MATS Part 1 Qs

Question 1

Define a Basic Service

Answer 1

ATS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of fights.
May include weather information, changes of serviceability of facilities, conditions at aerodromes, general airspace activity and other information likely to affect safety.
Traffic avoidance and terrain clearance is the pilot’s responsibility.

Question 2

Who can be given a Basic Service?

Answer 2

Any a/c (IFR/VFR/SSR/non-SSR) at any level

Question 3

Define a Traffic Service

Answer 3

Surveillance based ATS, where in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service, the controller provides specific surveillance-derived traffic information to assist the pilot in avoiding other traffic.
Traffic avoidance and terrain clearance is the pilot’s responsibility.

Question 4

Who can be given a Traffic Service?

Answer 4

Available IFR and VFR.

A/c identified and identity maintained. (Hence SSR only)

Question 5

What is relevant traffic for traffic on a TS?

Answer 5

Relevant traffic is defined as within 3nm AND 3,000ft to be passed before within 5nm.

Question 6

Can tfc on a TS change heading or level without reference to ATC?

Answer 6

HDGS – Pilot may alter course without advising controller, as long as taking same general course
LVLS – Pilot will NOT change level without advising controller.

Question 7

Define a Deconfliction Service

Answer 7

Surveillance based ATS, where in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service, the controller provides specific surveillance-derived traffic information and issues headings and/ or levels aimed at achieving planned deconfliction minima.
Traffic avoidance and terrain clearance is the pilot’s responsibility.

Question 8

Who can be given a Traffic Service?

Answer 8

Available IFR ONLY.

A/c identified and identity maintained. (Hence SSR only)

Question 9

What are the deconfliction minima for tfc on a Deconfliction Service?

Answer 9

Uncoordinated traffic 5nm OR 3,000ft (if unverified must not merge)
Coordinated traffic 5nm OR 1,000ft

Question 10

Can tfc on a DS change heading or level without reference to ATC?

Answer 10

HDGS – Pilot will NOT alter course without advising controller.
LVLS – Pilot will NOT change level without advising controller.

Question 11

When shall an ATC service be provided?

Answer 11

All Flights in Class A-D
IFR Flights in E
All SVFR Flights
Aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes

Question 12

What shall an ATC Clearance contain?

Answer 12

(1) Aircraft identification as shown in the flight plan;
(2) Clearance limit;
(3) Route, where prescribed in MATS 2;
(4) Levels of flight for the entire route or part thereof and changes of levels if required;
(5) Any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and the time of expiry of the clearance.

Question 13

Define a clearance limit

Answer 13

A clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance and shall be specified by naming:

(1) an aerodrome;
(2) a reporting point; or
(3) a controlled or advisory airspace boundary.

Question 14

State the flight priority categories and the types of flight that each contains

Answer 14

A Aircraft in emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill passenger). Aircraft which have declared a ‘Police Emergency’. Ambulance/Medical aircraft when the safety of life is involved.
B Flights operating for search and rescue or other humanitarian reasons. Post accident flight checks. Other flights, including Open Skies Flights, authorised by the CAA. Police flights under normal operational priority.
C Royal Flights
Flights carrying visiting Heads of State } which have been notified by NOTAM/Temporary Supplement

D Flights notified by the CAA carrying Heads of Government or
very senior government ministers.
E Flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights.
Other flights authorised by the CAA.
Normal Flights • Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures.
• Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit. (RTF callsign “EXAM”)
Z Training, non-standard and other flights.

Question 15

What do surveillance services comprise?

Answer 15

Surveillance services comprise:

(1) separation of arriving, departing and en route traffic;
(2) vectoring;
(3) position information to assist in the navigation of aircraft;
(4) monitoring traffic to provide information to the procedural controller;
(5) assistance to aircraft crossing controlled airspace.

Question 16

What must a controller do before providing a surveillance service?

Answer 16

Before a controller provides any of the above services he shall either:

(1) identify the aircraft, using a method appropriate to the surveillance system in use; or
(2) have had the identity of the aircraft transferred from another controller. The act of identifying an aircraft does not imply that a service is being given.

Question 17

Describe the Departing Aircraft Method of identification.

Answer 17

By observing and correlating the Position Indication of a departing aircraft to a known airborne time. Identification is to be achieved within one mile of the end of the runway unless otherwise authorised by the CAA.
Particular care should be taken to avoid confusion with aircraft overflying the aerodrome, making a missed approach, departing from an adjacent runway or holding overhead the aerodrome.

Question 18

Describe the Position Report Method of identification?

Answer 18

By correlating a particular Position Indication with a report from the pilot that the aircraft is: (1) over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; or
(2) at a particular distance not exceeding 30 miles on a particular radial from a co- located VOR/DME or TACAN (DME). The source facility must be displayed on the situation display; or (3) over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.
The identification must follow a period of track observation sufficient to enable the controller to compare the movement of the Position Indication with the pilot’s reported route. The reported position and level of the aircraft must indicate that it is within known PSR cover.
This method must be reinforced by an alternative method if there is any doubt about the identification because of:
• the close proximity of other returns; or
• inaccurate reporting from aircraft at high level or some distance from navigational facilities.

Question 19

How is an a/c identified using Mode A?

Answer 19

Observing the pilot’s compliance with the instruction to select a discrete four digit code; or
Recognising a validated four digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign. When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish and maintain identity; or
Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested.

Question 20

How is a Mode A code validated?

Answer 20

Instructing the aircraft to squawk the assigned code and observing that the correct numbers appear on the situation display; or
Instructing the aircraft to “squawk IDENT” and simultaneously checking the code numbers associated with the SSR response; or
Matching an already identified Position Indication with the assigned code for the flight.

Question 21

Decode the following codes from the SSR Code Assignment Plan:
0024 
0033 
7000 
7001 
7002 
7003 
7004 
7005 
7006 
7010

Answer 21

0024 Radar Flight Evaluation or Calibration
0033 Para Dropping
7000 Conspicuity Code
7001 Military Fixed Wing Low Level Conspicuity and Climbout
7002 Danger Areas General
7003 Red Arrows Display / Transit
7004 Aerobatics and Display
7005 High Energy Manoeuvres
7006 Autonomous Operations within the TRA and TRA(G)
7010 Aerodrome Traffic Pattern Conspicuity Code

Question 22

How may an a/c be identified using Mode S?

Answer 22

Direct recognition of the Aircraft Identification Feature on the situation display may be used to establish surveillance identification, subject to either:
• correlation of the Aircraft Identification Feature with the aircraft identification entered in the flight plan and displayed to controllers on flight progress strips; or
• correlation of the Aircraft Identification Feature with the aircraft’s callsign used in a directed RTF transmission to the controller. However, controllers shall exercise particular caution when there are aircraft with similar callsigns on the frequency, and shall utilise an alternative method if they have any doubt about the surveillance identification.

Question 23

How are controllers to verify the accuracy of Mode C data?

Answer 23

Controllers are to verify the accuracy of Mode C data, once the aircraft has been identified and the Mode A validated, by checking that the readout indicates 200 feet or less from the level reported by the pilot. If the aircraft is climbing or descending, the pilot is to be instructed to give a precise report as the aircraft passes through a level.

A Mode C readout can be assumed to have been verified if it is associated with a deemed validated Mode A code.

Question 24

When may a climbing or descending a/c be considered to have passed through a level?

Answer 24

When the Mode C readout indicates that the level has been passed by 400 feet or more and continuing in the required direction.

Question 25

State the conditions necessary for a Radar Handover?

Answer 25

The transfer of responsibility for an aircraft from one controller to another may be affected provided that:

(1) satisfactory two-way speech communication is available between them;
(2) the identity has been transferred to the accepting controller, or has been established by him; and
(3) the accepting controller is informed of any level or vectoring instructions applicable to the aircraft at the stage of transfer.

Question 26

What class of airspace is CAS-T for Royal Flights?

Answer 26

Class D

Question 27

What size will a temporary control zone for a Royal Flight be? How long will it be active for?

Answer 27

Either 5 or 10nm around aerodrome and from ground to a specified height, depending on a/c type.
Established 15 mins before ETD/A until 30 mins after ETD/A

Question 28

What size will a temporary control area for a Royal Flight be? How long will it be active for?

Answer 28

Established to meet the requirements of the Royal Flight in both area and duration

Question 29

What size will a temporary controlled airway for a Royal Flight be? How long will it be active for?

Answer 29

5nm either side of the centreline of the intended track.

Active for 15 mins before ETA at start of airway until 30 mins after ETA from end of airway

Question 30

Which a/c are mandated to carry ACAS?

Answer 30

All civil turbine-engine aircraft having a maximum take-off mass (MTOM) exceeding 5700 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19.

Question 31

What is a RA and what action does the pilot take?

Answer 31

Pilot receives advice to climb, descend or maintain their existing flight profile.
Rate of climb or descent may also be given. Pilots are expected to respond immediately but have been instructed to restrict manoeuvres to the minimum necessary to resolve the confliction, advise the ATC unit as soon as is practical thereafter and return to their original flight path as soon as it is safe to do so.

Question 32

Describe the IMC Radio Fail procedures for pilots?

Answer 32

(1) Select A7600 ;
(a) maintain speed and assigned level for 7 minutes,
(b) if on SID follow published lateral track and vertical profile. Then for that part of the 7 minutes that may remain, maintain speed and last assigned level.
(c) adjust the speed and level in accordance with the current flight plan and continue the flight to the appropriate designated landing aid. Attempt to transmit position reports and altitude/flight level on the appropriate frequency when over routine reporting points;
(2)
(a) if being vectored continue in accordance with ATC instructions last acknowledged for 3 minutes only and then proceed directly to rejoin the current flight planned route. Pilots should ensure that they remain at, or above, the minimum safe altitude;

(3)
(a) arrive over the designated landing aid at, or close to, ETA
(b) arrive over designated landing aid at the highest notified Minimum Sector Altitude;
(c) if on a STAR, after the 7 minute period detailed above has been completed, pilots should descend according to published descent profile;
(4) at designated landing aid, begin further descent at EAT.
(5) carry out the notified instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated navigational aid and, if possible, land within 30 minutes of the EAT or the calculated ETA.

Question 33

What are the requirements for entry into each class of airspace?

Answer 33

A: ATC Clearance required. (IFR only)
B: ATC Clearance required.
C: ATC Clearance required.
D: ATC Clearance required.
E: IFR Flights require ATC Clearance. VFR do not need clearance
F: No clearance required. IFR flights expected to comply with instructions
G: None

Question 34

What are the separation requirements in Class A/B Airspace?

Answer 34

Separate all aircraft from each other.

Question 35

What are the separation requirements in Class C Airspace?

Answer 35

(a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR and VFR flights;
(b) Separate VFR flights from IFR flights;
(c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on other VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice if requested.

Question 36

What are the separation requirements in Class D Airspace?

Answer 36

(a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;
(b) Pass traffic information to IFR flightsand SVFR flights on VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice when requested;
(c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on all other flights and provide traffic avoidance advice when requested.

Question 37

What are the separation requirements in Class E Airspace?

Answer 37

(a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;
(b) Pass traffic information, as far as practicable, to IFR flights on participating and non-participating VFR flights;
(c) Pass traffic information, as far as practicable, to participating VFR flights in accordance with the type of UK FIS provided.

Question 38

What are the separation requirements in Class F Airspace?

Answer 38

Separation provided, as far as practicable, between participating IFR flights.

Question 39

What are the separation requirements in Class G Airspace?

Answer 39

None

Question 40

What are the exceptions to the 250kts below FL100 speed limit?

Answer 40

(1) Flights in Class A and B airspace;
(2) IFR flights in Class C airspace;
(3) VFR flights in Class C airspace when approved in MATS Part 2 and authorised by an ATC unit;
(4) Flights in Class D airspace when approved in MATS 2 and authorised by an ATC unit
(5) Test flights in accordance with specified conditions;
(6) Aircraft taking part in flying displays when authorised by the CAA;
(7) Aircraft subject to a written permission granted by the CAA;
(8) State aircraft such as military aircraft.

Question 41

When is a pilot required to file a flight plan?

Answer 41

(1) Any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an air traffic control service;
(2) Any IFR flight within advisory airspace;
(3) Any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the Authority, to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services;
(4) Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the Authority, to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with air traffic service units in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification prescribed by the States concerned;
(5) Any flight across international boundaries;
(6) Any flight planned to operate at night, if leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome.

Question 42

When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan?

Answer 42

(1) If his flight involves flying over the sea more than 10 miles from the UK coast or flying over sparsely populated areas where SAR operations would be difficult; or
(2) If he intends to fly into an area in which SAR operations are in progress. The flight plan should include the expected times of entering and leaving the area and the details must also be passed to the parent ACC. The ACC is to notify the ARCC concerned.

Question 43

What actions should you take if a pilot declares “Minimum Fuel”?

Answer 43

Confirm the estimated delay and NOT give any priority unless they then declare an emergency

Question 44

What aircraft have Flight Priority Category A?

Answer 44

Aircraft in emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill passenger).
Aircraft which have declared a ‘Police Emergency’.
Ambulance/Medical aircraft when the safety of life is involved

Question 45

What aircraft have Flight Priority Category B?

Answer 45

Flights operating for search and rescue or other humanitarian reasons.
Post accident flight checks.
Other flights, including Open Skies Flights, authorised by the CAA.
Police flights under normal operational priority.

Question 46

What aircraft have Flight Priority Category C?

Answer 46

Royal Flights/Flights carrying Heads of State, where notified by NOTAM/Temporary Supplement

Question 47

What aircraft have Flight Priority Category D?

Answer 47

Flights notified by the CAA carrying Heads of Government or very senior government ministers

Question 48

What aircraft have Flight Priority Category E?

Answer 48

Flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights.
Other flights authorised by the CAA

Question 49

What aircraft have Normal Flight Priority?

Answer 49

Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures.
Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit. (RTF callsign “EXAM”)

Question 50

What aircraft have Flight Priority Category Z?

Answer 50

Training, non-standard and other flights.

Question 51

When is “Delay not Determined” to be used?

Answer 51

When the cause of the delay is not due to weather

Question 52

What are the criteria for formation flights in Class G?

Answer 52

1nm (0.5 for civil) laterally/longitudinally, 100ft vertically from leader
OR
Subject to ATC approval, 3nm laterally/longitudinally, up to 1000ft vertically
OR
As detailed in ACN notice

Question 53

Describe the turn method of identification

Answer 53

An aircraft may be identified by ascertaining its heading and, following a period of track observation, correlating the observed movement of a particular Position Indication with:
(1) The acknowledged execution of an instruction to alter heading by at least 30°;
(2) One or more changes of heading of at least 30°‚ as instructed by another controller;
(3) One or more changes of heading of at least 30° reported by the pilot.
A turn for identification does not constitute the provision of a surveillance service. However, controllers should take into consideration, terrain, other surveillance returns, PSR coverage and the RoA before instructing an aircraft to alter heading.
In using the turn method the controller shall:
(1) Verify that the movements of not more than one Position Indication correspond with those of the aircraft;
(2) Exercise caution particularly when employing this method in areas where changes of aircraft heading are commonly made as a navigational routine.

Question 54

Describe the departing aircraft method of identification

Answer 54

By observing and correlating the Position Indication of a departing aircraft to a known airborne time. Identification is to be achieved within one mile of the end of the runway unless otherwise authorised by the CAA.
Particular care should be taken to avoid confusion with aircraft overflying the aerodrome, making a missed approach, departing from an adjacent runway or holding overhead the aerodrome.

Question 55

Describe the position report method of identification

Answer 55

By correlating a particular Position Indication with a report from the pilot that the aircraft is:
(1) Over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; or
(2) At a particular distance not exceeding 30 miles on a particular radial from a co- located VOR/DME or TACAN (DME). The source facility must be displayed on the situation display; or
(3) Over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.
The identification must follow a period of track observation sufficient to enable the controller to compare the movement of the Position Indication with the pilot’s reported route. The reported position and level of the aircraft must indicate that it is within known PSR cover.
This method must be reinforced by an alternative method if there is any doubt about the identification because of:
(1) The close proximity of other returns; or
(2) Inaccurate reporting from aircraft at high level or some distance from navigational facilities.
A pilot is to be informed as soon as his aircraft has been identified. When operating inside controlled airspace, the pilot of an aircraft need only be so informed if the identification is achieved by the turn method.

Question 56

How can you use Mode A to identify an aircraft?

Answer 56

(1) Observing the pilot’s compliance with the instruction to select a discrete four digit code;
(2) Recognising a validated four digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign. When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish and maintain identity;
(3) Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested.
Caution must be exercised when employing this method because simultaneous requests for SPI transmissions within the same area may result in misidentification. Aircraft displaying the conspicuity code 7000 are not to be identified by this method.

Question 57

How can a Mode A code be validated?

Answer 57

(1) Instructing the aircraft to squawk the assigned code and observing that the correct numbers appear on the situation display;
(2) Instructing the aircraft to “squawk IDENT” and simultaneously checking the code numbers associated with the SSR response;
(3) Matching an already identified Position Indication with the assigned code for the flight.

Question 58

When can a Mode A code be deemed to be validated?

Answer 58

Controllers may deem Mode A codes to be validated when it can be ascertained from the Code Assignment Plan that an observed Mode A code has been assigned by a unit capable of validating the code, unless:

(1) The code is promulgated as being unvalidated; or
(2) The controller has been notified that the code is corrupt.

Question 59

What do the following Mode A codes indicate?
0024
0033
7000
7001
7002
7003
7004
7005
7006
7010

Answer 59

0024 - Radar evaluation/calibration (only used for duration, not for transit)
0033 - Parachute dropping (from 5 mins before jump until everyone estimated to be on the ground)
7000 - General conspicuity code
7001 - Mil low level conspicuity and climbout
7002 - Danger Areas General
7003 - Red Arrows Display/Transit
7004 - Aerobatics and Display (from 5 mins before display until completion)
7005 - High Energy manoeuvres (When outside CAS, below FL195 but not in low flying system)
7006 - Autonomous operations in TRA/TRA (G)
7010 - Aerodrome Traffic Pattern Conspicuity Code

Question 60

How can Mode S be used to identify an aircraft?

Answer 60

(1) Correlation of the Aircraft Identification Feature with the aircraft identification entered in the flight plan and displayed to controllers on flight progress strips; or
(2) Correlation of the Aircraft Identification Feature with the aircraft’s callsign used in a directed RTF transmission to the controller. However, controllers shall exercise particular caution when there are aircraft with similar callsigns on the frequency, and shall utilise an alternative method if they have any doubt about the surveillance identification.

Question 61

How are controllers to verify Mode C data?

Answer 61

Controllers are to verify the accuracy of Mode C data, once the aircraft has been identified and the Mode A validated, by checking that the readout indicates 200 feet or less from thelevel reported by the pilot. If the aircraft is climbing or descending, the pilot is to be instructed to give a precise report as the aircraft passes through a level.
Verification may be achieved with the assistance of an ATSU with which the aircraft is in contact.
A Mode C readout can be assumed to have been verified if it is associated with a deemed validated Mode A code.
There is no requirement to monitor level readouts when Mode C information is not being used to provide vertical separation. However, if a controller observes a discrepancy the pilot is to be asked to confirm his altimeter setting and level. If the discrepancy remains, the pilot is to be instructed to switch-off Mode C. If independent switching of Mode C is not possible the pilot is to be instructed to select A0000

Question 62

When is an a/c considered to:

1) Be at an assigned level
2) Have left a level
3) Have passed through a level
4) Reached an assigned level

Answer 62

(1) An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C readout indicates 200 feet or less from that level;
(2) An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400 feet or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction;
(3) An aircraft climbing or descending may be considered to have passed through a level when the Mode C readout indicates that the level has been passed by 400 feet or more and continuing in the required direction;
(4) An aircraft may be considered to have reached an assigned level when three successive Mode C readouts indicate 200 feet or less from that level.

Question 63

When are pilots to make position reports?

Answer 63

(1) On first transfer of communication from another ACC or sector. This report will contain aircraft identification and flight level only. Subsequent reports will contain aircraft identification, position and time;
(2) On reaching the limit of the ATC clearance;
(3) When instructed to by ATC.

Question 64

What should be given to an a/c instructed to hold en route?

Answer 64

Onward clearance time

Question 65

What weather phenomena necessitate the publication of a SIGMET? How long are they valid for?

Answer 65

Severe Icing
Severe Turbulence
Severe Mountain Wave
Heavy Hail
Heavy Sand/Dust Storm
Thunderstorm (with or without embedded CBs)
Tropical Cyclone
Volcanic Ash Cloud
Freezing Rain
Valid for 4 hours (12 for VA), can be re-issued/amended

Question 66

What is the maximum permitted length of a duty?

Answer 66

10 hours

Question 67

What is the minimum permitted break between duties?

Answer 67

12 hours (can be reduced to 11 hours once a month with controller’s permission)

Question 68

What is the minimum break after 6 consecutive daysof duty?

Answer 68

54 hours (2.5 days)

Question 69

What is the minimum break interval?

Answer 69

30 mins for every 2 hours worked

Question 70

What is the max permitted consecutive night duties permitted? What is the required rest period afterwards?

Answer 70

2 in a row.

Needs 54 hours rest afterwards

Question 71

What counts as an early start? How many are permitted per 144 hours?

Answer 71

Shift starting between 0530 and 0629. 2 permitted per 144 hours

Question 72

What is the max permitted shift length for an early start? What is the max permitted length for their first duty of the day?

Answer 72

8 hours

1.5 hours

Question 73

What counts as a morning shift? How many are permitted in a row?

Answer 73

Shift starting between 0630 and 0759

5 permitted in a row