radio power.

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2
Q
The Network Interface Layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO).
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Physical
E. Data link
A

D. Physical & E. Data link
The network layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through intermediate routers, whereas the data link layer is responsible for media access control, flow control and error checking.

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3
Q
In which of the following layers of the OSI model would MAC addressing be found?
A. Network
B. Application
C. Data Link
D. Transport
A

C. Data Link
The ITU-TG.hnstandard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of aselective repeatSliding Window Protocol.

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4
Q
Several users from the finance department report that they are able to access the Internet, but unable to connect to their financial applications. The network technician is unable to ping the finance server. The technician decides to check the switch and determines that Internet access is working. Which of the following is a possible cause of the access issues?
A. Faulty cable
B. Remote management disabled
C. Improper VLAN assignment
D. Mismatched duplex
A

C. Improper VLAN assignment
Finance Server is placed in same VLAN which is assigned to finance users if they are able to access internet that’s means connectivity to switch is good, so we have to check the VLAN assigned to users.

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5
Q
A technician needs to ensure that traffic from a specific department is separated within several switches. Which of the following needs to be configured on the switch to separate the traffic?
A. Duplex settings
B. SNMP string
C. VLAN assignments
D. Spanning tree
A

C. VLAN assignments
A VLAN is a group of end stations with a common set of requirements, independent of physical location. VLANs have the same attributes as a physical LAN but allow you to group end stations even if they are not located physically on the same LAN segment.

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6
Q
Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, how many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet?
A. 250
B. 254
C. 255
D. 256
A
B. 254
TheSubnet Maskhowever, determines the "class" of a Network. 255.255.255.0 is a "Class C" network. A class C network can host up to 254 pc's
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7
Q
On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used?
A. Network
B. Data Link
C. Transport
D. Physical
A

B. Data Link
The ITU-TG.hnstandard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of aselective repeatSliding Window Protocol

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8
Q
Joe, a user, has a computer that has a link light on his network interface card (NIC); however, Joe is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is the cause othis issue?
A. Faulty GBIC
B. Faulty SFP
C. Cable is a crossover
D. VLAN mismatch
A

D. VLAN mismatch

As user has link light on NIC that means he has connectivity with switch so he need to check his vlan assignment

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9
Q
A network technician is troubleshooting signal problems with certain WAPs in an office and finds consistently high ping times across the units. Such an issue is called which of the following?
A. Latency
B. Attenuation
C. Crosstalk
D. Frequency hopping
A

A. Latency
During the high ping time users are using most of the bandwidth that causes latency so signal strength get affected by this.

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10
Q
Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to?
A. Transport
B. Internet
C. Application
D. Network Interface
A

C. Application
TheApplication layerprovides applications the ability to access the services of the other layers and defines the protocols that applications use to exchange data. There are many Application layer protocols and new protocols are always being developed

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11
Q
A customer wants to keep cost to a minimum and has only ordered a single static IP address from the ISP. Which of the following must be configured on the router to allow for all the computers to share the same public IP address?
A. VLANs
B. PoE
C. PAT
D. VPN
A

C. PAT
Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to
conserve IP addresses.

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12
Q
Which of the following LAN technologies is used to provide a MAXIMUM bandwidth of 1Gbps through singlemode fiber?
A. 10GBaseLR
B. 100BaseFX
C. 100BaseTX
D. 1000BaseX
A

D. 1000BaseX
1000BaseX identifies various Gigabit Ethernet physical layer standards as defined in IEEE802.3z, such as 1000BaseLX, 1000BaseSX, 1000BaseCX and 1000BaseLH. Basically, all standards included in 1000BaseX uses 8B/10B coding scheme with 8 bits of data and 2 bits of error correction data. Each specification allows various cable (fiber or copper) lengths, and uses different cable media.

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13
Q
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased outfrom the active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
A

A. Reservations
Reservationsare permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.

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14
Q
Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices?
A. Router
B. NIC
C. Switch
D. DHCP server
A

C. Switch
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is IEEE 802.1D. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.

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15
Q
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?
A. VLAN
B. Trunking
C. Spanning tree
D. Traffic filtering
A

A. VLAN
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.

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16
Q
A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task?
A. Media convertor
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Bridge
A

B. Switch
They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.

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17
Q
Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released?
A. DHCP lease
B. DNS suffix
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP reservation
A

A. DHCP lease
By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid.

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18
Q
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?
A. Ping
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Tracert
D. Dig
A

C. Tracert
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

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19
Q
Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. The result of an ipconfig command on Ann's workstation is as follows:
IP address: 192.168.0.124
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128
Default Gateway: 192.168.0.254
Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet?
A. Duplicate IP address
B. Incorrect gateway
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Bad switch port
A

B. Incorrect gateway
We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.

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20
Q
Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 443
A

C. 143
The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Aplication Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143

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21
Q
Which of the following network protocols is used to resolve FQDNs to IP addresses?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. APIPA
A

A. DNS
An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Because domain names are alphabetic, they’re easier to remember. The Internet however, is really based on IP addresses. Every time you use a domain name, therefore, a DNS service must translate the name into the corresponding IP address. For example, the domain name www.example.com might translate to198.105.232.4.

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22
Q
Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email between servers?
A. IMAP4
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
A

D. SMTP
While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail messages, user-level client mail applications typically use SMTP only for sending messages to a mail server for relaying

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23
Q

Ann, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.

A

B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.

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24
Q
Users have reported issues accessing an Internet website. The network technician wants to verify network layer connectivity. Which of the following tools can provide the verification?
A. ping
B. netstat
C. route
D. arp
A

A. ping
Pingis a computer network administration utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.

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25
Q
Which of the following is the FASTEST Ethernet technology?
A. 10GBaseSR
B. 10BaseT
C. 100BaseFX
D. 1000BaseT
A

A. 10GBaseSR
10GBASE-SR (“short range”) is a port type for multi-mode fiber and uses 850 nm lasers. Its Physical Coding Sublayer 64b/66b PCS is defined in IEEE 802.3 Clause 49 and its Physical Medium Dependent PMD in Clause 52. It delivers serialized data at a line rate of 10.3125 Gbit/s.

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26
Q
Network upgrades have been completed and the WINS server was shutdown. It was decided that NetBIOS network traffic will no longer be permitted. Which of the following will accomplish this objective?
A. Content filtering
B. Port filtering
C. MAC filtering
D. IP filtering
A

B. Port filtering
TCP/IPport filteringis the practice of selectively enabling or disabling Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports on computers or network devices. When used in conjunction with other security practices, such as deploying firewall software at your Internet access point, applying port filters to intranet and Internet servers insulates those servers from many TCP/IP-based security attacks, including internal attacks by malicious users.

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27
Q
Companies trying to cut down on constant documentation of IP addresses could use which of the following?
A. Longer lease times
B. More reservations
C. Larger scopes
D. Dynamic IP addressing
A

D. Dynamic IP addressing
In Dynamic IP addressing all the hosts with private ip address will be patted to the same ip so the administrator will not have to keep track of each and every host with private ip mapped to a static public ip address

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28
Q
Which of the following DHCP properties defines the size of the pool of available IP addresses?
A. Options
B. Scope
C. Leases
D. Reservations
A

B. Scope

A range of IP addresses that are available to be leased to DHCP clients by the DHCP Server service.

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29
Q
Which of the following protocols works at the LOWEST layer of the OSI model?
A. L2TP
B. PPTP
C. ISAKMP
D. IPSec
A

A. L2TP
Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is an extension of the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) used by an Internet service provider (ISP) to enable the operation of a virtual private network (VPN) over the Internet.

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30
Q
An employee connects to a work computer from home via the built-in Windows remote desktop connection. Which of the following is MOST likely being used to establish the connection?
A. RDP
B. RTP
C. RIP
D. RAS
A

A. RDP
Remote Desktop Protocol(RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft, which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection. The user employs RDP client software for this purpose, while the other computer must run RDP server software.

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31
Q
Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge are the steps for which of the following protocols?
A. DNS
B. DOS
C. DHCP
D. DSL
A

C. DHCP
when we install a dhcp server into our network then dhcp server works on the basis of dora process first dhcp server sends a hello message in to the network to discover the clients pc and when any client pc found in the network then, dhcp server offers the IP to client pc. When client pc selects any IP from dhcp server then client pc request for selected IP to dhcp server then dhcp server provide that IP to client pc and both send ackonledgement to each other.

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32
Q
Which of the following commands displays the routing table on a server or workstation?
A. nbtstat
B. route
C. traceroute
D. nmap
A

B. route
Theroute commandallows you to make manual entries into the network routing tables. The route command distinguishes between routes to hosts …

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33
Q
At which of the following layers of the OSI model does ASCII work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Presentation
D. Application
A

C. Presentation
The presentation layer is responsible for the delivery and formatting of information to the application layer for further processing or display. It relieves the application layer of concern regarding syntactical differences in data representation within the end-user systems. An example of a presentation service would be the conversion of
an EBCDIC-coded text computer file to an ASCII-coded file.

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34
Q
Which of the following uses port 23 by default?
A. TELNET
B. IMAP
C. FTP
D. SNMP
A

A. TELNET
Telnetis a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive text oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection. User data is interspersed in-band with Telnet control information in an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

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35
Q
Assigning the same IP address to a network device is which of the following?
A. SSID
B. Scope
C. Reservation
D. Lease
A

C. Reservation
You might want to assign network printers and certain servers DHCP reservations to ensure that they always have the same IP address, but continue to receive updated configuration information from the DHCP server. For example, create reservations for servers that must always have the same IP address.

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36
Q
At which of the following layers do frames exist? (Select TWO).
A. OSI model Data link layer
B. TCP/IP model Network Interface layer
C. OSI model Physical layer
D. OSI model Network layer
E. TCP/IP model Internet layer
A

A. OSI model Data link layer &
B. TCP/IP model Network Interface layer
The data link layer is concerned with local delivery of frames between devices on the same LAN. Data-link frames, as these protocol data units are called, do not cross the boundaries of a local network. Inter-network routing and global addressing are higher layer functions, allowing data-link protocols to focus on local delivery, addressing, and media arbitration. In this way, the data link layer is analogous to a neighborhood traffic cop; it endeavors to arbitrate between parties contending for access to a medium, without concern for their ultimate
destination.

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37
Q

A user is unable to access any network resources. The IP configuration of the workstation is as follows:
IP Address: 192.168.10.32
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.10.46
Which of the following would allow the user to connect to network resources?
A. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.1
B. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.254
C. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.31
D. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.33

A

D. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.33

The given ip address is network id which we don’t assign to the host so the next ip is applicable to this.

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38
Q
Which of the following DNS records is used to identify a domain's SMTP server?
A. CNAME
B. PTR
C. MX
D. A
A

C. MX
Amail exchanger record(MX record) is a type of resource record in the Domain Name System that specifies a mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient’s domain, and a preference value used to prioritize mail delivery if multiple mail servers are available. The set of MX records of a domain name specifies how email should be routed with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

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39
Q
Which of the following TCP ports are used by FTP? (Select TWO).
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
E. 25
F. 80
A

A. 20 & B. 21
FTP uses two ports by default: 21 for sending commands, and 20 for sending data. For instance if you said “FTP “ it would make the attempt using port 21. If the session was established, port 20 would be using for the data. NotE.These are the default ports which is what I assume you were asking. A server administrator can however configure FTP to use whatever port he defines.

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40
Q
Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly used for the transfer of router configuration files?
A. SSL
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. IMAP
A

B. TFTP
Trivial File Transfer Protocol(TFTP) is a file transfer protocol notable for its simplicity. It is generally used for automated transfer of configuration or boot files between machines in a local environment. Compared to FTP, TFTP is extremely limited, providing no authentication, and is rarely used interactively by a user.

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41
Q
Which of the following protocols resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses?
A. DNS
B. ARP
C. RARP
D. NTP
A

B. ARP
ARP is used to convert an IP address to a physical address such as an Ethernet address. ARP has been implemented with many combinations of network and data link layer technologies, such as
IPv4,Chaosnet,DECnetand Xerox PARC Universal Packet (PUP) using IEEE 802 standards, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay and Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM). IPv4 over IEEE 802.3 and IEEE 802.11 is the most common case.

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42
Q
Which of the following port numbers is used for SNMP?
A. 61
B. 151
C. 161
D. 1611
A

C. 161
Simple Network Management Protocol(SNMP) is an “Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks”. Devices that typically support SNMP include routers, , servers, workstations, printers, modem racks, UPSes and more. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor network attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention.

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43
Q

Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server?
A. Hosts proprietary business applications
B. Translates FQDN’s to IP addresses
C. Provides network IDS/IPS security
D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices

A

B. Translates FQDN’s to IP addresses
Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client computers query a DNS server to resolve memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers use to communicate with each other.

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44
Q
Which of the following features can BEST be used to facilitate authorized remote access to a network?
A. VPN concentrator
B. Proxy server
C. Content filter
D. Load balancer
A

A. VPN concentrator
The VPN Concentrator is used for Remote Access VPN’s. In typical use, a Remote Access VPN allows users to use an encrypted tunnel to securely access a corporate or other network via the Internet.

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45
Q
Which of the following is a Class A IP address?
A. 10.4.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 254.200.0.1
A

A. 10.4.0.1

Class A ip address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

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46
Q
A network where all traffic feeds through a centralized gateway uses which of the following topologies?
A. Peer-to-peer
B. Ring
C. Bus
D. Star
A

D. Star
A bus topology is a type of network setup where each computer and network device is connected to a single cable or backbone.

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47
Q
In order to limit the number of dynamic addresses of hosts on a network, which of the following can be implemented?
A. Scope options
B. Leases
C. Reservations
D. DNS suffixes
A

C. Reservations
DHCP Reservation is used to assign a fixed IP Address to a device that always requires the same IP Address every time it is in use. This feature can be used for a print server, IP Camera, Network storage device as well as a computer

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48
Q
Which of the following IP address/subnet mask combinations represent a broadcast address? (Select TWO).
A. 200.200.100.0/28
B. 200.200.100.32/27
C. 200.200.100.63/27
D. 200.200.100.79/27
E. 200.200.100.95/27
F. 200.200.100.254/30
A

C. 200.200.100.63/27 & E. 200.200.100.95/27
A broadcast address is a logical address at which all devices connected to a multiple-access communications network are enabled to receive datagrams. A message sent to a broadcast address is typically received by all network-attached hosts, rather than by a specific host. ReferencE.http://www.wikihow.com/Calculate-Networkand-Broadcast-Address

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49
Q
Which of the following networking devices can exist at several layers of the OSI model at the same time?(Select TWO).
A. Switch
B. Cable
C. Repeater
D. Router
E. Bridge
F. Hub
A

A. Switch & D. Router

A Multilayer Switch and Router work from OSI layer 2, 3 or 4 to IP DSCP (if IP packet) and/or VLAN IEEE 802.1p.

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50
Q
Which of the following is a path vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. ISIS
D. OSPF
E. BGP
A

E. BGP
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is a protocol for exchanging routing information between gateway hosts (each with its own router) in a network of autonomous systems. BGP is often the protocol used between gateway hosts on the Internet. The routing table contains a list of known routers, the addresses they can reach, and a cost metric associated with the path to each router so that the best available route is chosen.
Hosts using BGP communicate using the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and send updated router table information only when one host has detected a change. Only the affected part of the routing table is sent.

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51
Q
Which of the following routing protocols utilizes the DUAL algorithm for determining best path?
A. EIGRP
B. RIPv2
C. OSPF
D. RIP
A

A. EIGRP
Explanation: Diffusing Update Algorithm guarantees loop-free operation and provides a mechanism for fast convergence.
What is EIGRP?
EIGRP is an enhanced version of IGRP. The same distance vector technology found in IGRP is also used in EIGRP, and the underlying distance information remains unchanged.
The convergence properties and the operating efficiency of this protocol have improved significantly. This allows for an improved architecture while retaining existing investment in IGRP.
The convergence technology is based on research conducted at SRI International. The Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) is the algorithm used to obtain loop-freedom at every instant throughout a route computation. This allows all routers involved in a topology change to synchronize at the same time. Routers that are not affected by topology changes are not involved in the recomputation. The convergence time with DUAL rivals that of any other existing routing protocol.
EIGRP has been extended to be network-layer-protocol independent, thereby allowing DUAL to support other protocol suites.
How Does EIGRP Work?
EIGRP has four basic components:
Neighbor Discovery/Recovery
Reliable Transport Protocol
DUAL Finite State Machine
Protocol Dependent Modules
Neighbor Discovery/Recovery is the process that routers use to dynamically learn of other routers on their directly attached networks. Routers must also discover when their neighbors become unreachable or inoperative. This process is achieved with low overhead by periodically sending small hello packets. As long as hello packets are received, a router can determine that a neighbor is alive and functioning. Once this is determined, the neighboring routers can exchange routing information.
The reliable transport is responsible for guaranteed, ordered delivery of EIGRP packets to all neighbors. It supports intermixed transmission of multicast or unicast packets. Some EIGRP packets must be transmitted reliably and others need not. For efficiency, reliability is provided only when necessary. For example, on a multi-access network that has multicast
capabilities, such as Ethernet, it is not necessary to send hellos reliably to all neighbors
individually. So EIGRP, sends a single multicast hello with an indication in the packet
informing the receivers that the packet need not be acknowledged. Other types of packets,
such as updates, require acknowledgment and this is indicated in the packet. The reliable
transport has a provision to send multicast packets quickly when there are unacknowledged
packets pending. This helps insure that convergence time remains low in the presence of
varying speed links.
The DUAL finite state machine embodies the decision process for all route computations. It tracks all routes advertised by all neighbors. The distance information, known as a metric, is
used by DUAL to select efficient loop free paths. DUAL selects routes to be inserted into a
routing table based on feasible successors. A successor is a neighboring router used for
packet forwarding that has a least cost path to a destination that is guaranteed not to be
part of a routing loop. When there are no feasible successors but there are neighbors
advertising the destination, a recomputation must occur. This is the process where a new
successor is determined. The amount of time it takes to recompute the route affects the
convergence time. Even though the recomputation is not processor-intensive, it is
advantageous to avoid recomputation if it is not necessary. When a topology change occurs, DUAL will test for feasible successors. If there are feasible successors, it will use
any it finds in order to avoid any unnecessary recomputation. Feasible successors are
defined in more detail later in this document.
The protocol-dependent modules are responsible for network layer, protocol-specific
requirements. For example, the IP-EIGRP module is responsible for sending and receiving
EIGRP packets that are encapsulated in IP. IP-EIGRP is responsible for parsing EIGRP
packets and informing DUAL of the new information received. IP-EIGRP asks DUAL to make routing decisions and the results of which are stored in the IP routing table. IP-EIGRP is responsible for redistributing routes learned by other IP routing protocols.

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52
Q
The network interface layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds with which of the following layers of the OSI
model? (Select TWO).
A. Transport layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer
D. Physical layer
E. Presentation layer
F. Data link layer
A

D. Physical layer & F. Data link layer
The lowest layer of the OSI Reference Model is the physical layer, which is responsible for the “nitty gritty” details of transmitting information from one place to another on a network. The layer just above the physical layer is the data link layer, called the network interface layer or just the link layer in the TCP/IP architectural
model. Its primary job is to implement networks at the local level, and to interface between the hardware oriented physical layer, and the more abstract, software- oriented functions of the network layer and those above it.

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53
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the definition of DHCP?
A. DHCP is utilized to dynamically lease IP addresses to hosts.
B. DHCP is utilized to statically lease IP address to hosts.
C. DHCP is utilized to permanently lease IP address dynamically to hosts.
D. DHCP is utilized to permanently lease IP address statically to hosts.

A

A. DHCP is utilized to dynamically lease IP addresses to hosts.
Because DHCP server maintains a database of available IP addresses and configuration information. When the server receives a request from a client, the DHCP server determines the network to which the DHCP client is connected, and then allocates an IP address or prefix that is appropriate for the client, and sends configuration information appropriate for that client

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54
Q

Multiple servers’ IP addresses fall within the DHCP scope assigned by the administrator. Which of the following
should be implemented to ensure these static IP addresses are not assigned to workstations?
A. The administrator should create exclusions for the workstations IP addresses.
B. The administrator should change the servers to utilize DHCP to obtain IP addresses.
C. The administrator should change the workstations to utilize static IP addresses.
D. The administrator should create exclusions for the servers IP addresses.

A

D. The administrator should create exclusions for the servers IP addresses.
Whenever you define the ip pool from which IP addresses are to be dynamically assigned to the users then in order to avoid assignment of static ip address we can creat exclusion for the static ip addresses so that they are not assigned to any other host and this is how we can avoid ip address conflict on the network.

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55
Q
The APIPA address 169.254.10.123 falls into which of the following class of addresses?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
A
B. B
As the range for class B is from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
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56
Q

A technician replaces a failed router in an office with the same model unit using the default settings. After the installation, the technician reboots all of the PCs and servers. Upon reboot some of the PCs are receiving IP addresses on the same subnet as the new router; other PCs are receiving addresses on the same subnet as the servers. Which of the following most likely describes the issue?
A. The DHCP lease pool was not large enough
B. DHCP lease times were set too low
C. The router is not the only DHCP server
D. DHCP was not enabled on the replacement router

A

C. The router is not the only DHCP server
This happens when there are multiple DHCP servers in the same LAN subnet. Here some machines are getting ip address from the router while some are getting ip address from another DHCP server present in the same domain.

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57
Q
Which of the following is the OSI layer that handles file compression such as LZMA or DEFLATE?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 5
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 7
A

C. Layer 6
The presentation level is translator between the application and network format. Unlike the lower layers, its concern is with the syntax and semantics of the information transmitted. Most user programs do not exchange random binary bit strings. They exchange data such as names, addresses, dates, etc. Different computers store the data in a different way. In order to allow these computers to transmit the data to each other the presentation layer translates the data into a standard form to be used on the network. Another function is data
compression which can be used to reduce the number of bits needed to send the packet of information. Security is also added at this layer by using data encryption and decryption. This prevents others from intercepting the data and being able to decipher the meaning of the bits.

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58
Q
Which of the following provides secure access to a network device?
A. SNMPv2
B. FTP
C. RSH
D. SSH
A

D. SSH
Explanation: Secure Shell(SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers that connects, via a secure channel over an insecure network, a server and a client (running SSH server and SSH client programs, respectively).

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59
Q
Which of the following uses distance vector algorithms to determine the BEST network route to a destination address?
A. IS-IS
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. RIP
A

D. RIP
“Distance Vector” and “Link State” are terms used to describe routing protocols which are used by routers to forward packets between networks. The terms distance vector and link state are used to group routing protocols into two broad categories based on whether the routing protocol selects the best routing path based on a distance metric (the distance) and an interface (the vector), or selects the best routing path by calculating the state of each link in a path and finding the path that has the lowest total metric to reach the destination. Distance is the cost of reaching a destination, usually based on the number of hosts the path passes through, or the total of all the administrative metrics assigned to the links in the path Distance vector protocols use a distance calculation plus an outgoing network interface (a vector) to choose the best path to a destination network. The network protocol (IPX, SPX, IP, Appletalk, DECnet etc.) will forward data using the best paths selected. Common distance vector routing protocols include: Appletalk RTMP IPX RIP IP RIP IGRP

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60
Q
Which of the following uses classless subnet masks across a network?
A. Subnetting
B. CIDR
C. Supernetting
D. Summarization
A

B. CIDR
Classless Inter-Domain Routing is based onvariable-length subnet masking(VLSM), which allows a network to be divided into variously sized subnets, providing the opportunity to size a network more appropriately for local needs and also CIDR allows an address or routing prefix to be written with a suffix indicating the number of bits
of the prefix, such as 192.168.2.0/24.

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61
Q
Enterprise IP routing policy is MOST clearly depicted in which of the following configuration management
documents?
A. Logical network diagrams
B. Physical network diagrams
C. Wiring schematics
D. Group security role assignments
A

A. Logical network diagrams
A logical network diagram illustrates the network architecture of a group of interconnected computers and other devices, such as printers, modems, switches, routers, and even mobile devices. These electronic components form the physical network that provides local area network (LAN) and wide area network (WAN) access to
users. Once you know the layout and you have an idea about the packet flow then your job becomes easy and you can create an action plan to go for the implementation.

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62
Q

While working on a PC, a technician notices 0.0.0.0 in the routing table. Which of the following does this
indicate
A. It is the default route.
B. This is the address for the DHCP server.
C. The PC has not been assigned an IP address.
D. The firewall is down.

A

A. It is the default route.
The address 0.0.0.0 generally means “any address”. If a packet destination doesn’t match an individual address in the table, it must match a 0.0.0.0 gateway address. In other words, default gateway is
always pointed by 0.0.0.0:

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63
Q
If a NIC does not have a link light, there is a failure at which of the following OSI layers?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Data link
D. Presentation
A

A. Physical
Explanation: The NIC does not have light refers to a situation that there could be a fault in the LAN cable or the ports are down and all of these fall under the physical layer. To make it simple, it falls in physical layer because blinking lights refers to the physical connectivity.

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64
Q
Which of the following OSI layers allows users to access network services such as file sharing?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7
A

D. Layer 7
Basically File Transfer protocol (FTP) is responsible for file transfer which lies under Application layer (Layer 7) of OSI layers.

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65
Q
Which of the following can function in an unsecure mode?
A. SNMPv3
B. SSH
C. SSL
D. SCP
A

A. SNMPv3
SNMPv3 makes no changes to the protocol aside from the addition of cryptographic security, it looks much different due to new textual conventions, concepts, and terminology.SNMPv3 primarily added
security and remote configuration enhancements to SNMP

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66
Q
Which of the following is used to register and resolve IP addresses with their plain language equivalents?
A. Proxy server
B. DNS server
C. Brouter equipment
D. DHCP server
A

B. DNS server
DNS server translate (resolution) the human-memorable domain names and hostnames into the corresponding numeric Internet Protocol (IP) addresses.

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67
Q
Which of the following switch features allows for both incoming and outgoing data across physical ports at the same time?
A. Burst-frame
B. Full-duplex
C. Half-duplex
D. VoIP
A

B. Full-duplex
Afull-duplex(FDX), or sometimesdouble-duplexsystem, allows communication in both directions, and, unlike half-duplex, allows this to happen simultaneously. Land-line telephone networks are full-duplex, since they allow both callers to speak and be heard at the same time

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68
Q
Which of the following is a common physical network topology?
A. Cross-over
B. Loopback
C. Star
D. Straight
A

C. Star
A star network consists of one centralswitch,hubor computer, which acts as a conduit to transmit messages. This consists of a central node, to which all other nodes are connected; this central node provides a common connection point for all nodes through a hub. In star topology, every node (computer workstation or any other peripheral) is connected to central node called hub or switch.

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69
Q

Which of the following is always true when a router selects a destination?
A. The default gateway is selected over any other static or dynamic route.
B. The shortest route is always selected.
C. The most specific route is selected over the default gateway.
D. A dynamic route is selected over a directly attached network.

A

C. The most specific route is selected over the default gateway.
Router always looks for the most closely matched route for forwarding the packet. For example if there are two routes in your router and you have to send a packet to a host with an ip 10.10.10.10 then it will
forward packet to 192.168.1.10 rather than 192.168.1.1:
Network
Destination 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
Netmask 255.255.255.0
Gateway 192.168.1.1
10.10.10.0 192.168.1.10

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70
Q
A proxy server would MOST likely be installed to provide which of the following functions? (Select TWO).
A. Combined DNS and DHCP hosting
B. Encryption
C. Content filtering
D. Fault tolerance
E. Website caching
A

C. Content filtering & E. Website caching
A content-filtering web proxy server provides administrative control over the content that may be relayed in one or both directions through the proxy. A caching proxyserver accelerates service requests by
retrieving content saved from a previous request made by the same client or even other clients.

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71
Q
Which of the following would the telecommunications carrier use to segregate customer traffic over long fiber
links?
A. VLAN
B. MPLS
C. VPN
D. PSTN
A

B. MPLS
Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is a standards-approved technology for speeding up network traffic flow and making it easier to manage. MPLS involves setting up a specific path for a given sequence of packets, identified by a label put in each packet, thus saving the time needed for a router to look up the address to
the next node to forward the packet to. MPLS is called multiprotocol because it works with the Internet Protocol (IP), Asynchronous Transport Mode (ATM), and frame relay network protocols. With reference to the standard model for a network (the Open Systems Interconnection, or OSI model), MPLS allows most packets to be forwarded at the Layer 2 (switching) level rather than at the Layer 3 (routing) level. In addition to moving traffic faster overall, MPLS makes it easy to manage a network for quality of service (QoS). For these reasons, the technique is expected to be readily adopted as networks begin to carry more and different mixtures of traffic

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72
Q
An administrator notices SMTP traffic is being blocked by the company firewall. Which of the following ports should be opened?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 110
D. 443
A

A. 25
SMTPis an Internet standard for electronic mail (e-mail) transmission across Internet Protocol (IP) networks. SMTP uses TCP port 25.

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73
Q
Which of the following network topologies would be separated into two networks if a client in the middle is removed or the cable is cut?
A. Mesh
B. Ring
C. Bus
D. Star
A

C. Bus
Abus network topologyis a network topology in which a set of clients are connected via a shared communications line/cables, called a bus.

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74
Q
Which of the following is an example of a Class C address?
A. 10.19.0.79
B. 127.34.8.197
C. 176.96.1.222
D. 192.168.1.105
A

D. 192.168.1.105

Class C address range varies from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255.

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75
Q
Which of the following standards can operate at either 20MHz or 40MHz channel spacing?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
A

D. 802.11n
The 2.4 GHz ISM band is fairly congested. With 802.11n, there is the option to double the bandwidth per channel to 40 MHz which results in slightly more than double the data rate. However, when in 2.4 GHz, enabling this option takes up to 82%[10] of the unlicensed band, which in many areas may prove to be infeasible. The specification calls for requiring one primary 20 MHz channel as well as a secondary adjacent channel spaced ±20 MHz away. The primary channel is used for communications with clients incapable of 40 MHz mode. When in 40 MHz mode, the center frequency is actually the mean of the primary and secondary channels.

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76
Q

A network technician has just upgraded a switch. The new switch’s IP range and subnet mask correctly match other network devices. The technician cannot ping any device outside of the switch’s own IP subnet. The previous switch worked correctly with the same settings. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. The proxy server is set incorrectly.
B. The Ethernet cable is pinched.
C. The network gateway is set incorrectly.
D. The IP address is set incorrectly.

A

C. The network gateway is set incorrectly.
When user is able to ping everything in its own subnet that means that all the hosts are reachable however when you are not able to ping anything outside of this subnet then please check if the device is sending traffic to the correct host who should forward it to the further devices.

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77
Q
Joe has a small office and is looking to replace his phone system with a lower cost solution that requires minimal in-house support. Which of the following is the BEST choice?
A. Wide Area Network
B. NAT
C. Virtual PBX
D. Virtual LAN
A

C. Virtual PBX
Virtual PBX,a business phone system providing call routing, follow-me calling, voice-mail, fax-mail, and ACD queues with no customer installed equipment.

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78
Q
Which of the following performance optimization techniques would be MOST beneficial for a network-wide VoIP setup? (Select TWO).
A. Proxy server
B. Traffic shaping
C. Caching engines
D. Load balancing
E. Quality of service
A

B. Traffic shaping & E. Quality of service
Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output rate. QoS (Quality of Service) is a major issue in VOIP implementations. The issue is how to guarantee that packet traffic for a voice or other media connection will not be delayed or dropped due interference from other lower priority traffic.
Things to consider are:
Latency: Delay for packet delivery
Jitter: Variations in delay of packet delivery
Packet loss: Too much traffic in the network causes the network to drop packets
Buss nest of Loss and Jitter: Loss and Discards (due to jitter) tend to occur in bursts

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79
Q
A customer has requested a solution using multiple WAPs for wireless access. Which of the following should be different on each WAP to prevent wireless problems?
A. Firewalls
B. VLANs
C. Channels
D. Antenna types
A

C. Channels
Protocol requires 16.25 to 22 MHz of channel separation (as shown above), adjacent channels overlap and will interfere with each other.
Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the most common channels to choose, and most routers will use one of them as the default channel–but the general idea is to be as far away from everybody else as you can

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80
Q
Which of the following wireless standards has a MAXIMUM transfer rate of 11Mbps?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
A
B. 802.11b
The 802.11b standard allows for a maximum data transfer speed of 11 Mbps, at a range of about 100 m indoors and up to 200 metres outdoors (or even beyond that, with directional antennas.) Hypothetical Range(indoors) Range(outdoors)speed
11 Mbits/s 50 m 200 m
5.5 Mbits/s 75m 300 m
2 Mbits/s 100 m 400 m
1 Mbit/s 150 m 500 m
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81
Q
A network technician needs to configure a port on a switch to provide connectivity and electrical support to a WAP being installed in a warehouse. Which of the following features needs to be configured on the switch?
A. STP
B. PoE
C. VTP trunking
D. Port forwarding
A

B. PoE
Power over Ethernet or PoE describes any of several standardized or ad-hoc systems which pass electrical power along with data on Ethernet cabling. This allows a single cable to provide both data connection and electrical power to devices such as wireless access points or IP cameras.

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82
Q
The network support team is constantly getting calls from users in a specific area of an office building. The users are able to connect to the office wireless network, but they sometimes disconnect or experience very slow download speeds. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. Incorrect service set identifier
B. Low signal strength or interference
C. Incorrect encryption scheme
D. Incorrect IP address or subnet mask
A

B. Low signal strength or interference
This generally happens when the signals are weak in any particular area and any movement can make you lose connectivity to the internet. In this case you can try to increase the radio power so that the signal strength can be increased.

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83
Q
A technician needs multiple networks, high speeds, and redundancy on a system. Which of the following configurations should be considered for these requirements? (Select TWO).
A. Routing table
B. Next hop
C. Port mirroring
D. Port monitoring
E. VLANs
A

C. Port mirroring & E. VLANs
Port mirroring is used on a network switch to send a copy of network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to a network monitoring connection on another switch port. This is commonly used for network appliances that require monitoring of network traffic, such as an intrusion detection system, passive probe or real user monitoring (RUM) technology that is used to support application performance management (APM). In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a Virtual Local Area Network, Virtual LAN or VLAN.

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84
Q
A user reports that some normally accessible external sites are not responding, but most other sites are responding normally. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. VLAN tag mismatch
B. Wrong subnet mask
C. Smurf attack
D. Faulty routing rule
A

D. Faulty routing rule
This happens when the DNS server is able to resolve the URL but there can be a conflicting route pointing to somewhere else rather than to the correct device who is responsible for routing traffic to the internet.

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85
Q
During a disaster recovery test, several billing representatives need to be temporarily setup to take payments from customers. It has been determined that this will need to occur over a wireless network, with security being enforced where possible. Which of the following configurations should be used in this scenario?
A. WPA2, SSID enabled, and 802.11n.
B. WEP, SSID enabled, and 802.11b.
C. WEP, SSID disabled, and 802.11g.
D. WPA2, SSID disabled, and 802.11a.
A

D. WPA2, SSID disabled, and 802.11a.
WPA2 is a security technology commonly used on Wi-Fi wireless networks. WPA2 (Wireless Protected Access
2) replaced the original WPA technology on all certified Wi-Fi hardware since 2006 and is based on the IEEE
802.11i technology standard for data encryption.

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86
Q
Which of the following wiring distribution types, often found in company closets, is used to connect wiring from individual offices to the main LAN cabling?
A. MDF
B. 66 block
C. IDF
D. Patch panel
A

D. Patch panel
A patch panel, patch bay, patch field or jack field is a number of circuits, usually of the same or similar type, which appear on jacks for monitoring, interconnecting, and testing circuits in a convenient, flexible manner.

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87
Q
Which of the following is the difference between 802.11b and 802.11g?
A. Distance
B. Frequency
C. Speed
D. Transmission power
A

C. Speed

802.11b has a maximum speed of 11Mbps whereas 802.11g has a speed of 54Mbps.

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88
Q
Which of the following connectors is usable in SFP modules?
A. ST
B. LC
C. LX
D. SX
A

B. LC

LC connector is used in SFP modules.

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89
Q
A user reports that several spots within the company's office have intermittent connectivity issues with the newly installed wireless network. There are several WAPs located around the office to provide a strong signal wherever the users are. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. Incompatible network card
B. Channel overlap
C. Latency
D. WEP encryption
A

B. Channel overlap
To reduce interference between wireless APs, ensure that wireless APs with overlapping signals use unique channel frequencies. The 802.11b standard reserves 14 frequency channels for use with wireless APs.

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90
Q

A customer is having problems connecting to a wireless network in a shared office space. The customer can detect several other wireless network signals. All of the wireless networks have different SSIDs but several are using the same encryption type. Which of the following should be configured on the customer’s wireless network to improve connectivity to the wireless network?
A. Change the SSID to match other wireless networks for increased throughput.
B. Change the encryption type to a different mechanism to avoid interference.
C. Change the channel to a different channel than the other wireless networks.
D. Change the WAP to a different manufacturer than the other wireless networks

A

C. Change the channel to a different channel than the other wireless networks.
To reduce interference between wireless APs, ensure that wireless APs with overlapping signals use unique channel frequencies. The 802.11b standard reserves 14 frequency channels for use with wireless APs. You can use any other channel instead of the one that you are using.

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91
Q
A network technician is setting up a wireless access point that would only allow a certain laptop to be able to access the WAP. By using ACL, which of the following would be filtered to ensure only the authorized laptop can access the WAP?
A. NetBIOS name filtering
B. IP address filtering
C. MAC address filtering
D. Computer name filtering
A
C. MAC address filtering
MAC Filtering (or EUI filtering, or layer 2 address filtering) refers to a security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network.
MAC addresses are uniquely assigned to each card, so using MAC filtering on a network permits and denies network access to specific devices through the use of blacklists and whitelists. While the restriction of network access through the use of lists is straightforward, an individual person is not identified by a MAC address, rather a device only, so an authorized person will need to have a whitelist entry for each device that he or she would use to access the network.
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92
Q

Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent new users from connecting to a wireless access point, but still allow already connected users to continue to connect?
A. Create a MAC filter containing the current users.
B. Turn off SSID broadcast.
C. Change the encryption type to AES 256-bit for current users.
D. Reduce the signal strength to 0 percent.

A
A. Create a MAC filter containing the current users.
MAC Filtering (or EUI filtering, or layer 2 address filtering) refers to a security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network.
MAC addresses are uniquely assigned to each card, so using MAC filtering on a network permits and denies network access to specific devices through the use of blacklists and whitelists. While the restriction of network access through the use of lists is straightforward, an individual person is not identified by a MAC address, rather a device only, so an authorized person will need to have a whitelist entry for each device that he or she would use to access the network.
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93
Q
A network administrator is tasked with deploying a company-wide wireless system which allows for accurate tracking of employees' wireless device locations via WAP triangulation. Which of the following is the MOST important aspect of the deployment?
A. WAP placement
B. TX/RX channel
C. Signal strength
D. Transmission power
A

A. WAP placement
Before going ahead with the deployment, the first thing that need to be check is where you are going to place your wireless router so that you can have internet connectivity from every location that you need.

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94
Q
A network administrator needs to implement a monitoring tool and be able to send log information to a server and receive log information from other clients. Which of the following should be implemented? (Select TWO).
A. SNMP
B. Network sniffer
C. Syslog
D. System log
E. History log
A

A. SNMP & C. Syslog
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an “Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks”. Devices that typically support SNMP include routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers, modem racks and more. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention. Syslog is a standard for computer message logging. It permits separation of the software that generates messages from the system that stores them and the software that reports and analyzes them.

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95
Q
A network administrator must ensure that both the server and the client are authenticated to the wireless system before access is granted. Which of the following should be implemented to meet this requirement?
A. EAP-PEAP
B. MAC ACL
C. EAP-TTLS
D. MS-CHAPv2
A

C. EAP-TTLS
Extensible Authentication Protocol, or EAP, is an authentication framework frequently used in wireless networks and Point-to-Point connections. EAP is an authentication framework providing for the transport and usage of keying material and parameters generated by EAP methods.

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96
Q
A technician has low signal strength connecting two wireless bridges. Which of the following could be the problem?
A. Low PoE wattage
B. Opposing antenna polarizations
C. Short distance between antennas
D. WPA 2 encryption
A

B. Opposing antenna polarizations
The polarization of an antenna is the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth’s surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation. It has nothing in common with antenna directionality terms: “horizontal”, “vertical”, and “circular”. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally.

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97
Q
Which of the following is a terminal emulator used to manage a network device?
A. VPN
B. IDS
C. PuTTY
D. IPS
A

C. PuTTY
PuTTY is a free and open-source terminal emulator, serial console and network file transfer application. It supports several network protocols, including SCP, SSH, Telnet and rlogin.

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98
Q
A network administrator suspects a broadcast storm is causing performance issues on the network. Which of the following would be used to verify this situation?
A. Environmental monitor
B. Multimeter
C. Toner probe
D. Protocol analyzer
A

D. Protocol analyzer
A “Protocol analyzer” is a tool (hardware or software) used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a communication channel.

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99
Q
Ann, a technician, is installing network cables for an office building. Some of the cables are not showing active on the switch even when moved to different ports. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. Port speed mismatch
B. Faulty F-connectors
C. Bad wiring
D. Bad switch
A

C. Bad wiring
Bad wiring refers to the state when you do not follow a pattern and everything seems messed up and you are not able to figure out the cause.

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100
Q
After a new user moves furniture into a cubicle, the computer does not connect to the network any longer. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason? (Select TWO).
A. Bad Ethernet switch port
B. TX/RX reversed
C. Bad connectors
D. Bad patch cable
E. Mismatched MTU
A

C. Bad connectors & D. Bad patch cable
It could be problem with the bad connector because the user just moved furniture to the cubicle and it is quite possible that the movement of the furniture has created problem by disrupting the cabling and connections. These two are the important things which can be broken down whenever there is a physical movement.

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101
Q
Which of the following performance benefits would multiple domain controllers BEST provide?
A. Fault tolerance
B. Caching engine
C. Proxy server
D. Quality of service
A

A. Fault tolerance
Fault-tolerant design is a design that enables a system to continue its intended operation, possibly at a reduced level, rather than failing completely, when some part of the system fails. The term is most commonly used to describe computer-based systems designed to continue more or less fully operational with, perhaps, a reduction in throughput or an increase in response time in the event of some partial failure

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102
Q

After a network technician has added a new workstation and cabling to the network, users report the network is very slow. The activity lights on all switches are blinking rapidly, showing large amounts of traffic. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for the traffic?
A. The new user is downloading large files.
B. The router failed, flooding the network with beacons.
C. The new user’s IP address is a duplicate.
D. A switching loop was created.

A

D. A switching loop was created.
A Switching loop or Bridge loop occurs in computer networks when there is more than one Layer 2 (OSI model) path between two endpoints (e.g. multiple connections between two network switches or two ports on the same switch connected to each other). The loop creates broadcast radiation as broadcasts and multicasts are
forwarded by switches out every port, the switch or switches will repeatedly rebroadcast the broadcast messages flooding the network.

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103
Q
A company has recently allowed its employees to telecommute two days a week. The employees MUST have a minimum of 1Mbps non-shared connection to the Internet. Which of the following MUST the employees have at their home in order to connect to the Internet?
A. ISDN
B. Cable modem
C. DSL
D. Dial-up networking
A

C. DSL
Digital subscriber line (DSL, originally digital subscriber loop) is a family of technologies that provide Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network.

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104
Q

Some visitors are unable to access the wireless network. The network’s wireless infrastructure is comprised of three different buildings with the configurations listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no addition a configuration on their devices. Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide wireless access to all visitors?
A. Encryption set to Open in all Buildings
B. Encryption set to Open in Building B
C. Encryption set to WEP in Building B
D. Channel set to 11 in Building B

A

B. Encryption set to Open in Building B
Because the building B is in the middle, the wireless access router will have reachability to the building A and C. Now, the only thing that we need to do is to open the Wireless access on B for the guest users for the WAP in B so that the users coming to building A and C can get access to internet using the open connection.

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105
Q

Some employees are unable to maintain a wireless network connection. The network’s wireless infrastructure is comprised of three different buildings with the configurations listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no additional configuration on their devices. Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide the BEST wireless experience for all employees as they move between buildings?
A. Change Channel in Building B to 7
B. Change Encryption in Building B to match A and C
C. Change Channel in Building C to 1
D. Change SSID in Building C to match Building A

A

D. Change SSID in Building C to match Building A
The configuration difference between users in building A and C is that they have same encryption however the SSID is different so the user has to manually authenticate and connect to the network whenever he will move between buildings. If the SSID’s are same then he will not have to authenticate himself again and he will get automatic connectivity

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106
Q

A technician has been given the task to install a wireless network in a user’s home. Which of the following should the technician consider when implementing the network? (Select TWO).
A. That there is strong encryption enabled and configured on the access point.
B. The user’s home network has a correctly completed WHOIS entry.
C. The access point is broadcasting the SSID based upon manufacturer’s standards.
D. There are no conflicts of channels in use by neighboring wireless networks.
E. There are redundant internal DNS names set in the access point’s settings.
F. That the access point’s MAC address is properly set in its configuration settings

A

A. That there is strong encryption enabled and configured on the access point. & D. There are no conflicts of channels in use by neighboring wireless networks. Strong encryption is required to keep the user’s internet safe and secure so as to avoid misuse of the internet connection and to ensure that channel conflicts are not there so that the signals do not compete with each other and user start to face intermittent connection.

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107
Q
A technician working for a company with a wireless network named WirelessA notices a second wireless network named WirelessB. WirelessB is MOST likely a:
A. man-in-the-middle attack
B. rogue access point
C. evil twin
D. packet sniffer
A

B. rogue access point
A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has either been installed on a secure company network without explicit authorization from a local network administrator, or has been created to allow a hacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack.

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108
Q
A user cannot access the LAN after working successfully most of the day. Which of the following should thenetwork administrator check FIRST?
A. VLAN settings
B. History logs
C. Patch cable
D. Port security
A

C. Patch cable
A patch cable or patch cord or patch lead is an electrical or optical cable used to connect (“patch- in”) one electronic or optical device to another for signal routing.

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109
Q
Which of the following can be used to limit wireless network access to a single computer?
A. Configure PPP
B. Packet sniffing
C. MAC address filtering
D. Omni-directional antennas
A

C. MAC address filtering
Wireless access can be filtered by using theMedia Access Control (MAC)addresses of the wireless devices transmitting within your wireless network. You can either permit or prevent specific wireless computers and devices access to your wireless network.

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110
Q
A small business owner is setting up a SOHO office. The business owner needs one device that will allow for Internet access, trunk VLANs, translate multiple private IP addresses into public IP addresses, and filter packets. Which of the following network devices will allow for all functions?
A. A VPN concentrator
B. A switch
C. A router
D. A firewall
A

C. A router

A router is a device which is capable of performing entire task required by the business owner.

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111
Q

A Linux-based workstation is unable to connect to an IP printer on the same network segment. The printer IP address settings have been verified. How would a network technician verify IP address settings on the Linux based workstation?
A. Run the dig command on the workstation.
B. Run the nslookup command on the workstation.
C. Run the ipconfig command on the workstation.
D. Run the ifconfig command on the workstation.

A

D. Run the ifconfig command on the workstation.
The “ifconfig” command allows the linux/unix operating system to setup network interfaces and allow the user to view information about the configured network interfaces.

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112
Q

Users have been stating that they need to logon to too many applications and web apps with different credentials that use different rule sets. Which of the following would BEST address these concerns?
A. Alter the domain account login policies to reflect the most common application rule sets.
B. Ensure that the user accounts are properly configured in domain services.
C. Implement a software solution that facilitates single sign-on authentication.
D. Increase the time between mandatory password changes by a factor of three.

A

C. Implement a software solution that facilitates single sign-on authentication. Asingle signonpermits a user to enter one name and password in order to access multiple applications

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113
Q
A network consultant arrives at a customer's site to troubleshoot their email server. The server is running a Linux operating system, but the consultant is only familiar with Windows operating systems. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the consultant take?
A. Document findings
B. Identify the problem
C. Escalate the problem
D. Establish a plan of action
A

C. Escalate the problem
It is better to escalate the problem if you are not aware of the situation as it saves downtime and keeps customer happy.

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114
Q
A network administrator is adding 24 - 802.3af class 2 VoIP phones and needs to purchase a single PoE switch to power the phones. Which of the following is the MINIMUM PoE dedicated wattage the switch supports to power all of the phones at full power?
A. 96W
B. 168W
C. 240W
D. 369.6W
A

B. 168W

The switch supports 168W to power all the phones at full power.

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115
Q

Ann, a client, shares half of a rectangular floor plan with another company and wishes to set up a secure wireless network. The installed antenna limits the signal to her half of the floor. Through analysis, the frequency and channels of surrounding wireless networks have been determined and configuration changes made accordingly. Which of the following would be the NEXT step in setting up this secure wireless network?
A. Decrease signal strength on the antenna
B. Change the wireless channel on the WAP
C. Change the device placement to further obfuscate the signal
D. Set up encryption on the WAP and clients

A

D. Set up encryption on the WAP and clients

The encryption will help the clients and server to uniquely identify themselves in an interfering environment.

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116
Q
A technician is reviewing the following company diagram to determine proper connectivity settings: Which of the following device configurations is out of specifications?
A. LaptopC
B. ServerE
C. LaptopB
D. ServerA
E. PC1
A

E. PC1

no legitimate Category 6e standard exists

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117
Q

A technician is reviewing the following aggregated information on a server to determine the cause of a user’s
connection problem:
Which of the following is the technician reviewing?
A. Syslog server logs
B. Application logs
C. Network sniffer logs
D. SNMPv2 queries

A

A. Syslog server logs
Syslog server logs are the logs that are saved on a system whenever an instance happens of the wireless device. Reviewing the logs can help him understand the behavior of the WAP as well as the client.

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118
Q
When a packet that is entering a switch port is encapsulated, which of the following is the switch performing?
A. 802.1q
B. Collision avoidance
C. Port mirroring
D. STP
A

A. 802.1q

Encapsulation is the term associated with 802.1q which is enabled by default on many devices.

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119
Q

A technician has been dispatched to investigate an issue where several users in the same aisle have stated they have had no network connection for over an hour. When the technician gets there, the network seems to be up and running. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Ask the users for more information, such as which applications were not functioning.
B. Power-cycle the switch that the users share to clear out cached DNS records.
C. Escalate the issue to the network administrator to have their domain credentials reset.
D. Close and document the service call, as there was no actual issue affecting the users.

A

A. Ask the users for more information, such as which applications were not functioning. Because the system was up and running when the technician reached there, he can ask for applications that
were not working or can ask for more information so that he can isolate the problem. Power cycling will not help because the system is already up and recycling can wipe out logs. Escalation will also not help because the system is now up and running. Closing the call will be unfair because the same instance can occur again.

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120
Q

A technician has been dispatched to investigate connectivity problems of a recently renovated office. The technician has found that the cubicles were wired so that the network cables were run inside the conduit with the electrical cabling. Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the connectivity issue?
A. Power-cycle the computers and switches to re-establish the network connection.
B. Re-run the network cabling through the ceiling alongside the lights to prevent interference.
C. Test the wiring in the network jacks for faults using a cable verifier.
D. Re-run the network cabling so that they are 12 inches or more away from the electrical lines.

A

D. Re-run the network cabling so that they are 12 inches or more away from the electrical lines. The electric cables create electric field around them and can interrupt in internet connectivity as well. It is quite
possible that this is the cause which is creating the connectivity issue.

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121
Q
A company is looking for the simplest solution to help prioritize VoIP traffic on its congested network. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this?
A. MPLS
B. Caching engines
C. QoS
D. Load balancing
A

C. QoS
Explanation: QoS is the service where you can prioritize traffic running over one protocol as compared to the other. It is very similar to the term where you are opening a VIP queue for allowing that traffic to pass.

122
Q
A technician has received a trouble ticket from a user who has intermittent wireless access. Moving the computer farther from the WAP results in a more stable connection. Which of the following is MOST likely the
cause of this instability?
A. Wrong encryption type
B. SSID mismatch
C. Signal bounce
D. Incorrect channel
A

C. Signal bounce
Bouncing is the tendency of any two metal contacts in an electronic device to generate multiple signals as the contacts close or open.

123
Q
Compare the settings below to determine which of the following issues is preventing the user from connecting to a wireless network. Which of the following settings is incorrect on the client?
A. The mode is incorrect
B. SSID Mismatch
C. Incorrect WEP Key
D. Channel is set incorrectly
A

B. SSID Mismatch

124
Q
Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly associated with VoIP?
A. LDAP
B. HTTPS
C. SIP
D. SCP
A

C. SIP
The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a signaling communications protocol, widely used for controlling multimedia communication sessions such as voice and video calls over Internet Protocol (IP) networks.

125
Q
Which of the following commands will provide an administrator with the number of hops a packet takes from host to host?
A. nslookup
B. ping
C. traceroute
D. route
A

C. traceroute
In computing, traceroute is a computer network diagnostic tool for displaying the route (path) and measuring transit delays of packets across an Internet Protocol (IP) network. The history of the route is recorded as the round-trip times of the packets received from each successive host (remote node) in the route (path); the sum of the mean times in each hop indicates the total time spent to establish the connection.

126
Q
Which of the following is needed when using WPA2-Enterprise wireless encryption?
A. TFTP
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. IPSec
A

B. RADIUS
The WPA2 standard supports two different authentication mechanisms: one using standard RADIUS servers and the other with a shared key, similar to how WEP works.

127
Q
A technician has a network with a mix of newer and older equipment. Which of the following settings would dynamically configure whether to use full or half duplex?
A. Transmission speed
B. Frequency
C. Auto-negotiate
D. Distance
A

C. Auto-negotiate
Autonegotiation is an Ethernet procedure by which two connected devices choose common transmission parameters, such as speed, duplex mode, and flow control. In this process, the connected devices first share their capabilities regarding these parameters and then choose the highest performance transmission mode they both support.

128
Q

Which of the following can MOST likely cause intermittent connection problems with a CAT5 network cable?
A. Cable has been looped too many times.
B. Cable has a twist tie attached too close to the connector.
C. Cable is too warm.
D. Cable is run too close to a fluorescent light.

A

D. Cable is run too close to a fluorescent light.
Cat 5is a twisted pair cablefor carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is
suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).

129
Q
Which of the following is an example of a CSMA/CD medium?
A. WEP
B. SONET
C. Token ring
D. Ethernet
A

D. Ethernet
CSMA/CDis a Media Access Control method in which a carrier sensing scheme is used and also a transmitting data station that detects another signal while transmitting a frame, stops transmitting that frame, transmits a jam signal, and then waits for a random time interval before trying to resend the frame

130
Q
Which of the following copper cable types should be chosen to run gigabit speeds through a dropped ceiling that returns airflow?
A. Non-Plenum CAT5
B. Non-Plenum CAT5e
C. Plenum CAT5
D. Plenum CAT5e
A

D. Plenum CAT5e
Cat 5eis a twisted pair cablefor carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is
suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).

131
Q
A technician tests a cable going to the patch panel and notices the following output from the cable tester:
1------------------1
2------------------2
3------------------3
4------------------4
5------------------5
6------------------6
7------------------7
8------------------8
On a T568A standard CAT5e cable, which of the following wire strands is the cause of this connectivity issue?
A. White Orange
B. Solid Brown
C. Solid Orange
D. White Green
A

D. White Green

132
Q
Which of the following components of wiring distribution is referred to as the core communications closet for an organization?
A. MDF
B. Smart jack
C. IDF
D. Demarc extension
A

A. MDF

MDF stands for Main Distribution Frame and is the main computer room for servers, hubs, routers, DSL’s, etc. to reside.

133
Q
Users notice a problem with their network connectivity when additional lights are turned on. Which of the following would be the cause for this problem?
A. DDOS
B. Cross talk
C. Open short
D. EMI
A

D. EMI
External Machine Interface (EMI), an extension to Universal Computer Protocol (UCP), is a protocol primarily used to connect to short message service centres (SMSCs) for mobile telephones.

134
Q

A user does not have network connectivity. While testing the cable the technician receives the below reading on the cable tester:
1———–1
2———–2
3———–3
4———–4
5———–5
6———–6
7———–7
8———–8
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Cable is a crossover, continue troubleshooting
B. Pin 3 is not used for data, continue troubleshooting
C. Pin 3 is not used for data, replace the NIC
D. Redo the cable’s connectors

A

D. Redo the cable’s connectors

Incomplete/Incorrect Question.

135
Q
Which of the following is the correct tool?
A. Cable certifier
B. Cable tester
C. OTDR
D. Protocol analyzer
A

A. Cable certifier
A cable certifier is used to verify that a cable meets its specifications such as the bandwidth and frequency. For example, it can verify a CAT 5e cable meets specifications and supports speeds of 1000Mbps.

136
Q
In contrast to earlier Wi-Fi speeds, which of the following BEST describes the antenna and channelization properties used in 802.11n?
A. MIMO, DSSS
B. MIMO, OFDM
C. CSMA, DSSS
D. CSMA, CDMA
A

B. MIMO, OFDM
B. MIMO, OFDM
802.11n builds upon previous 802.11 standards by adding multiple-input multiple- output (MIMO). The additional transmitter and receiver antennas allow for increased data throughput through spatial
multiplexing and increased range by exploiting the spatial diversity through coding schemes like Alamouti coding. The speed is 150 Mbit/s (even 250 Mbit/s in PHY level)

137
Q
A CAT5e network cable run needs to be installed over fluorescent lighting arrays in an office building. Which of the following cable types would be BEST suited for such an installation?
A. UTP
B. Plenum
C. Coaxial
D. STP
A

D. STP
Shielded twisted pair is a special kind of copper telephone wiring used in some business installations. An outer covering or shield is added to the ordinary twisted pair telephone wires; the shield functions as a ground. Twisted pair is the ordinary copper wire that connects home and many business computers to the telephone. To reduce crosstalk or electromagnetic induction between pairs of wires, two insulated copper wire are twisted around each other. Each signal on twisted pair requires both wires

138
Q
Which of the following wireless standards provide speeds up to 150Mbps?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
A

D. 802.11n
802.11n builds upon previous 802.11 standards by adding multiple-input multiple- output (MIMO). The additional transmitter and receiver antennas allow for increased data throughput through spatial and increased range by exploiting the spatial diversity through coding schemes like Alamouti coding. The speed is 150 Mbit/s (even 250 Mbit/s in PHY level)

139
Q
Which of the following defines a rack located in an office building between the main rack and other office equipment?
A. DSU
B. MDF
C. CSU
D. IDF
A

D. IDF
An intermediate distribution frame (IDF) is a distribution frame in a central office or customer premises, which cross-connects the user cable media to individual user line circuits and may serve as a
distribution point for multipair cables from the main distribution frame(MDF) or combined distribution frame (CDF) to individual cables connected to equipment in areas remote from these frames.
IDFs are used for telephone exchange central office, customer-premise equipment, wide area network (WAN), local area network (LAN) environments, among others.

140
Q
The ISP needs to terminate the WAN connection. The connection should be located in the network server room where the company LAN equipment resides. Which of the following identifies the location?
A. Smart jack
B. MDF
C. VPN
D. 66 block
A

B. MDF
Short for main distribution frame, a cable rack that interconnects and manages the telecommunications wiring between itself and any number of IDFs. Unlike an IDF, which connects internal lines to the MDF, the MDF connects private or public lines coming into a building with the internal network.

141
Q
A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) decided that only a limited number of authorized company workstations will be able to connect to the Internet. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Use content filtering
B. Install and configure IDS
C. Enable MAC address filtering
D. Enable RAS on the network firewall
A

C. Enable MAC address filtering
Most Wi-Fi access points and routers ship with a feature calledhardwareorMAC address filtering . This feature is normally turned “off” by the manufacturer, because it requires a bit ofeffort to set up properly. However, to improve the security of your Wi-Fi LAN (WLAN), strongly consider enabling and using MAC address filtering.

142
Q
Multiple computers are connected to a hub near a wall plate. In order to get to the computers, students step on and around the cable that connects the teacher's station, a few feet away, to the same hub. The teacher is experiencing no network connectivity. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. Cross-talk
B. Split cables
C. Distance
D. EMI
A

B. Split cables

Asplit cableis invisible to wire maps and continuity testers, making it very difficult to troubleshoot.

143
Q
Which of the following network topologies describes a network where each node is connected to every other
node?
A. Bus
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Ring
A

C. Mesh

In a true mesh topology every node has a connection to every other node in the network.

144
Q
Which of the following supports faster wireless broadband speeds?
A. Satellite
B. Wi-MAX
C. ISDN
D. OC-3
A

B. Wi-MAX
Wi-MAX (Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access) is a wireless communications standard designed to provide 30 to 40 megabit-per-second data rates with the 2011 update providing up to 1 G bit/s for fixed stations

145
Q
Ann, a home user, wishes to confine a wireless network to devices ONLY inside of her houseWhich of the
following will accomplish this?
A. Decreasing radio strength
B. MAC filtering
C. WEP encryption
D. SSID broadcast disable
A

A. Decreasing radio strength
Decreasing Radio Strength will reduce signal strength outside the house and will accomplish what
she is intending to do.

146
Q
Which of the following WAN technologies has the HIGHEST latency?
A. ADSL
B. LTE
C. Satellite
D. WiMAX
A

C. Satellite
Satellite WAN latency is the delay caused by the physical distance a signal must travel from earth, to the satellite, and back to earth to complete a round-trip transmission. Because of the physics involved in the roundtrip-time (RTT), end-to-end latency can take 600 milliseconds or more due to geosynchronous satellites orbiting miles above the earth.

147
Q
Which of the following is a link state routing protocol?
A. RIPv2
B. BGP
C. IS-IS
D. RIP
A

C. IS-IS
A link-state routing protocol is one of the two main classes of routing protocols used in packet
switching networks for computer communications (the other is the distance-vector routing protocol).
Examples of link-state routing protocols include open shortest path first (OSPF) and intermediate
system to intermediate system (IS-IS).
The link-state protocol is performed by every switching node in the network (i.e., nodes
that are prepared to forward packets; in the Internet, these are called routers). The basic
concept of link-state routing is that every node constructs a map of the connectivity to the
network, in the form of a graph, showing which nodes are connected to which other nodes.
Each node then independently calculates the next best logical path from it to every possible
destination in the network. The collection of best paths will then form the node’s routing table.
This contrasts with distance-vector routing protocols, which work by having each node share its
routing table with its neighbors. In a link-state protocol the only information passed
between nodes is connectivity related.

148
Q
A technician needs to make a web server with a private IP address reachable from the Internet. Which of the following should the technician implement on the company firewall?
A. DOCSIS
B. NAT
C. CIDR
D. VPN
A

B. NAT

149
Q
Which of the following defines an IP address that is NOT routed on the Internet?
A. Multicast
B. Public
C. Private
D. Classful
A

C. Private

150
Q
You are configuring network addresses for your local intranet. The addresses are based on the following
network address:
190.1.164.0/22
You need to configure the following subnetworks:
Network A - 300 hosts
Network B - 200 hosts
Network C - 60 hosts
Network D -40 hosts
You want to keep the unused addresses in each subnetwork to a minimum.
Which configuration should you use
A. Network A - 190.1.164.0/23
Network B - 190.1.164.0/24
Network C - 190.1.166.128/26
Network D - 190.1.166.64/26
B. Network A - 190.1.164.0/23
Network B - 190.1.166.0/24
Network C - 190.1.167.128/26
Network D - 190.1.167.64/ 26
C. Network A - 190.1.164.0/22
Network B - 190.1.166.0/23
Network C - 190.1.167.128/26
Network D - 190.1.167.64/26
D. Network A - 190.1.164.0/23
Network B - 190.1.166.0/24
Network C - 190.1.167.128/26
Network D - 190.1.167.64/ 27
A

B. Network A - 190.1.164.0/23
Network B - 190.1.166.0/24
Network C - 190.1.167.128/26
Network D - 190.1.167.64/ 26

151
Q
Which of the following connectors are MOST commonly used on a POTS line?
A. RJ-45
B. MTRJ
C. DB-9
D. RJ-11
A

D. RJ-11
The six-position plug and jack commonly used for telephone line connections may be used for RJ11, RJ14 or
even RJ25, all of which are actually names of interface standards that use this physical connector. The RJ11
standard dictates a 2-wire connection, while RJ14 uses a 4-wire configuration, and RJ25 uses all six wires. The
RJ abbreviations, though, only pertain to the wiring of the jack (hence the name “registered jack”); it is
commonplace but not strictly correct to refer to an unwired plug connector by any of these names. Typically
you’ll find the RJ-11 and RJ-14 on your Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)

152
Q
Which of the following cable types is required to run through an air duct?
A. UTP
B. Fiber
C. PVC
D. Plenum
A

D. Plenum
Plenum rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics.
Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any “air handling” space. For example, most large office buildings
use the ceiling to return air to the AC unit. This qualifies this ceiling as a plenum ceiling, and all the cables that
go through that ceiling must be plenum rated.

153
Q
Which of the following technologies can cause interference for 802.11g?
A. RADAR
B. 802.11a
C. IrDA
D. Bluetooth
A

D. Bluetooth
This wireless communication standard has a maximum transmission speed of 54 Mbits per second and a
typical indoor range of 30 meters. It uses the 2.4 GHz band. This band may have to deal
with interference from cordless telephones, Bluetooth devices, and various appliances.

154
Q
Which of the following reduces the deployment cost of a wireless LAN?
A. WPA
B. 802.1x
C. MIMO
D. PoE
A

D. PoE
Power over Ethernet or PoE describes any of several standardized or ad-hoc systems which pass
electrical power along with data on Ethernet cabling. This allows a single cable to provide both data connection
and electrical power to devices such as wireless access points or IP cameras.

155
Q
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM rated speed for CAT5 cabling?
A. 10Mbps
B. 100Mbps
C. 1000Mbps
D. 10Gbps
A

B. 100Mbps
Category 5 cable (Cat 5) is a twisted pair cable for carrying signals. This type of cable is used in
structured cabling for computer networks such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to
100 MHz and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet)

156
Q
Which of the following connector types would be found with a VoIP system utilizing CAT6 cabling?
A. SC
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-11
D. BNC
A

B. RJ-45
The heavier wire in some Cat 6 cables makes them too thick to attach to standard 8P8C(RJ-
45)connectors without a special modular piece

157
Q

A technician notices a newly installed CAT5 cable is longer than the standard maximum length. Which of the
following problems would this MOST likely cause?
A. Split cable
B. EMI
C. DB loss
D. Crosstalk

A

C. DB loss
The maximum length for a cable segment is 100 m per TIA/EIA 568-5-A. If longer runs are
required, the use of active hardware such as a repeater or switch is necessary. The specifications for 10BASET
networking specify a 100metre length between active devices. This allows for 90metres of solid-core
permanent wiring, two connectors and two stranded patch cables of 5metres, one at each end.

158
Q

Which of the following could be installed to allow a home user with one desktop computer to economically have
Internet access in every room in the house?
A. Fiber optic
B. CAT6
C. Broadband over powerline
D. CAT5

A

C. Broadband over powerline
Internet access service through existing power lines is often marketed as broadband over power
lines (BPL), also known as power-line Internet or powerband. A computer (or any other device) would need only
to plug a BPL modem into any outlet in an equipped building to have high-speed Internet access

159
Q
Which of the following 802.11 standards transmits the signals the GREATEST distance?
A. a
B. b
C. g
D. n
A

D. n

802.11nuses multiple antennas to increase data rates.

160
Q
Which of the following fiber types is MOST often used indoors?
A. Plenum
B. Modal conditioning
C. Multimode
D. Singlemode
A

C. Multimode
Multi-mode optical fiber is a type of optical fiber mostly used for communication over short
distances, such as within a building or on a campus. Typical multimode links have data rates of 10 Mbit/s to 10
Gbit/s over link lengths of up to 600 meters (2000 feet) and 10 Gbit/s for 300m (1000 feet) – more than
sufficient for the majority of premises applications.

161
Q

Users are reporting wired connectivity drops in a new office with brand new CAT6 infrastructure. Which of the
following tools should a technician use to BEST troubleshoot this issue?
A. OTDR
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Toner probe
D. Cable certifier

A

D. Cable certifier
A cable certifier is an electronic device used to verify the source of electric current, voltage and a switching
matrix used to connect the current source and the volt meter to all of the contact points in a cable.

162
Q
Which of the following wireless technologies only uses the 5GHz spectrum but reaches a theoretical throughput
of only 54Mbps?
A. A
B. B
C. G
D. N
A

A. A
802.11a standard uses the same core protocol as the original standard, operates in 5 GHz band, and uses a
52-subcarrier orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) with a maximum raw data rate of 54 Mbit/s,
which yields realistic net achievable throughput in the mid-20 Mbit/s. The data rate is reduced to 48, 36, 24, 18,
12, 9 then 6 Mbit/s if required.

163
Q
Which of the following WAN technology types has the GREATEST latency?
A. ISDN
B. Fiber
C. Satellite
D. Cable
A

C. Satellite
Becausesatellites provide a microwave radio relay technology complementary to that of
communication cables. They are also used for mobile applications such as communications to ships, vehicles,
planes and hand-held terminals, and for TV and radiobroadcasting.

164
Q

Multiple networked devices running on the same physical hardware that provide central access to applications
and files, where each device runs as a piece of software are known as:
A. Virtual desktops.
B. Switches.
C. PBXs.
D. Virtual servers.

A

D. Virtual servers.
A Virtualserver, usually a Web server, that shares computer resources with other virtual servers.
In this context, the virtual part simply means that it is not adedicated server – that is, the entire computer is not
dedicated to running the server software

165
Q
Which of the following is the Telco end of a T1 demarc?
A. Smart jack
B. Network tap
C. Proxy server
D. IDF
A

A. Smart jack
Smartjacks provides diagnostic capabilities. A very common capability provided by a smartjack is
loopback, such that the signal from the telephone company is transmitted back to the telephone company. This
allows the telephone company to test the line from the central office, without the need to have test equipment at
the customer site. The telephone company usually has the ability to remotely activate loopback, without even
needing personnel at the customer site. When looped back, the customer equipment is disconnected from the
line.

166
Q

The network administrator installed a new dipole antenna that extends 100 feet (30.48 meters) from the existing
AP. All components are correct, functional, and installed properly. However, during validation, there is a very
weak signal coming from the antenna.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. The installation exceeds the link limitations
B. The antenna is mounted for vertical polarization
C. The dBi output of the antenna is too low
D. The radio is too powerful for the installation
Correct Answer:

A

A. The installation exceeds the link limitations
Unlike isotropic antennas, dipole antennas are real antennas. Dipole antennas have a different
radiation pattern compared to isotropic antennas. The dipole radiation pattern is 360 degrees in the horizontal
plane and 75 degrees in the vertical plane (assuming the dipole antenna is standing vertically) and resembles a
donut in shape. Because the beam is “slightly” concentrated, dipole antennas have a gain over isotropic
antennas of 2.14 dB in the horizontal plane. Dipole antennas are said to have a gain of 2.14 dBi (in comparison
to an isotropic antenna).

167
Q
Which of the following WAN technologies uses an analog phone line to transmit data?
A. LTE
B. DSL
C. Satellite
D. Cable
A

B. DSL
DSL is a high-speed Internet service like cable Internet. DSL provides high-speed networking over
ordinary phone lines using broadband modem technology. DSL technology allows Internet and telephone
service to work over the same phone line without requiring customers to disconnect either their voice or Internet
connections.

168
Q
A newly hired technician is sent to an alternate site to complete the build out of large scale LAN. Which of the
following tools should the technician have on hand to install the bulk CAT6 cable? (Select TWO).
A. Loopback plug
B. Multimeter
C. OTDR
D. Crimper
E. Cable tester
F. TDR
A

D. Crimper & E. Cable tester
A cable tester is an electronic device used to verify the source of electric current, voltage and a
switching matrix used to connect the current source and the volt meter to all of the contact points in a cable.

169
Q
802.11n can operate at which of the following frequencies? (Select TWO).
A. 2.4Mhz
B. 2.5Mhz
C. 5Mhz
D. 2.4Ghz
E. 2.5Ghz
F. 5Ghz
A

D. 2.4Ghz & F. 5Ghz
802.11n is an amendment which improves upon the previous 802.11 standards by
adding multiple-input multiple-output antennas (MIMO). 802.11n operates on both the 2.4 GHz and the lesser
used 5 GHz bands

170
Q
Which of the following connector types are used in terminating singlemode fiber cables? (Select TWO).
A. LC
B. F-connector
C. DB-9
D. BNC
E. RJ-11
F. SC
A

A. LC & F. SC
A variety of optical fiber connectors are available, but SC and LC connectors are the most common types of
connectors on the market.[citation needed] Typical connectors are rated for 5001,000 mating cycles. The main
differences among types of connectors are dimensions and methods of mechanical coupling. Generally,
organizations will standardize on one kind of connector, depending on what equipment they commonly use.
Different connectors are required for multimode, and for single-mode fibers

171
Q
Which of the following cable types supports the FURTHEST distance when connecting various MDFs?
A. Multimode
B. UTP
C. Singlemode
D. CAT6
A

C. Singlemode
Single-mode optical fiber (SMF) is an optical fiber designed to carry only a single ray of
light (mode). These modes define the way the wave travels through space, i.e. how the wave is distributed in
space.

172
Q
Which of the following would be used to connect a singlemode fiber cable to a CAT6 connection?
A. Media converter
B. T1-crossover
C. Multimode cable
D. Coaxial
A

A. Media converter
Media converters support many different data communication protocols including Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, T1/E1/J1, DS3/E3, as well as multiple cabling types such ascoax, twisted pair, multi-mode and single-mode fiber optics.

173
Q

A small office client is requesting a network redesign. Both wired and wireless devices must connect to the
network. All of the wireless devices can communicate using the latest standards. The building has a long
courtyard in the middle with reinforced walls, which extends up through all the floors. The distance from the
switch to the furthest drop is 88 meters. Which of the following is the correct network redesign choice?
A. Fiber optic cabling is necessary due to distance limitations.
B. The wireless network should be 802.11b due to equipment limitations.
C. One WAP will be sufficient to provide wireless coverage to the floor.
D. The wired network should be run with at least CAT6 cabling.

A

D. The wired network should be run with at least CAT6 cabling.
The Category 6 cable, also known as Cat-6, is backward compatible with the Category 5/5 e and
Category 3 cable standards. It can create a high speed computer network and operate at an optimal
performance if other components in the network are compatible with gigabit speeds.
AdvantagE.Speed and Performance
The cable can handle speed performance of up to 250 MHZ. This fast performance makes it possible to use
with a fast ethernet network including Gigabit Ethernet and 10-Gigabit Ethernet. The whole generation of the
Cat 6 cable was introduced to complement the Gigabit Ethernet which includes interface cards, patch panels,
routers, switches, and other components which is developed to achieve a full gigabit network. Many IT
professionals realized that the Cat 6 cable provide very fast network performance and can deliver gigabit
speeds.
AdvantagE.Similar Structure with Cat 5 Cable
Cat 6 cable has a similar structure to the Cat 5 and Cat 5e. The Cat 6, Cat 5 and Cat 5e cables have 8 wires
that are twisted together to form four pairs. The difference is that one pair of the wires in the Cat 6 cable is kept
from contacting with others so that it can produce double the bandwidth of the Cat 5 and Cat 5e.
AdvantagE.Backward Compatible
The plug and port of the Cat 6 cable is the same as the Cat 5 and Cat 5e. Therefore, it can be plugged into any
port or connection that supports both of those cables. If you use the Cat 5 port, it will not yield the full speed that
it is capable of handling. Instead, it will operate at the speed of the computer or cable. However, the speed will
be acceptable.
AdvantagE.Upgradable
If upgrading to a more optimal network, the Cat 6 cable should be included in part of the upgrade. The Cat 6
cable will not operate at the full speed if other units in the network does not support gigabit speeds. Small
businesses that are starting should consider installing the Cat 6 cable since it is becoming the industry
standard.

174
Q

A network administrator tests a multimode fiber cable from end-to-end on a new link that is down and notices
that the dB loss is -.09. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. TXRX reversed
B. dB loss too high
C. dB loss too low
D. Bad connectors

A

A. TXRX reversed
Some Ethernet switches support medium dependent interface crossover (MDIX),which allows a switch port to
properly configure its leads as transmit (Tx) or receive (Rx) leads. You can interconnect such switches with a
straight-through cable (as opposed to a crossover cable). However, if a network device does not support MDIX,
it needs an appropriate cable (that is, a crossover cable ) to allow its Tx leads to connect to the Rx leads on a
connected device, and vice
versa.
Therefore, care must be taken when selecting cable types interconnecting network components.

175
Q

Which of the following wireless standards would BEST allow a company to utilize new and old devices on the
5GHz spectrum while allowing for the highest possible speeds?
A. A
B. B
C. G
D. N

A

D. N
802.11n is an amendment which improves upon the previous 802.11 standards by adding
multiple-input multiple-output antennas (MIMO). 802.11n operates on both the 2.4 GHz and the lesser used 5
GHz bands

176
Q
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM potential speed of CAT5e UTP cable?
A. 10BaseT
B. 100BaseT
C. 100BaseFX
D. 1000BaseT
A

D. 1000BaseT
Category 5 e cable (Cat 5) is a twisted pair cable for carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured
cabling for computer networks such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz
and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).

177
Q

A network administrator is deploying a new wireless network with over 50 thin WAPs and needs to ensure all
WAPs use consistent firmware and settings.
Which of the following methods provides this functionality?
A. Use WAP auto-configuration
B. Use a wireless controller
C. Use PXE to load and track WAPs
D. Use DHCP scope options

A

B. Use a wireless controller
A wireless controller is used in combination with the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) to manage
light-weight access points in large quantities by the network administrator ornetwork operations center. The
wireless LAN controller is part of the Data Plane within the Cisco Wireless Model. The WLAN controller
automatically handles the configuration of anywhere from 6 to 6000 wireless access-points, depending on the
model.

178
Q

While preparing to replace an old CAT3 cable with a CAT6 cable to implement VoIP, a facilities employee
mistakenly disconnects the entire patch panel, including valid wiring to live workstations. Which of the following
should an administrator use in order to connect those ports FIRST?
A. Toner
B. Multimeter
C. Reflectometer
D. Cable tester

A

A. Toner
Toner® connects to any voice, data, or video cable to detect open/short circuits, continuity, AC/DC
voltage* and dial tone* all while protecting up to 52 volt.

179
Q
Which of the following technologies is used on cellular networks?
A. Ethernet
B. CDMA
C. CSMA/CA
D. POTS
A

B. CDMA
CDMA is an example of multiple access, which is where several transmitters can send information
simultaneously over a single communication channel. This allows several users to share a band of frequencies
(see bandwidth). To permit this to be achieved without undue interference between the users CDMA employs
spread-spectrum technology and a special coding scheme

180
Q
Which of the following technologies allows multiple staff members to connect back to a centralized office?
A. Peer to Peer
B. VPN
C. PKI
D. VLAN
A

B. VPN
VPNenables a computer to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if it were
directly connected to the private network, while benefiting from the functionality, security and management policies of the private network. This is done by establishing a virtual point-to-pointconnection through the use of
dedicated connections, encryption, or a combination of the two.

181
Q
Which of the following technologies is used to connect public networks using POTS lines?
A. OC3
B. OC12
C. PSTN
D. Cable
A

C. PSTN
The PSTN consists of telephone lines, fiber optic cables, microwave transmission links, cellular
networks, communications satellites, and undersea telephone cables, all interconnected by switching centers,
thus allowing any telephone in the world to communicate with any other

182
Q

An administrator needs to install a WAP in a location where there is no electrical wiring. Which of the following
should the administrator use to complete a successful installation?
A. Coaxial
B. Wireless bridge
C. PoE
D. Multimode fiber

A

C. PoE
PoE provides both data and power connections in one cable, so equipment doesn’t require a
separate cable for each need

183
Q
Which of the following would a technician do to monitor remote traffic through an access point?
A. Enable an SNMP agent
B. Enable network mapping
C. Set monitoring SSID
D. Select WPA2
A

A. Enable an SNMP agent
Large networks with hundreds or thousands of nodes are difficult to manage without a large staff
to monitor every computer. SNMP, which is widely used in local area networks (LANs), lets you monitor network
nodes from a management host. You can monitor network devices such as servers, workstations, printers,
routers, bridges, and hubs, as well as services such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) or
Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).

184
Q
Which of the following commands can a network technician use to check whether the DNS server for a given
domain is reachable?
A. nmap
B. nbtstat
C. dig
D. arp
A

C. dig
The commanddigis a tool for querying DNS nameservers for information about host addresses, mail
exchanges, nameservers, and related information. This tool can be used from any Linux (Unix) or Macintosh
OS X operating system. The most typical use of dig is to simply query a single host.

185
Q

A client’s computer is unable to access any network resources. Which of the following utilities can a technician
use to determine the IP address of the client’s machine?
A. ipconfig
B. nslookup
C. dig
D. tracert

A

A. ipconfig
ipconfigis a commmand line utility available on all versions of Microsoft Windows starting with Windows NT.
ipconfig is designed to be run from the Windows command prompt. This utility allows you to get the IP address
information of a Windows computer. It also allows some control over active TCP/IP connections. ipconfig is an
alternative to the older ‘winipcfg’ utility.

186
Q
A user's computer is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following utilities can a technician use to
determine if DNS is working?
A. nbstat
B. arp
C. nslookup
D. ipconfig
A

C. nslookup
nslookupis a network utility program used to obtain information about Internet servers. As its name suggests,
the utility finds name server information for domains by querying DNS.

187
Q

Joe, a network technician, is troubleshooting in a wiring closet in 2011. The cabling to all the equipment does
not match the documentation from 2007. Which of the following configuration management methods has been
overlooked?
A. Change management
B. System logs
C. Asset management
D. Baselining

A

A. Change management

Change management is the request for to change any configuration which is documented

188
Q

After a technician has identified the problem and its impact, which of the following steps should be performed
NEXT?
A. Implement preventative measures.
B. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
C. Establish a theory of probable cause.
D. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary

A

C. Establish a theory of probable cause.
By sorting out the probable causes and establishing a theorey on them he will come to know wheather it is right
cause or not.

189
Q
Which of the following reasons would MOST likely be used to implement QoS and traffic shaping solutions?
A. Redundancy
B. Fault tolerance
C. Unified communications
D. Uptime requirements
A

C. Unified communications
In unified communication video,voice,data have only one end gateway so to give priority to avoid
delay in voice and video we use Qos.

190
Q

Ann, a network technician, has been troubleshooting a connectivity problem in the LAN room. Ann has
diagnosed the problem and implemented a solution. Which of the following would be the NEXT step?
A. Test the theory
B. Establish a plan of action
C. Establish a theory
D. Document findings

A

D. Document findings
As to prove the cause of problem documents need to be attached so document finding is the first step after we
implemented and diagnosed that problem.

191
Q

A network technician is troubleshooting a user’s connectivity problem, and has determined a probable cause.
The technician is at which step in the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Verify full system functionality
B. Identify the problem
C. Establish a theory
D. Implement the solution

A

C. Establish a theory

Establish a theory means to correlate the finding and cause of a problem in order to fix the problem.

192
Q
In a SOHO environment, placing a VoIP unit on the outside edge of a LAN router enhances which of the
following network optimization methods?
A. Load balancing
B. Quality of service
C. Fault tolerance
D. Traffic shaping
A

B. Quality of service
In unified communication video, voice, data have only one end gateway so to give priority to avoid delay in voice
and video we use Qos

193
Q

A technician decides to upgrade a router before leaving for vacation. While away, users begin to report slow
performance. Which of the following practices allows other technicians to quickly return the network to normal
speeds?
A. Change management
B. Baselines
C. Asset management
D. Cable management

A

A. Change management
As soon as technician found a problem he generates a change management request to make changes to fast
up the speed of router

194
Q
Which of the following will allow a technician to monitor all network traffic when connected to a mirror port?
A. VLAN tags
B. SNMP
C. Packet sniffer
D. Syslog
A

C. Packet sniffer
Mirror port just send the packet to the port which is selected to grab the packet of any destination port to
capture that packets we need packet sniffer.

195
Q
Which of the following would a network administrator recommend to satisfy fault tolerance needs within the
datacenter?
A. Multimode fiber
B. Setting up a new hot site
C. Central KVM system
D. Central UPS system
A

D. Central UPS system
For unintruppted power supply we need ups as from this no power issue will come and our systems will remain
safe

196
Q
Which of the following would MOST likely be used by a network administrator to test DNS resolution?
A. dig
B. ipconfig
C. netstat
D. nbtstat
A

A. dig
The commanddigis a tool for querying DNS nameservers for information about host addresses, mail
exchanges, nameservers, and related information. This tool can be used from any Linux (Unix) or Macintosh
OS X operating system. The most typical use of dig is to simply query a single host.

197
Q

A technician is developing a shortcut sheet for the network to be able to assist in future troubleshooting
scenarios. Which of the following should the network devices have to ease manageability efforts?
A. MAC spoofing
B. Dynamic IPs
C. MAC filtering
D. Static IPs

A

D. Static IPs

To give every user same ip every time because we have to document that ip slot we use static ip configuration

198
Q

A technician is troubleshooting a computer that will not connect to the Internet. The PC is connected to the
network. Which of the following tools should the technician use FIRST to understand the NIC configuration?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. ipconfig
C. nslookup
D. tracert

A

B. ipconfig
ipconfigis a commmand line utility available on all versions of Microsoft Windows starting with Windows NT.
ipconfig is designed to be run from the Windows command prompt. This utility
allows you to get the IP address information of a Windows computer. It also allows some control over active
TCP/IP connections. ipconfig is an alternative to the older ‘winipcfg’ utility.

199
Q
Which of the following differentiates a layer 3 switch from a layer 2 switch?
A. Routing
B. Bridging
C. Switching
D. Repeating
A

A. Routing

200
Q
A multi-layer switch operates at which of the following OSI layers?
A. Layers 1 and 5
B. Layers 2 and 3
C. Layers 4 and 5
D. Layers 5 and 6
A

B. Layers 2 and 3

201
Q

customer is implementing a VoIP infrastructure using an existing network. The customer currently has all
network devices on the same subnet and would like the phones to be powered without the use of an AC
adapter. Which of the following features should be enabled and configured to allow for reliable performance of
the VoIP system? (Select THREE).
A. WEP
B. PoE
C. VLANs
D. SSL VPN
E. IDS
F. QoS

A

B. PoE & C. VLANs & F. QoS
As customer don’t want to use Ac adapter so Power over Ethernet is best option (PoE) as in this switch provide
power to phones.Phones will transfer their power requirement via cdp to vlan assigned.And Qos provide the
voice packet priority over the data packets to avoid jitter.

202
Q

A company has just installed a new network switch for an expanding department. The company is also piloting
the use of a VoIP phone system for this department. Which of the following should be enabled on the new
network switch?
A. WINS
B. QoS
C. NAT
D. DHCP

A

B. QoS

Qos provide the voice packet priority over the data packets to avoid jitter and delay

203
Q
Which of the following network protocols is used for a secure command line interface for management of
network devices?
A. SSH
B. TELNET
C. IGMP
D. HTTP
A

A. SSH
Secure Shell is a cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login,
remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers.

204
Q

A user is having difficulty connecting a laptop to the company’s network via a wireless connection. The user can
connect to the network via a wired NIC. The technician suspects the laptop’s wireless NIC has failed. The
technician performs hardware diagnostics on the wireless NIC and discovers the hardware is working fine.
Which of the following network troubleshooting methodology steps should the technician do NEXT?
A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
B. Test the theory to determine a cause.
C. Re-establish a new theory or escalate.
D. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.

A

C. Re-establish a new theory or escalate.
As first theorey doesn’t work he will establish a new theorey or escalate it to the vendor hardware company to
work on it.

205
Q

An administrator is using a packet sniffer to try to determine what is causing the traffic on the
network. The administrator sees a lot of packets on port 25. Which of the following traffic types is MOST likely
using port 25?
A. SMTP
B. SSH
C. DNS
D. TELNET

A

A. SMTP

Port no. 25 is assigned to smtp as documented by iana

206
Q
Which of the following should be used when throughput to the destination network is a priority?
A. MTU
B. Hop count
C. Reliability of the path
D. Bandwidth
A

D. Bandwidth

207
Q

A network technician is concerned that a user is utilizing a company PC for file sharing and using a large
amount of the bandwidth. Which of the following tools can be used to identify the IP and MAC address of the
user’s PC?
A. System log
B. History log
C. Network sniffer
D. Nslookup

A

C. Network sniffer
Network sniffer is a computer program or a piece of computer hardware that can intercept and log traffic
passing over a digital network or part of a network. As data streams flow across the network,
the sniffer captures each packet and, if needed, decodes the packet’s rawdata, showing the values of various
fields in the packet, and analyzes its content according to the appropriate RFC or other specifications

208
Q

A recent flood in the office caused a lot of equipment to be damaged and the manager of the IT department
would like a way to prevent such an incident in the future. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate
such an equipment failure?
A. Reduce the power input on the replacement servers.
B. Cover the servers with plastic tarps.
C. Purchase twice as many servers to create high availability clusters.
D. Transfer the replacement servers offsite to a data center.

A

D. Transfer the replacement servers offsite to a data center.
As we replace replacement servers offsite to datacenter this will cause lower traffic on over lan and will not
cause failure of these server also.

209
Q

A user has network connectivity per the link lights on the NIC, but cannot access any network resources or the
Internet. Which of the following commands should the technician run FIRST?
A. arp
B. ipconfig
C. tracert
D. route

A

B. ipconfig
As from ipconfig command technician will come to know wheather he has assigned right ip address to NIC or
not.

210
Q

A network administrator suspects that recent traffic problems could be caused by a high CPU load on company
routers. Which of the following would BEST be used to monitor CPU cycles on the routers?
A. TACACS+
B. SNMP
C. Syslog
D. DOCSIS

A

B. SNMP
SNMP, which is widely used in local area networks (LANs), lets you monitor network nodes from a
management host. You can monitor network devices such as servers, workstations, printers, routers, bridges,
and hubs, as well as services such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) or Windows Internet Name
Service (WINS).

211
Q

In order to discover the currently unknown IP address of the next-hop router, a network administrator would
begin by using which of the following tools?
A. NMAP
B. ping
C. nslookup
D. tracert

A

D. tracert
nslookupis a network utility program used to obtain information about Internet servers. As its name suggests,
the utility finds name server information for domains by querying DNS.

212
Q

A NAS appliance has had a failed NIC replaced. Now the NAS appliance is no longer visible on the network.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The network cable connecting the NAS to the network switch is bad.
B. The network port that the appliance is connected to is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
C. Port security on the Ethernet switch has disabled the port.
D. Firewall needs to be updated for the new NAS device.

A

C. Port security on the Ethernet switch has disabled the port.
You can use port security with dynamically learned and static MAC addresses to restrict a
port’s ingress traffic by limiting the MAC addresses that are allowed to send traffic into the
port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward
ingress traffic that has source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit
the number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the
device attached to that port has the full bandwidth of the port.
A security violation occurs in either of these situations:
•When the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on a secure port and the
source MAC address of the ingress traffic is different from any of the identified secure MAC
addresses, port security applies the configured violation mode.
•If traffic with a secure MAC address that is configured or learned on one secure port
attempts to access another secure port in the same VLAN, applies the configured violation
mode.

213
Q

A large company has experienced Internet slowdowns as users have increased their use of the Internet. Which
of the following can the Network Administrator use to determine the amount of bandwidth used by type of
application?
A. Network maps
B. Traffic analysis
C. Syslog
D. ICMP

A

B. Traffic analysis

By traffic analysis administrator will come towhetheruser are using bandwidth for right purpose or not.

214
Q

A user reports intermittent network connectivity. Which of the following should a technician configure on the
managed switch to help troubleshoot this issue?
A. SMTP
B. SNTP
C. SNMP
D. SNAT

A

C. SNMP
SNMP, which is widely used in local area networks (LANs), lets you monitor network nodes from a
management host. You can monitor network devices such as servers, workstations, printers, routers, bridges,
and hubs, as well as services such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) or Windows Internet Name
Service (WINS).

215
Q
When troubleshooting a connectivity issue, which of the following commands will give the technician a list of the
host names connected to the network?
A. ping
B. nbstat
C. arp
D. msconfig
A

B. nbstat
TheNbstatcommand is a great command to use when you need to display the NetBIOS over TCP/IP protocol
statistics. TheNbstatcommand can also be used to display NetBIOS name tables for both local and remote
computers.

216
Q
A network administrator wants to see what ports are open on a server. Which of the following commands will
show open ports?
A. netstat
B. tracert
C. nbtstat
D. nslookup
A

A. netstat
Netstat command displays various network related information such as network connections, routing tables,
interface statistics, masquerade connections, multicast memberships etc.

217
Q

Users report that an internal file server is inaccessible. Of the following commands, which would be the MOST
useful in determining network-layer connectivity?
A. dig
B. nbtstat
C. netstat
D. ping

A

D. ping

PING is a tool that uses ICMP protocol which is network layer

218
Q

Users have reported choppy audio in phone conversations since the implementation of SIP phones on the
network. Which of the following should be implemented to alleviate the delays?
A. Caching
B. VoIP
C. QoS
D. SMTP

A

C. QoS

By Qos we can prioritize the voice packets over data network.So delay and latency will get reduce

219
Q

A customer with a SOHO requires fast, secure, cost-effective access to the Internet. Which of the following
would be the MOST appropriate solution? (Select TWO).
A. OC3 line with built-in firewall
B. DS3 line with a separate firewall
C. Cable modem with a separate firewall
D. Dial-up modem with separate firewall
E. DSL router with firewall capabilities

A

C. Cable modem with a separate firewall & E. DSL router with firewall capabilities

220
Q

Users report that they are unable to access any external websites. The local intranet is not affected. A network
technician has isolated the problem to a Linux-based server. Which of the following commands will enable the
technician to view DNS information on the Linux-based server?
A. nbtstat
B. ipconfig
C. dig
D. netstat

A

C. dig

By dig command technician will come to know wheather name resolution is happening in correc way or not

221
Q

Joe, a remote user, has called the helpdesk with an issue on his machine. The technician would like to remote
into the machine for troubleshooting but does not know the IP address or host name. Which of the following
commands can the technician ask Joe to execute to gain this information?
A. netstat
B. ipconfig
C. ping
D. traceroute

A

B. ipconfig
As ipconfig command will give the information which is assigned to nic for communication so that technician will
contact joe with his ip.

222
Q

A user’s workstation is experiencing multiple errors when trying to open programs. Which of the following log
files should the technician review to assist in troubleshooting these errors?
A. History Log
B. Application Log
C. System Log
D. Security Log

A

B. Application Log
As application logs provide the user wheather application is compatible with system or not.Or what is the cuase
which is making trouble.

223
Q
Which of the following allows an administrator to reference performance and configuration information if there is
a problem on the network?
A. Wire schemes
B. Change management
C. Network diagrams
D. System baselines
A

D. System baselines
System baseline is the record line or changes record that administrator keep to match the effect after new
configuration with previous configuration.

224
Q
Which of the following devices is utilized to ensure traffic does not become congested while traveling over
redundant links?
A. Access control list
B. Load balancer
C. Content filter
D. Proxy server
A

B. Load balancer
Load balancingis a computer networking method for distributing workloads across multiple computing
resources, such as computers, a computer cluster, network links, central processing units or disk drives. Load
balancing aims to optimize resource use, maximize throughput, minimize response time, and avoid overload of
any one of the resources.

225
Q
Which of the following devices can be utilized to monitor and block websites accessible by a company?
A. WINS server
B. DNS server
C. Content filter
D. Reverse proxy
A

C. Content filter
On the Internet, content filtering (also known asinformation filtering) is the use of a program to screen and
exclude from access or availability Web pages or e-mail that is deemedobjectionable. Content filtering is used
by corporations as part of Internet firewall computers and also by home computer owners, especially by parents
to screen the content their children have access to from a computer.

226
Q

A technician sees suspicious traffic coming from a computer connected to a WAP. Which of the following can
be used to stop this traffic while troubleshooting the problem?
A. tracert
B. QoS
C. ipconfig
D. MAC filtering

A

D. MAC filtering

By doing MAC filtering technician can block the data coming from a specific mac address.

227
Q

An organization finds that most of the outgoing traffic on the network is directed at several Internet sites viewed
by multiple computers simultaneously. Which of the following performance optimization methods would BEST
alleviate network traffic?
A. Load balancing internal web servers
B. Redundant network resources
C. Implement fault tolerance on the WAN
D. Implement caching engines

A

D. Implement caching engines
A cache server is a dedicated network server or service acting as a server that saves Web pages or other
Internet content locally. By placing previously requested information in temporary storage, or cache, a cache
server both speeds up access to data and reduces demand on an enterprise’s bandwidth.

228
Q

A technician is troubleshooting Internet connectivity for a PC. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason
A. The router should be listed as 224.0.0.1
B. The NIC is set to the wrong subnet mask
C. The route of last resort is missing
D. Loopback traffic is weighted higher than NIC interface traffic
for Internet connectivity issues upon inspecting the routing table?

A

C. The route of last resort is missing
The default route is missing from the table.
It looks like this:
Network Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 192.168.1.12 25

229
Q
Which of the following methods would be implemented to correct a network slowdown caused by excessive
video streaming?
A. Traffic shaping
B. Proxy server
C. VPN concentrator
D. High availability
A

A. Traffic shaping
As traffic shaping will prioritize the video packets over another packets and then video packets will travel fast on
bandwidth.

230
Q

Users inform an administrator that the network is slow. The administrator notices the bulk of the traffic is SIP
and RTP traffic. Which of the following could the administrator do to help BEST alleviate the traffic congestion
for the users?
A. Create an ACL on the switches and routers that are dropping SIP and RTP packets.
B. Create a QoS policy prioritizing users over RTP and SIP traffic.
C. Create another VLAN for SIP and RTP traffic.
D. Create a rule to throttle SIP and RTP to 10Kbps or less.

A

C. Create another VLAN for SIP and RTP traffic.

As if we will create a vlan for sip and rtp traffic only this traffic will flow from the ports then .

231
Q
Which of the following is the control when observing network bandwidth patterns over time?
A. Network log
B. Baseline
C. Flow data
D. Interface statistics
A

B. Baseline
To successfully baseline a network it is important to consider two functions; performance at protocol level and
performance at application level. There are many significant metrics to consider at the protocol level, but only a
few which are critical. The most important is bandwidth utilization compared with bandwidth availability. The
most likely cause of poor network performance is insufficient bandwidth. Trending bandwidth utilization allows
you to recognize problem areas, provide enough bandwidth to reach performance objectives, and predict future
capacity requirements. Changes in bandwidth utilization patterns also provide a clear indication of network
usage alterations, such as a change in end-user behavior, or the unauthorized addition of an application.
Topic 5, Network Security

232
Q

The security administrator needs to restrict specific devices from connecting to certain WAPs. Which of the
following security measures would BEST fulfill this need?
A. WAP placement
B. MAC address filtering
C. Content filtering
D. Encryption type and strength

A

B. MAC address filtering
Explanation: MAC Filtering (or EUI filtering, or layer 2 address filtering) is a security access control method
whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network.

233
Q
Which of the following performs authentication and provides a secure connection by using 3DES to encrypt all
information between two systems?
A. HTTPS
B. SSH
C. RSA
D. SSL
A

B. SSH
DES encryption algorithm encrypts data three times. Three 64-bit keys are used, instead of one,
for an overall key length of 192 bits (the first encryption is encrypted with second key, and the resulting cipher
text is again encrypted with a third key).

234
Q

Several users are reporting connectivity issues with their laptops. Upon further investigation, the network
technician identifies that their laptops have been attacked from a specific IP address outside of the network.
Which of the following would need to be configured to prevent any further attacks from that IP address?
A. Port security
B. IDS
C. Firewall rules
D. Switch VLAN assignments

A

C. Firewall rules
Firewall rules block or allow specific traffic passing through from one side of the router to the
other. Inbound rules (WAN to LAN) restrict access by outsiders to private resources, selectively allowing only
specific outside users to access specific resources. Outbound rules (LAN to WAN) determine what outside
resources local users can have access to.

235
Q

The company is setting up a new website that will be requiring a lot of interaction with external users. The
website needs to be accessible both externally and internally but without allowing access to internal resources.
Which of the following would MOST likely be configured on the firewall?
A. PAT
B. DHCP
C. DMZ
D. NAT

A

C. DMZ
DMZ is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s externalfacing
services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an
additional layer of security to an organization’s local area network (LAN); an external attacker only has access
to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network.

236
Q
Which of the following attacks would allow an intruder to do port mapping on a company's internal server from a
separate company server on the Internet?
A. SYN flood
B. Teardrop
C. Smurf
D. FTP bounce
A

D. FTP bounce
FTP bounce attack is an exploit of the FTP protocol whereby an attacker is able to use the PORT
command to request access to ports indirectly through the use of the victim machine as a middle man for the
request.

237
Q
Which of the following would be used to check whether a DoS attack is taking place from a specific remote
subnet?
A. Syslog files
B. Honeypot
C. Network sniffer
D. tracert
A

C. Network sniffer
A network sniffers monitors data flowing over computer network links. It can be a self-contained
software program or a hardware device with the appropriate software or firmware programming.

238
Q

An unusual amount of activity is coming into one of the switches in an IDF. A malware attack is suspected.
Which of the following tools would appropriately diagnose the problem?
A. Cable tester
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Load balancer
D. OTDR

A

B. Protocol analyzer
A packet analyzer is a computer program or a piece of computer hardware that can intercept and
log traffic passing over a digital network or part of a network.As data streams flow across the network, the
sniffer captures eachpacket and, if needed, decodes the packet’s raw data, showing the values of various fields
in the packet, and analyzes its content.

239
Q
Which of the following can a network technician change to help limit war driving?
A. Signal strength
B. SSID
C. Frequency
D. Channel
A

A. Signal strength
War driving is a term used to describe the process of a hacker who, armed with a laptop and a
wireless adapter card and traveling via a car, bus, subway train, or other form of mechanized transport, goes
around sniffing for WLANs. Over time, the hacker builds up a database comprising the network name, signal
strength, location, and ip/namespace in use..

240
Q
Which of the following ports would have to be allowed through a firewall for POP3 traffic to pass on its default
port?
A. 110
B. 123
C. 143
D. 443
A

A. 110
Post Office Protocol (POP) is an application-layer Internet standard protocol used by local e-mail clients to
retrieve e-mail from a remote server over a TCP/IP connection. POP3 server listens on well-known port 110.

241
Q
Which of the following monitoring devices are used only to recognize suspicious traffic from specific software?
A. Signature based IPS
B. Application based IDS
C. Anomaly based IDS
D. Application based IPS
A

B. Application based IDS
An APIDS monitors the dynamic behavior and state of the protocol and will typically consist of a system or
agent that would typically sit between a process, or group of servers, monitoring and analyzing the application
protocol between two connected devices.

242
Q
Which of the following security appliances are used to only identify traffic on individual systems?
A. Host based IPS
B. Application based IPS
C. Network based IDS
D. Host based IDS
A

D. Host based IDS
A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is an intrusion detection system that monitors and analyzes the
internals of a computing system as well as the network packets on its network interfaces.

243
Q
Which of the following uses SSL encryption?
A. SMTP
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. SNMP
A

C. HTTPS

C. HTTPS

244
Q

Management has decided that they want a high level of security. They do not want Internet requests coming
directly from users. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation?
A. Content filter
B. Proxy server
C. Layer 3 switch
D. Firewall

A

B. Proxy server
A proxy server is a server (a computer system or an application) that acts as an intermediary for
requests fromclients seeking resources from other servers.

245
Q
A company wants to secure its WAPs from unauthorized access. Which of the following is the MOST secure
wireless encryption method?
A. SSID disable
B. SNMPv3
C. WEP
D. WPA2
A

D. WPA2
WPA2 improves security of Wi-Fi connections by not allowing use of an algorithm called TKIP (Temporal Key
Integrity Protocol) that has known security holes (limitations) in the original WPA implementation.

246
Q

A customer wants to increase firewall security. Which of the following are common reasons for implementing
port security on the firewall? (Select TWO).
A. Preventing dictionary attacks on user passwords
B. Reducing spam from outside email sources
C. Shielding servers from attacks on internal services
D. Blocking external probes for vulnerabilities
E. Directing DNS queries to the primary server

A

C. Shielding servers from attacks on internal services &
D. Blocking external probes for vulnerabilities
Port security is required because if we keep the ports unsecure then hackers can do port scanning and can
compromise the internal secured network so we will have to shield servers to avoid attacks from outside and
we need to block incoming scanning request coming from outside.

247
Q
The security measure used to reduce vulnerabilities for MOST network devices that require regular application
and monitoring is:
A. patch management
B. security limitations
C. documentation
D. social engineering
A

A. patch management
A patch is a piece of software designed to fix security vulnerabilities and other bugs, and improving the usability
or performance.

248
Q

Which of the following appliances creates and manages a large number of secure remote-access sessions,
and also provides a high availability solution?
A. Media converter
B. Proxy server
C. VPN concentrator
D. Load balancer

A

C. VPN concentrator
The VPN Concentrator is used for Remote Access VPN’s that allows users to use an encrypted tunnel to
securely access a corporate or other network via the Internet.

249
Q

Which of the following network access security methods ensures communication occurs over a secured,
encrypted channel, even if the data uses the Internet?
A. MAC filtering
B. RAS
C. SSL VPN
D. L2TP

A

C. SSL VPN
SSL VPN consists of one or more VPN devices to which the user connects by using his Web
browser. The traffic between the Web browser and the SSL VPN device is encrypted with the SSL protocol or
its successor, the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol.

250
Q

A network administrator is responding to a statement of direction made by senior management to implement
network protection that will inspect packets as they enter the network. Which of the following technologies
would be used?
A. Packet sniffer
B. Stateless firewall
C. Packet filter
D. Stateful firewall

A

D. Stateful firewall
Stateful firewall keeps track of the state of network connections (such asTCP streams, UDP
communication) traveling across it. The firewall is programmed to distinguish legitimate packets for different
types of connections. Only packets matching a known active connection will be allowed by the firewall; others
will be rejected.

251
Q

A network administrator is looking to implement a solution allowing users to utilize a common password to
access most network resources for an organization. Which of the following would BEST provide this
functionality?
A. RADIUS
B. Single sign on
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Two-factor authentication

A

B. Single sign on
Single sign-on (SSO)is a session/user authentication process that permits a user to enter one
name and password in order to access multiple applications. The process authenticates the user for all the
applications they have been given rights to and eliminates further prompts when they switch applications during
a particular session.

252
Q
A strong network firewall would likely support which of the following security features for controlling access?
(Select TWO).
A. War driving
B. War chalking
C. MAC filtering
D. FTP bouncing
E. Port filtering
A

C. MAC filtering & E. Port filtering
MAC filtering set the security level at layer 2 and port filtering will set the security level on layer 4 so by filtering
the traffic on both layers our network will get secure.

253
Q

A small office has created an annex in an adjacent office space just 20 feet (6 meters) away. A network
administrator is assigned to provide connectivity between the existing office and the new office. Which of the
following solutions provides the MOST security from third party tampering?
A. CAT5e connection between offices via the patch panel located in building’s communication closet.
B. CAT5e cable run through ceiling in the public space between offices.
C. VPN between routers located in each office space.
D. A WEP encrypted wireless bridge with directional antennae between offices.

A

C. VPN between routers located in each office space.
A VPN connection across the Internet is similar to a wide area network (WAN) link between the sites. From a
user perspective, the extended network resources are accessed in the same way as resources available from
the private network.

254
Q

Users at a remote site are unable to establish a VPN to the main office. At which of the following layers of the
OSI model does the problem MOST likely reside?
A. Presentation
B. Application
C. Physical
D. Session

A

D. Session

VPNs operate at layer 5

255
Q

QUESTION 5
A network technician is concerned that an attacker is attempting to penetrate the network, and wants to set a
rule on the firewall to prevent the attacker from learning which IP addresses are valid on the network. Which of
the following protocols needs to be denied?
A. TCP
B. SMTP
C. ICMP
D. ARP

A

C. ICMP
TheInternet Control Message Protocol(ICMP) is one of the core protocols of the Internet Protocol Suite. It is
used by network devices, like routers, to send error messages indicating, for example, that a requested service
is not available or that a host or router could not be reached. ICMP can also be used to relay query messages.
It is assigned protocol number 1.

256
Q

A network technician has configured a new firewall with a rule to deny UDP traffic. Users have reported that
they are unable to access Internet websites. The technician verifies this using the IP address of a popular
website. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?
A. Implicit deny
B. HTTP transports over UDP
C. Website is down
D. DNS server failure

A

A. Implicit deny
In a network firewall ruleset if a certain type of traffic isn’t identified it will be denied or stopped by Implicit Deny.

257
Q

Which of the following describes a single computer that is setup specifically to lure hackers into revealing their
methods, and preventing real attacks on the production network?
A. Evil twin
B. Honeypot
C. DMZ
D. Honeynet

A

B. Honeypot
In computer terminology, a honeypot is a trap set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at
unauthorized use of information systems.

258
Q
Which of the following network appliances will only detect and not prevent malicious network activity?
A. IDS
B. Network sniffer
C. IPS
D. Firewall
A

A. IDS
Anintrusion detection system(IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities
for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station. Some systems may
attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system.

259
Q

A network administrator is implementing a wireless honeypot to detect wireless breach attempts. The honeypot
must implement weak encryption to lure malicious users into easily breaking into the network. Which of the
following should the network administrator implement on the WAP?
A. WPA
B. WPA2
C. WEP
D. VPN

A

C. WEP
Wired Equivalent Privacy(WEP) is a security algorithm for IEEE 802.11 wireless networks. Introduced as part of
the original 802.11 standard ratified in September 1999, its intention was to provide data confidentiality
comparable to that of a traditional wired network.WEP, recognizable by the key of 10 or 26 hexadecimal digits,
is widely in use and is often the first security choice presented to users by router configuration tools

260
Q

Joe, a technician, suspects a virus has infected the network and is using up bandwidth. He needs to quickly
determine which workstation is infected with the virus. Which of the following would BEST help Joe?
A. Web server
B. Syslog
C. Network sniffer
D. SNMP

A

C. Network sniffer
Network sniffer is a tool to analyze packets that are being exchanged between the hosts and using this Joe can
understand whether there was traffic encountered to server or not which was infected.

261
Q

Users are reporting that external web pages load slowly. The network administrator determines that the Internet
connection is saturated. Which of the following is BEST used to decrease the impact of web surfing?
A. Caching
B. Load balancing
C. Port filtering
D. Traffic analyzer

A

A. Caching
In computer science, acacheis a component that transparently stores data so that future requests for that data
can be served faster. The data that is stored within a cache might bevalues that have been computed earlier or
duplicates of original values that are stored elsewhere. If requested data is contained in the cache (cache hit),
this request can be served by simply reading the cache, which is comparatively faster.

262
Q
Which of the following would be the BEST solution for an IDS to monitor known attacks?
A. Host-based
B. Signature-based
C. Network-based
D. Behavior-based
A

B. Signature-based
Signature detection involves searching network traffic for a series of bytes or packet sequences
known to be malicious. A key advantage of this detection method is that signatures are easy to develop and
understand if you know what network behavior you’re trying to identify

263
Q
Which of the following is a specialized piece of hardware designed to encrypt and decrypt user traffic?
A. Proxy server
B. TDR
C. Smart jack
D. VPN concentrator
A

D. VPN concentrator
The VPN Concentrator is used for Remote Access VPN’s. In typical use, a Remote Access VPN allows users
to use an encrypted tunnel to securely access a corporate or other network via the Internet.

264
Q
Which of the following wireless security measures, although widely implemented, does not provide strong
security?
A. IPSec
B. WPA2
C. MAC address filtering
D. 802.1x
A

C. MAC address filtering

265
Q
Which of the following does Kerberos provide?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Accounting
C. Exchange
D. Authentication
A

D. Authentication
Kerberos is a trusted third-party authentication service based on the model presented by Needham and
Schroeder. It is trusted in the sense that each of its clients believes Kerberos’ judgment as to the identity of
each of its other clients to be accurate.

266
Q
Which of the following does Kerberos use to authenticate?
A. Tickets
B. Servers
C. Users
D. Clients
A

A. Tickets
Kerberos keeps a database of its clients and their private keys. The private key is a large number known only to
Kerberos and the client it belongs to. In the case that the client is a user, it is an encrypted password. Network
services requiring authentication register with Kerberos, as do clients wishing to use those services. The private
keys are negotiated at registration.

267
Q
Which of the following security methods is used to attract users attempting to gain unauthorized access to
various systems within a single network?
A. Network based IDS
B. Firewall
C. Network based IPS
D. Honeynet
A

D. Honeynet
A network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) is a system used to monitor a network as well as protect
the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of a network. Its main functions include protecting the network from
threats, such as denial of service (DoS) and unauthorized usage

268
Q
An administrator needs to open ports in the firewall to support both major FTP transfer modes. Which of the
following default ports was MOST likely opened? (Select TWO)
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
E. 25
F. 53
A

A. 20 & B. 21

269
Q

The network administrator has been tasked to create a network segment where resources can be placed for
public web access.
Which of the following should be implemented?
A. DMZ
B. Honeynet
C. PAT
D. Port security

A

A. DMZ

270
Q

A network administrator has been tasked to deploy a new WAP in the lobby where there is no power outlet.
Which of the following options would allow the network administrator to ensure the WAP is deployed correctly?
A. QoS
B. Install 802.11n WAP
C. PoE
D. Parabolic antenna

A

C. PoE
Power over EthernetorPoEdescribes any of several standardized or ad-hoc systems which pass electrical
power along with data on Ethernet cabling. This allows a single cable to provide both data connection and
electrical power to devices such as wireless access points or IP cameras.

271
Q

Honeypots and honeynets are different in which of the following ways?
A. Honeynets are managed collections of honeypots.
B. Honeypots only test software security, not hardware.
C. Honeynets require specialized hardware to implement.
D. Honeypots are usually servers and honeynets are routers and switches

A

A. Honeynets are managed collections of honeypots.
A honeynet is a network set up with intentional vulnerabilities; its purpose is to invite attack, so that an
attacker’s activities and methods can be studied and that information used to increase network security. A
honeynet contains one or more honey pots, which are computer systems on the Internet expressly set up to
attract and “trap” people who attempt to penetrate other people’s computer systems.

272
Q

A corporate office recently had a security audit and the IT manager has decided to implement very strict
security standards. The following requirements are now in place for each employee logging into the network:
Biometric fingerprint scan
Complex 12 character password
5 digit pin code authorization
Randomized security question prompt upon login
Which of the following security setups does this company employ?
A. Single factor authentication
B. Three factor authentication
C. Two factor authentication
D. Single sign-on

A

C. Two factor authentication
According to proponents, two-factor authentication could drastically reduce the incidence of online
identity theft, phishing expeditions, and other online fraud, because the victim’s password would no longer be
enough to give a thief access to their information.

273
Q
Which of the following will BEST block a host from accessing the LAN on a network using static IP addresses?
A. IP filtering
B. Port filtering
C. MAC address filtering
D. DHCP lease
A

A. IP filtering
IPFilter(commonly referred to asipf) is an open source software package that provides firewall
services and network address translation (NAT) for many UNIX-like operating systems. The author and
software maintainer is Darren Reed. IPFilter supports both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols, and is a stateful firewall.

274
Q
Which of the following remote access types requires a certificate for connectivity?
A. SSH
B. PPP
C. HTTPS
D. WEP
A

A. SSH
Secure Shell(SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line
login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers that
connects, via a secure channel over an insecure network, a server and a client (running SSH server and SSH
client programs, respectively)

275
Q

A technician is troubleshooting authentication issues on a server. It turns out the clock on the server was 72
minutes behind. Setting the clock to the correct time fixed the issue. Given the scenario, which of the following
authentication methods was being used?
A. Kerberos
B. CHAP
C. TACACS+
D. RADIUS

A

A. Kerberos
Kerberos is a distributed authentication service that allows a process (a client) running on behalf of a principal
(a user) to prove its identity to a verifier (an application server, or just server) without sending data across the
network that might allow an attacker or the verifier to subsequently impersonate the principal. Kerberos
optionally provides integrity and confidentiality for data sent between the client and server.

276
Q
Which of the following wireless standards uses a block encryption cipher rather than a stream cipher?
A. WPA2-CCMP
B. WPA
C. WEP
D. WPA2-TKIP
A

A. WPA2-CCMP
Counter Cipher Mode with Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol or CCMP (CCM mode
Protocol) is an encryption protocol designed for Wireless LAN products that implement the standards of the
IEEE 802.11i amendment to the original IEEE 802.11 standard. CCMP is an enhanced data cryptographic
encapsulation mechanism designed for data confidentiality and based upon the Counter Mode with CBC-MAC
(CCM) of the AES standard. It was created to address the vulnerabilities presented by WEP, a dated, insecure
protocol.

277
Q
A network administrator is performing a penetration test on the WPA2 wireless network. Which of the following
can be used to find the key?
A. DoS
B. Buffer overflow
C. Dictionary file
D. SQL injection
A

C. Dictionary file
A file used by the debugger. It contains information about a program’s structure and contents. The Compiler
creates the dictionary file in the first phase of compilation, when checking the syntax. A dictionary file has the
filename extension.idy, and is often referred to an.idyfile.

278
Q
Which of the following can be used to compromise a WPA encrypted wireless network when the rainbow table
does not contain the key?
A. Evil twin
B. War chalking
C. Buffer overflow
D. Virus
A

A. Evil twin
An evil twin is the wireless version of the phishing scam. An attacker fools wireless users into connecting a
laptop or mobile phone to a tainted hotspot by posing as a legitimate provider.This type of evil twin attack may
be used to steal the passwords of unsuspecting users by either snooping the communication link or by
phishing, which involves setting up a fraudulent web site and luring people there.

279
Q

A system administrator is implementing an IDS on the database server to see who is trying to access the
server. The administrator relies on the software provider for what to detect. Which of the following would MOST
likely be installed?
A. Behavior based IDS
B. Network based IDS
C. Signature based IDS
D. Honeypot

A

C. Signature based IDS
Signature detection involves searching network traffic for a series of bytes or packet sequences known to be
malicious. A key advantage of this detection method is that signatures are easy to develop and understand if
you know what network behavior you’re trying to identify.

280
Q

A vendor releases an emergency patch that fixes an exploit on their network devices. The network
administrator needs to quickly identify the scope of the impact to the network. Which of the following should
have been implemented?
A. Change management
B. Asset management
C. Network sniffer
D. System logs

A

B. Asset management
Asset management is defined as the business practice of managing and optimizing the purchase, deployment,
maintenance, utilization, and disposal of hardware and software applications within an organization.

281
Q

Which of the following can be described as a DoS attack?
A. Disabling a specific system and making it unavailable to users
B. Implementing a keylogger
C. Intercepting a packet and decrypting the contents
D. Communicating with employees to get company information

A

A. Disabling a specific system and making it unavailable to users
A denial of service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to make a server or a network resource unavailable to
users, usually by temporarily interrupting or suspending the services of a host connected to the Internet.

282
Q
A user is connecting to the Internet at an airport through an ad-hoc connection. Which of the following is the
MOST likely security threat?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Social engineering
C. Phishing
D. DoS
A

A. Man-in-the-middle
A man in the middle attack is one in which the attacker intercepts messages in a public key exchange and then
retransmits them, substituting his own public key for the requested one, so that the two original parties still
appear to be communicating with each other.

283
Q

An application server is placed on the network and the intended application is not working correctly. Which of
the following could be used to make sure sessions are being opened properly?
A. Antivirus scanner
B. IDS
C. Packet sniffer
D. Toner probe

A

C. Packet sniffer
Packet Snifferis a tool that can help you locate network problems by allowing you to capture and
view the packet level data on your network.So we can capture the session and find the cause of failure.

284
Q
Which of the following is the MOST secure way to prevent malicious changes to a firewall?
A. SNMPv2 access only
B. TELNET access only
C. SSH access only
D. Console access only
A

D. Console access only

285
Q
Which of the following allows a malicious attacker to view network traffic if the attacker is on the same network
segment as Joe, an administrator?
A. DoS attack
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Smurf attack
D. Xmas attack
A

B. Man-in-the-middle attack
An attack where a user gets between the sender and receiver of information and sniffs any information being
sent. In some cases, users may be sending unencrypted data, which means theman-in-the-middle(MITM) can
obtain any unencrypted information. In other cases, a user may be able to obtain information from the attack,
but have to unencrypt the information before it can be read.

286
Q

An administrator determines there are an excessive number of packets being sent to a web server repeatedly
by a small number of external IP addresses. This is an example of which of the following attacks?
A. DDoS
B. Viruses
C. Worms
D. Man-in-the-middle

A

A. DDoS
DDoS attack,a type of attack on a network that is designed to bring the network to its knees by flooding it with
useless traffic. Many DoS attacks, such as thePing of DeathandTeardropattacks, exploit limitations in the TCP/
IP protocols

287
Q
Which of the following features will a firewall MOST likely use to detect and prevent malicious
traffic on the network?
A. Zone filtering
B. Signature identification
C. Port identification
D. Port scanner
A

B. Signature identification
Signature-based detection really is more along the lines of intrusion detection than firewalls. However, many
personal firewalls and some corporate firewalls contain this functionality. Essentially, the system can be
configured to look for specific patterns, known to be malicious, and block the traffic

288
Q
Stateful packet inspection is a security technology used by which of the following devices?
A. Unmanaged switch
B. Hardware firewall
C. Bridge
D. IDS
A

B. Hardware firewall
With Stateful Packet Inspection (SPI), every time a packet is sent out of the computer, the firewall keeps track
of it. When a packet comes back to the firewall, the firewall can tell whether or not the in-bound packet is a
reply to the packet that was sent out.This way, the firewall can handle most network traffic safely without a
complex configuration of firewall rules.

289
Q
An administrator would like to inspect all traffic flowing over the SMTP protocol on a given network.
Which of the following tools would accomplish this? (Select TWO).
A. Packet sniffer
B. Honeypot
C. Port mirroring
D. IPS
E. Port scanner
F. IDS
A

A. Packet sniffer & C. Port mirroring

290
Q
PKI is a method of user authentication which uses which of the following?
A. Various router commands
B. Access control lists
C. Certificate services
D. A RADIUS server
A

C. Certificate services
A PKI (public key infrastructure) enables users of a basically unsecure public network such as the Internet to
securely and privately exchange data and money through the use of a public and a private cryptographic key
pair that is obtained and shared through a trusted authority. The public key infrastructure provides for a digital
certificate that can identify an individual or an organization and directory services that can store and, when
necessary, revoke the certificates. Although the components of a PKI are generally

291
Q
Which of the following is the only standard that can operate at either frequency?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
A

D. 802.11n

292
Q
Which of the following wireless standards provide speed of 11Mbps?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
A
B. 802.11b
Explanation: 802.11a - 54Mbps - OFDM
802.11b - 11Mbps - DSSS
802.11g - 54Mbps - OFDM/DSSS
802.11n - 150/300Mbps (MIMO) OFDM
293
Q
A computer's DNS has bad cach records.which tools can be used to clear the DNS record.
A. netstat
B. ipconfig
C. nslookup
D. tracert
A

B. ipconfig

294
Q
A router operates at which of the following layers of the OSI model?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
A

B. Layer 3

295
Q
Which of the following a network technician would use to reverse engineer malware and virus?
A. IDS
B. VLAN
C. Virtual Machine
D. Switch
A

C. Virtual Machine

296
Q

A network administrator has been assigned the 192.168.2.64/26 network and assigns the following computer’s
IP addresses:
192.168.2.70
192.168.2.100
192.168.2.125
192.168.2.130
When the administrator tries to ping the other computers from 192.168.2.130, an ECHO REPLY is not
received. Which of the following must the network administrator do?
A. Change the IP of 192.168.2.130 to 192.168.1.128.
B. Change the IP of 192.168.2.130 to 192.168.2.126.
C. Change the default gateway of 192.168.2.130 accordingly.
D. Reconfigure the switch for the right VLAN.

A

B. Change the IP of 192.168.2.130 to 192.168.2.126.

Subnet mask is /26 = 255.255.255.192
Block Size = 256 - 192 = 64
subnets
0 - 63
64 - 127
128 - 192
192 - 255
subnet in question is the 64 - 217 subnet. usable addresses would be .65 - .127
as .130 is outside this subnet changing the IP to .126 will put it inside the same subnet
297
Q
Which of the following authentication solutions use tickets that include valid credentials to access additional
network resources?
A. Kerberos
B. RADIUS
C. Multi-factor authentication
D. TACACS+
A

A. Kerberos

298
Q
Which of the following protocols is used to provide secure authentication and encryption over non- secure
networks?
A. RADIUS
B. TLS
C. PPTP
D. HTTP
A

B. TLS
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a protocol that ensures privacy between communicating applications and
their users on the Internet. When a server and client communicate, TLS ensures that no third party may
eavesdrop or tamper with any message. TLS is the successor to the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
TLS is composed of two layers: the TLS Record Protocol and the TLS Handshake Protocol. The TLS Record
Protocol provides connection security with some encryption method such as the Data Encryption Standard
(DES). The TLS Record Protocol can also be used without encryption. The TLS Handshake Protocol allows the
server and client to authenticate each other and to negotiate an encryption algorithm and cryptographic keys
before data is exchanged.
HTTP is for web browsing
Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) is a networking protocol that provides centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users that connect and use a network
service
The Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a method for implementing virtual private networks. PPTP
uses a control channel over TCP and a GRE tunnel operating to encapsulate PPP packets. PPTP is considered
cryptographically broken and its use is no longer recommended by Microsoft.
The PPTP specification does not describe encryption or authentication features and relies on the Point-to-
Point Protocol being tunneled to implement security functionality. However, the most common PPTP
implementation shipping with the Microsoft Windows product families implements various levels of
authentication and encryption natively as standard features of the Windows PPTP stack. The intended use of
this protocol is to provide security levels and remote access levels comparable with typical VPN products

299
Q
Which of the following would be used in a firewall to block incoming TCP packets that are not from established
connections?
A. Access control lists
B. Port address translation
C. Blocking unauthorized ports
D. Stateful inspection
A

D. Stateful inspection
Also referred to as dynamic packet filtering. Stateful inspection is a firewall architecture that works at the
network layer. Unlike static packet filtering, which examines a packet based on the information in its header,
stateful inspection tracks each connection traversing all interfaces of the firewall and makes sure they are valid.
An example of a stateful firewall may examine not just the header information but also the contents of the
packet up through the application layer in order to determine more about the packet than just information about
its source and destination. A stateful inspection firewall also monitors the state of the connection and compiles
the information in a state table. Because of this, filtering decisions are based not only on administrator-defined
rules (as in static packet filtering) but also on context that has been established by prior packets that have
passed through the firewall.
As an added security measure against port scanning, stateful inspection firewalls close off ports until
connection to the specific port is requested.

300
Q

A company has asked the network administrator to restrict access to any websites with unauthorized material.
Which of the following technologies would BEST accomplish this?
A. Content filter
B. Packet filter
C. IPS
D. IDS

A

A. Content filter