Materials And Processes

Question 1

Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect:

Answer 1

Flaws on or near the surface.

Question 2

Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be used on which of the following?
A. Ferrous metals and nonporous plastics.
B. Porous and nonporous plastics and nonferrous metals.
C. Ferrous and nonferrous metals and nonporous plastics.

Answer 2

C. Ferrous and nonferrous metals and nonporous plastics.

Question 3

Which of these nondestructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals, plastics, and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?
A. Eddy current inspection.
B. Magnetic particle inspection.
C. Ultrasonic inspection.

Answer 3

C. Ultrasonic inspection.

Question 4

Which of the following defects are not acceptable for metal lines?
A. Scratch or nicks hon the inside of a bend less than 10% of wall thickness.
B. Dents in straight section that are 10% of the tube diameter.
C. Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube diameter.

Answer 4

C. Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube diameter.

Question 5

What nondestructive testing method requires littles or no part preparation, is used to detect surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat-treated conditions?
A. Eddy current inspection.
B. Ultrasonic inspection.
C. Magnetic particle inspection.

Answer 5

A. Eddy current inspection.

Question 6

What method of magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks and other defects?
A. Residual.
B. Inductance.
C. Continuous.

Answer 6

C. Continuous.

Question 7

Which of the following factors are considered essential knowledge for X-ray exposure?
A. Processing of the film and its characteristics.
B. Material thickness and density and the type of defects to be detected.
C. Processing of the film, characteristics of X-ray machine used, and film characteristics.

Answer 7

B. Material thickness and density and the type of defects to be detected.

Question 8

The testing, medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilizes a ferromagnetic material that has;
A. High permeability and low retentivity.
B. Low permeability and high retentivity.
C. High permeability and high retentivity

Answer 8

A. High permeability and low retentivity.

Question 9

Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is true?
A. Subsurface discontinuities are made readily apparent.
B. It is used in practically all circular and longitudinal magnetizing procedures.
C. It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications.

Answer 9

C. It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications.

Question 10

Mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What nondestructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?
A. Eddy current test.
B. Metallic ring test.
C. Ultrasonic test.

Answer 10

B. Metallic ring test.

Question 11

What two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle inspection?
A. Iron and ferric oxides.
B. Wet and dry process materials.
C. High retentivity and low permeability material.

Answer 11

B. Wet and dry process materials.

Question 12

Which of the following materials may be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method?
A. Copper alloys.
B. Aluminum alloys.
C. Iron alloys.

Answer 12

C. Iron alloys.

Question 13

One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by;
A. Subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage AC.
B. Slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.
C. Slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.

Answer 13

B. Slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.

Question 14

Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization?
A. 45°
B. Longitudinal.
C. Transverse.

Answer 14

A. 45°

Question 15

Which of the following methods may be suitable to use to detect cracks open to the surface in aluminum forging s and castings?
A. Dye penetrant inspection and eddy current inspection.
B. Dye penetrant inspection and magnetic particle inspection.
C. Magnetic particle inspection and metallic ring inspection.

Answer 15

A. Dye penetrant inspection and eddy current inspection.

Question 16

To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires:
A. That the developer be applied to a flat surface.
B. A longer-than-normal penetrating time.
C. The surface to be highly polished.

Answer 16

B. A longer-than-normal penetrating time.

Question 17

Which of the following is a main determinant of the dwell time to use when conducting a dye or fluorescent penetrant inspection?
A. The size and shape of the discontinuities being looked for.
B. The size and shape of the part being inspected.
C. The type and/or density of the part material.

Answer 17

A. The size and shape of the discontinuities being looked for.

Question 18

When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to:
A. Reveal all possible defects.
B. Evenly magnetize the entire part.
C. Ensure uniform current flow.

Answer 18

A. Reveal all possible defects.

Question 19

In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines generally causes:
A. A large disruption in the magnetic field.
B. A minimal disruption in the magnetic field.
C. No disruption in the magnetic field.

Answer 19

A. A large disruption in the magnetic field.

Question 20

If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part:
A. Was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied.
B. Has no appreciable damage.
C. Was not throughly washed before the developer was applied.

Answer 20

C. Was not throughly washed before the developer was applied.

Question 21

(1) An aircraft part may demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from alternating current that is gradually reduced in strength.
(2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct current that is alternately reversed in direction and gradually reduced in strength.
A. Both 1 and 2 are true.
B. Only 1 is true.
C. Only 2 is true.

Answer 21

A. Both 1 and 2 are true.

Question 22

The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle buildup forming:
A. A fern like pattern.
B. A single line.
C. Parallel lines.

Answer 22

C. Parallel lines.

Question 23

A part which os being prepared for dye penetrant inspection should be cleaned with:
A. A volatile petroleum-base solvent.
B. The penetrant developer.
C. Water-base solvents only.

Answer 23

A. A volatile petroleum-base solvent.

Question 24

Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which condition?
A. The discontinuity pattern is straight.
B. The discontinuity is found in a nonstressed area of the part.
C. The discontinuity is found in highly stressed area of the part.

Answer 24

C. The discontinuity is found in highly stressed area of the part.

Question 25

In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the developer: A. Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of a defect. B. Acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication. C. Throughly cleans the surface prior to produce a visible

Answer 25

B. Acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication.

Question 26

What defects will be detected by magnetizing a part using continuous longitudinal magnetization with a cable? A. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part. B. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part. C. Defects parallel to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part.

Answer 26

A. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part.

Question 27

Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect which defects? A. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part. B. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part. C. Defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part.

Answer 27

A. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part.

Question 28

(1) In nondestructive testing, a discontinuity may be defined as an interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part. (2) A discontinuity may or may not affect the usefulness of a part. A. Only 1 is true. B. Only 2 is true. C. Both 1 and 2 are true.

Answer 28

C. Both 1 and 2 are true.

Question 29

What type of corrosion may attack the grain boundaries of aluminum alloys when the heat treatment process has been improperly accomplished? A. Concentration cell. B. Intergranular. C. Fretting.

Answer 29

B. Intergranular.

Question 30

Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys? A. Decreasing internal stresses and softening of the metal. B. Softening of the metals and improved corrosion resistance. C. Improved corrosion resistance.

Answer 30

A. Decreasing internal stresses and softening of the metal.

Question 31

Which heat-treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core? A. Case hardening. B. Annealing. C. Tempering.

Answer 31

A. Case hardening.

Question 32

Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content? A. Tempering. B. Normalizing. C. Case hardening.

Answer 32

C. Case hardening.

Question 33

Normalizing is a process of heat treating: A. Aluminum alloys only. B. Iron-base metals only. C. Both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals.

Answer 33

B. Iron-base metals only.

Question 34

Which of the following occurs when a mechanical force such as rolling, hammering, or bending is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature? A. The metals become artificially aged. B. The metals become stress corrosion cracked. C. The metals become strain or work hardened or cold worked.

Answer 34

C. The metals become strain or work hardened or cold worked.

Question 35

The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch: A. Has little or no effect on a metal’s heat treated characteristics. B. Has a cumulative enhancement effect on the original heat treatment. C. Can significantly alter a metal’s properties in the reheated area.

Answer 35

C. Can significantly alter a metal’s properties in the reheated area.

Question 36

Why is steel tempered after being hardened? A. To increase its hardness and ductility. B. To increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses. C. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness.

Answer 36

C. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness.

Question 37

What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no Harding or tempering treatment? A. 3003-F. B. 5052-H36. C. 6061-O.

Answer 37

A. 3003-F.

Question 38

Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects? A. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form. B. 6061-T9 stainless steel. C. Clad aluminum alloy.

Answer 38

C. Clad aluminum alloy.

Question 39

What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been annealed? A. Rapid cooling; high strength. B. Slow cooling; low strength. C. Slow cooling; increased resistance to wear.

Answer 39

B. Slow cooling; low strength.

Question 40

Torque values for aircraft bolts normally consider: A. The threads to be clean and dry. B. Tightening the bolt head. C. Lubricating the threads.

Answer 40

A. The threads to be clean and dry.

Question 41

What is generally used in the construction of aircraft exhaust collectors, stacks, and manifolds? A. Stainless steel. B. Titanium. C. Aluminum.

Answer 41

A. Stainless steel.

Question 42

What metal has special short-time heat properties and is used in the construction of aircraft firewalls? A. Stainless steel. B. Chrome molybdenum ally steel. C. Titanium alloy.

Answer 42

C. Titanium alloy.

Question 43

Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolt head is: A. Upward, or in rearward direction. B. Upward, or in forward direction. C. Downward, or in forward direction.

Answer 43

B. Upward, or in forward direction.

Question 44

Alclad is metal consisting of: A. Aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aluminum core. B. Pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core. C. A homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy.

Answer 44

B. Pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core.

Question 45

A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is: A. Under shear loading. B. Under tension loading. C. Subject to rotation.

Answer 45

C. Subject to rotation.

Question 46

Self-locking nuts may be used on aircraft provided that: A. The head of the bolt is safety wired. B. They are installed with a lock washer. C. The bolt or nut is not subject to rotation.

Answer 46

C. The bolt or nut is not subject to rotation.

Question 47

The society of automotive engineers (SAE) and the American iron and steel institute use a numerical index system to identify the composition of various steels. In the number “4130” designating chromium molybdenum steel, the first digit indicates the: A. Percentage of the basic element in the alloy. B. Percentage of carbon in the alloy in hundredths of a percent. C. Basic alloying element.

Answer 47

C. Basic alloying element.

Question 48

(Refer to Figure 42) which of the bolt head code markings shown identifies an AN corrosion resistant steel bolt? A. 1. B. 2. C. 3.

Answer 48

C. 3.

Question 49

Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolt head are: A. Made of aluminum alloy. B. Close tolerance bolts. C. Standard steel bolts.

Answer 49

C. Standard steel bolts.

Question 50

Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct? A. When tightening castellated nuts on a drilled bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line up, it is permissible to overtighten the nut to permit alignment of the next slot with the cotter pin hole. B. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal that material thickness. C. Alloy steel bolts smaller the 1/4-inch diameter should not be used in primary structure.

Answer 50

B. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal that material thickness.

Question 51

Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be: A. Equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together, plus approximately one diameter. B. Equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together. C. One and one half times the thickness of the material which is fastened together.

Answer 51

B. Equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together.

Question 52

When the specific torque value for nuts is not given, where can the recommended torque value be found? A. AC 43.13-1b. B. Technical standard order. C. AC43.13-2A.

Answer 52

A. AC 43.13-1b.

Question 53

(Refer to Figure 43) identify the clevis bolt illustrated. A. 1. B. 3. C. 2.

Answer 53

B. 3.

Question 54

A particular component is attached to the aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt and a castle tension nut combination. If the cotter pin hole does not align within the recommended torque range, the acceptable practice is to: A. Exceed the recommended torque range by no more than 10%. B. Tighten below the torque range. C. Change washers and try again.

Answer 54

C. Change washers and try again.

Question 55

A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an: A. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt. B. NAS standard bolt. C. NAS close tolerance bolt.

Answer 55

A. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt.

Question 56

How is a clevis bolt used with a fort-end cable terminal secured? A. With a shear nut tightened to a snug sit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin. B. With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between the fork and the fitting to which it is being attached. C. With a shear nut and a cotter pin or a thin self-locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork end.

Answer 56

A. With a shear nut tightened to a snug sit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin.

Question 57

Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane? A. For tension and shear load conditions. B. When external tension loads are applications. C. Only for shear load applications.

Answer 57

C. Only for shear load applications.

Question 58

A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is classified as an: A. NAS standard aircraft bolt. B. NAS close tolerance bolt. C. AN corrosion- resistant steel bolt.

Answer 58

B. NAS close tolerance bolt.

Question 59

The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is: A. Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum. B. Commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material is heat-treated aluminum alloy. C. Strain-hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.

Answer 59

A. Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.

Question 60

The aluminum code number is 1100 identifies what type of aluminum? A. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper. B. Aluminum alloy containing zinc. C. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.

Answer 60

C. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.

Question 61

Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a; A. Class 1 fit for the threads. B. Class 2 fit for the threads. C. Class 3 fit for the threads.

Answer 61

C. Class 3 fit for the threads.

Question 62

In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates: A. The major alloying element. B. The number of major alloying elements used in the metal. C. The percent of alloying metal added.

Answer 62

A. The major alloying element.

Question 63

How is the locking feature of the fiber-type locknut obtained? A. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert. B. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying section. C. By making the threads in the fiber insert slightly smaller than those in the load carrying section.

Answer 63

A. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert.

Question 64

Why should an aircraft maintenance technician be familiar with weld nomenclature? A. So that accurate visual (pictorial) comparisons can be made. B. In order to gain familiarity with the welding technique, filler material, and temperature range used. C. In order to compare welds with written (nonpictorial) description standards.

Answer 64

B. In order to gain familiarity with the welding technique, filler material, and temperature range used.

Question 65

(Refer to Figure 44) identify the weld caused by an excessive amount of acetylene. A. 4. B. 1. C. 3.

Answer 65

C. 3.

Question 66

(Refer to Figure 44) select the illustration which depicts a cold weld: A. 3. B. 2. C. 4.

Answer 66

B. 2.

Question 67

Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding? A. To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal. B. To increase the hardness of the weld. C. To remove the surface scale formed during welding.

Answer 67

A. To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal.

Question 68

Holed and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken? A. Reweld the defective portions. B. Remove all old weld, and reweld the joint. C. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect, and reweld all gaps/holes.

Answer 68

B. Remove all old weld, and reweld the joint.

Question 69

Which condition indicates a part has cooled too quickly after being welded? A. Cracking adjacent to the weld. B. Discoloration of the base metal. C. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions.

Answer 69

A. Cracking adjacent to the weld.

Question 70

Select a characteristic of a good gas weld. A. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient to s sure fusion of filler rod. B. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 inch above the base metal. C. The weld should be taper off smoothly into the base metal.

Answer 70

C. The weld should be taper off smoothly into the base metal.

Question 71

One characteristic of a good weld is the no oxide should be formed on the base meta at the distance from the weld of more than: A. 1/2 inch. B. 1 inch. C. 1/4 inch.

Answer 71

A. 1/2 inch.

Question 72

In examining and evaluating a welded joint, a mechanic should be familiar with: A. Likely ambient exposure conditions and intestate use of the part, along with type of weld and original part material composition. B. The weld technique, filler material, and temperature range used. C. The parts, proportions, and formation of a weld.

Answer 72

A. Likely ambient exposure conditions and intestate use of the part, along with type of weld and original part material composition.

Question 73

(Refer to Figure 45) What type weld is shown at A? A. Fillet. B. Butt. C. Lap.

Answer 73

B. Butt.

Question 74

(Refer to Figure 45) What type weld is shown at B? A. Butt. B. Double butt. C. Fillet.

Answer 74

B. Double butt.

Question 75

(Refer to Figure 45) What type weld is shown at G? A. Lap. B. Butt. C. Joint.

Answer 75

A. Lap.

Question 76

On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement includes what percentage(s) of the base metal thickness? A. 100%. B. 25 to 50%. C. 60 to 80%.

Answer 76

B. 25 to 50%.

Question 77

Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or plane of rotation of a disk? A. Dial indicator. B. Shaft gauge. C. Protractor.

Answer 77

A. Dial indicator.

Question 78

(Refer to Figure 46) The measurement reading on the illustrated micrometer is: A. 0.2851. B. 0.2911. C. 0.2901.

Answer 78

A. 0.2851.

Question 79

Identify the correct statement. A. An outside micrometer is limited to measuring diameters. B. Tools used on certificated aircraft must be an approved type. C. Dividers do not provide a reading when used as a measure as a device.

Answer 79

C. Dividers do not provide a reading when used as a measure as a device.

Question 80

(Refer to Figure 47) what is the measurement reading on the vernier caliper scale? A. 1.411 inches. B. 1.436 inches. C. 1.700 inches.

Answer 80

B. 1.436 inches.

Question 81

Which tool is used to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a relative;y narrow surface being checked for flatness? A. Depth gauges. B. Thickness gauges. C. Dial indicator.

Answer 81

B. Thickness gauges.

Question 82

Which number represents the vernier scale graduation of a micrometer? A. 0.00001. B. 0.001. C. 0.0001.

Answer 82

C. 0.0001.

Question 83

Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylindrical work? A. Combination set. B. Dial indicator. C. Micrometer caliper.

Answer 83

A. Combination set.

Question 84

(Refer to Figure 48) what does the micrometer read? A. 0.2974. B. 0.3004. C. 0.3108.

Answer 84

B. 0.3004.

Question 85

If it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a hole approximately 1/4 inch in diameter, the mechanic should use a: A. Telescoping gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the adjustable end of the telescoping gauge. B. 0- to 1- inch inside micrometer and read the measurement directly form the micrometer. C. Small-hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge.

Answer 85

C. Small-hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge.

Question 86

(Refer to Figure 49) The measurement reading on the micrometer is: A. 0.2758. B. 0.2702. C. 0.2792.

Answer 86

C. 0.2792.

Question 87

What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension? A. Machinist scale. B. Surface gauge. C. Dial indicator.

Answer 87

A. Machinist scale.

Question 88

What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer on check its accuracy? A. Gauge block. B. Dial indicator. C. Machinist scale.

Answer 88

A. Gauge block.

Question 89

What precision measuring tool is used fro measuring crank pin and main bearing journals for out-of-round wear? A. Dial gauge. B. Micrometer caliper. C. Depth gauge.

Answer 89

B. Micrometer caliper.

Question 90

The side clearance of piston rings are measured with a: A. Micrometer caliper gauge. B. Thickness gauge. C. Dial gauge.

Answer 90

B. Thickness gauge.

Question 91

How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished? A. Depth gauge and micrometer. B. Thickness gauge and push-fit arbor. C. Telescopic gauge and micrometer.

Answer 91

C. Telescopic gauge and micrometer.

Question 92

The twist of a connecting rod is checked by installing push-fit arbors in both ends, supported by parallel steel bras on a surface plate. Measurements are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a: A. Dial indicator. B. Height gauge. C. Thickness gauge.

Answer 92

C. Thickness gauge.

Question 93

What may be used to check the stem on a poppettype valve for stretch? A. Dial indicator. B. Micrometer. C. Telescoping.

Answer 93

B. Micrometer.

Question 94

Which tool can be used to determine piston pin out-of-round wear? A. Telescopic gauges. B. Micrometer caliper. C. Dial indicator.

Answer 94

B. Micrometer caliper.