Master Flashcards

1
Q

A person who leads or directs a unit

A

Leader

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2
Q

A person who is responsible for directing the performance of other people or employees

A

Supervisor

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3
Q

Individual who accomplishes organizational objectives through effective and efficient handling of material and human resources.

A

Manager

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4
Q

Duties of a Company Officer

A

Duties

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5
Q

Most common organizational structure, defined as having an uninterrupted series of steps in the chain of command. Decisions are top-down. Information is centralized for decision making.

A

Scalar Structure

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6
Q

Relates to the empowered duties of an official to perform certain tasks.

A

Authority

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7
Q

Refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable.

A

Authority

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8
Q

The process of providing subordinates with the authority, direction, and resources needed to complete an assignment.

A

Delegation of Authority

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9
Q

Consists of dividing large jobs into smaller tasks to be assigned to specific individuals.

A

Division of Labor

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10
Q

Functional division of the lowest level of government

A

Municipal

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11
Q

Designated geographic area where fire protection is provided, usually through a supporting tax.

A

Fire District

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12
Q

There are _____ federally recognized Native American Tribal Governments within the US. Many reside on the ______ acres of land that the US Government holds in trust.

A

562, 55.7 Million

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13
Q

Volunteer Firefighters staff approximately _____ of fire organizations.

A

70%

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14
Q

Reciprocal assistance from one fire and emergency services agency to another during an emergency, based on a prearranged agreement. Generally made upon the request of the receiving agency.

A

Mutual Aid

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15
Q

Written agreement between two or more agencies to automatically dispatch predetermined resources to any fire or other emergency reported in the geographic area covered by the agreement.

A

Automatic Aid

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16
Q

Assistance from Agencies, industries, or departments that are not part of the agency having jurisdiction. Payment, such as per-response or an annual fee is made.

A

Outside Aid

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17
Q

Supervising Fire Officer

A

Supervising Fire Officer

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18
Q

Managing Fire Officer (Battalion, District, Assistant)

A

Managing Fire Officer (Battalion, District, Assistant)

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19
Q

Administrative Fire Officer

A

Administrative Fire Officer

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20
Q

Executive Fire Officer

A

Executive Fire Officer

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21
Q

Planning, organizing, directing, and controlling in order to coordinate the efforts of the unit.

A

Supervisory Ability

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22
Q

Making decisions quickly and effectively

A

Decisiveness

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23
Q

Using logic and reason in making decisions

A

Intelligence

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24
Q

Accomplishing goals and objectives with a minimum of supervision

A

Initiative

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25
Q

Gaining additional responsibility and influence within the organization

A

Desire for Professional Success

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26
Q

Applying consistently a set of morals or values to the decision making process.

A

Integrity

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27
Q

Being secure in the leadership position

A

Personal Security

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28
Q

Determining an effective order of action to achieve the desired outcome.

A

Sense of Priority

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29
Q

Having a dream or concept of the way things can or should be.

A

Vision

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30
Q

Working hard to fulfill duties

A

Industriousness

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31
Q

Providing support for others to succeed in accomplishing organizational and personal goals

A

Empowerment

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32
Q

Giving subordinates the tools and methods to solve the problem or make change

A

Enabling others to act

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33
Q

Sharing the glory with your subordinates while keeping the troubles to yourself

A

Encouraging Subordinates

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34
Q

The ability to identify the components of a situation, assess the need for action, determine the nature of the necessary intervention, initiate action, and to be perceived as having the ability to take this action.

A

Command Presence

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35
Q

Number of Steps to Create a Command Presence

A

8

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36
Q

Gain objects that fulfill an individuals basic needs, such as food, money, clothing, or other items.

A

Basic Needs

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37
Q

Create, prolong, or avoid social relationships, such as hazing

A

Affiliation

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38
Q

Increase the perceived competence of an individual in the eyes of others, such as falsifying records, cheating to make a higher score on attest, or spreading gossip that belittles another person.

A

Self-Esteem

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39
Q

Increase an individuals personal enjoyment, such as illegal gambling, substance abuse, and theft.

A

Self-Gratification

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40
Q

How many main reasons are there for lying and what are they?

A

4, Basic Needs, Affiliation, Self-Gratification, Self Esteem

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41
Q

Includes the processes of directing, overseeing, and controlling the activities of other individuals

A

Supervision

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42
Q

Refers to the administration and control of projects, programs, situations, or organizations.

A

Management

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43
Q

A pattern of thinking that includes self deception, peer pressure, and conformity to group ethics and values.

A

Groupthink

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44
Q

Employees are uncertain of their roles. As relationships grow, trust and respect develop and the members begin to see themselves as a part of group. Critical to team-development and the officer can have a significant effect.

A

Forming

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45
Q

Conflict may result at this stage. The most critical aspect of successful team development is to reduce the amount of time the group spends in this phase.

A

Storming

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46
Q

The group establishes and adheres to its own set of norms and values. The leader transitions to a member, allowing other members to share leadership responsibilities.

A

Norming

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47
Q

The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group accomplishes its objectives.

A

Performing

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48
Q

a process of giving motivational direction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback.

A

Coaching

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49
Q

a formal process which assists participants in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or other career problems.

A

Counseling

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50
Q

Used to better prepare individuals for their roles and responsibilities within the organization.

A

Mentoring

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51
Q

the process of controlling or directing available resources for the purpose of achieving a goal or objective through the use of authority or persuasion.

A

Managing

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52
Q

Encompasses the broadest view of the organization, and the narrowest.

A

Planning

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53
Q

coordinating tasks and resources to accomplish the units goals

A

Organizing

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54
Q

Guiding, influencing, inspiring, and motivating employees. Proactive approach to managing.

A

Directing

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55
Q

Establishing and implementing the mechanisms to ensure that objectives are attained.

A

Controlling

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56
Q

Policies, procedures, and rules that are used frequently manage the day-to-day emergency and non-emergency unit activities.

A

Standing Plan

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57
Q

accomplish a specific objective. Usually intended to reach a stop within a short of pain.

A

Single-Use Plans

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58
Q

Chart the course of the organization.

A

Strategic Plan

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59
Q

How many Steps are in the Planning Process?

A

5: Identify – Select – Design – Implement – Evaluate

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60
Q

The Civil Rights Act of ______ (Year)

A

1964

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61
Q

Occurs when people hide their own emotions so that others do not know how they feel. The goal of this behavior is to appease others and avoid conflict at all costs.

A

Passive (Nonaggressive)

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62
Q

Occurs when people express their emotions openly and use threatening behavior toward people or objects, which results in the violation of other’s rights. The goal is to dominate the situation or other person and “win” which forces the other person to “lose.”

A

Aggressive

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63
Q

Occurs when people express their emotions honestly and defend their rights without hurting others. The goals of this are communication and mutual respect, fair play, and compromise between the rights and needs of the two parties involved in the conflict. THE personal rights of other people are not violated, while the thoughts, feelings, and beliefs of the individual are expressed in an honest and appropriate manner.

A

Assertive

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64
Q

How many methods of resolving conflict are there?

A

5: Avoiding, Accommodating, Forcing, Negotiating, Collaborating

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65
Q

Taking a nonassertive approach; people may deny that a problem exists, refuse to take a stand on a situation, or mentally or physically withdraw. The result is a lose-lose situation because the conflict is never resolved.

A

Avoiding

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66
Q

Appeasing other persons by passively giving in to their positions. The result is a lose-win situation because the second persons needs are met at the expense of the first person.

A

Accommodating

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67
Q

Reaching a compromise solution that all parties can agree upon. Supervisor is moderately assertive and cooperative. Result is a decision that causes everyone to compromise on somethings while benefitting on others. Resolved relatively quickly, relationships are maintained.

A

Forcing

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68
Q

Sharing information open and honestly, which usually results in the best solution to the conflict (also referred to as problem solving style). This style is focused on the best interests of the organization, community, or service area.

A

Collaborating

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69
Q

How many steps are there to conflict resolution?

A

6: Classify/ID The Problem, Define/Diagnose, Determine the right response, Determine alternate options, Convert to action, Test the action

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70
Q

What are the 4 reasons people break the rules?

A

Resentment, Ignorance, Boredom, Stress (RIBS)

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71
Q

_____ has been defined as “Training that Corrects”

A

Discipline

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72
Q

What are the 4 most common forms of communication within the fire and emergency services?

A

Informal Interpersonal, Oral, Written, and Incident Scene

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73
Q

How many general purposes for interpersonal communication are there?

A

5: Learning, Playing, Helping, Relating, Influencing

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74
Q

Acquire knowledge or skills

A

Learning

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75
Q

Establish a new relationship or maintain an existing one

A

Relating

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76
Q

Control, Direct, or Manipulate Behavior

A

Influencing

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77
Q

Create a diversion and gain pleasure or gratification, as with positive humor.

A

Playing

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78
Q

Attend to another person’s needs or console someone in a time of tragedy or loss.

A

Helping

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79
Q

Nonverbal communication transmits ___% of any message: ___% is body language, ___% is vocal tone and inflection. Only ___% is verbal.

A

93%, 55%, 38%, 7%

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80
Q

The face can show ___ basic emotions, they are:

A

6: Anger, Happiness, Sadness, Disgust, Surprise, Fear

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81
Q

Focusing on the speaker while ignoring any other distractions.

A

Attending

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82
Q

Decoding the message and assigning meaning to it involves: organizing the message in a logical pattern, interpreting non-verbal cues, asking questions to clarify.

A

Understanding

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83
Q

Retaining information in short term and then long term memory. Taking notes, repeating information back, using mnemonic devices.

A

Remembering

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84
Q

Critically analyzing information to determine how accurate it is, or separata fact from opinion.

A

Evaluating

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85
Q

Indicating to the sender that the message or information has been understood or requires more information.

A

Responding

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86
Q

What are the types of Formal Speeches and presentation?

A

Persuasive, Informative, and Instructional.

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87
Q

How many steps are in a Persuasive speech?

A

5: Gain attention. Describe the problem, Present the best solution, Describe the best solution, Provide the steps to accomplish change.

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88
Q

How many steps are in the Speech and Presentation Preparation Process?

A

9: Select the topic, Determine the purpose, Generate Ideas, Develop the central idea, Gather supporting evidence, Organize the speech, Rehearse the speech, Deliver the speech, Evaluate the speech.

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89
Q

Types of Narrative Reports include

A

Justification, Recommendation, Progress, Progress and Justification, and Description.

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90
Q

What are the 5 C’s of Radio Communication?

A

Conciseness, Clarity, Confidence, Control, and Capability

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91
Q

A ______ determines if current policies are effective and enforceable or if the lack of policies caused problems.

A

Policy Analysis

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92
Q

Emergency Incident Orders Must be Issues ____, ____, ____, and ____.

A

Calmly, Clearly, Concisely, and Completely

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93
Q

There are ____ steps in the budget process.

A

5: Planning, Preparing, Implementing, Monitoring & Evaluating, and Revising.

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94
Q

The systematic control of an organization’s records to ensure quick access to information.

A

Records Management

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95
Q

______ are the basis for planning and justifying budget request.

A

Activity Records

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96
Q

The process of identifying and analyzing the exposure to hazards, selecting appropriate techniques to handle exposures, implementing chosen techniques, and monitoring the results of those techniques.

A

Risk Management

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97
Q

Requires a systematic approach and shall include risk identification, risk evaluation, risk prioritization, risk control, and risk monitoring.

A

Operational Risk Management Plan

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98
Q

Risks are identified in the community, within the organization, and within the operational setting at emergency and nonemergency incidents.

A

Risk Identification

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99
Q

Risks are evaluated on their probability and potential for negative consequences, including the anticipated severity and frequency of occurrence.

A

Risk Evaluation

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100
Q

A ranking of identified risks will be based on the degree of severity and frequency.

A

Establishment of Priorities for Action

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101
Q

Control measures will be identified for each significant risk

A

Risk Control Techniques

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102
Q

Monitoring of the risk control measures will be an ongoing process.

A

Risk Management Monitoring

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103
Q

Operational Risk Management contains a ____ step process.

A

5: Situational Awareness, Hazard Assessment, Hazard Control, Decision Point, Evaluation

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104
Q

A blueprint to reducing firefighter deaths and injuries.

A

Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives

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105
Q

Originally an email group, this website produces an independent newsletter that shares information about close call incidents that resulted in firefighter injuries and fatalities.

A

FirefighterCloseCalls.com

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106
Q

Designed to improve the safety, quality, and consistent delivery of Emergency Medical Services. Collects data from EMS practitioners in order to develop policies, procedures, and training programs to improve the safe deliver of EMS.

A

EVENT (EMS Voluntary Event Notification Tool

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107
Q

A not-for-profit think tank, consortium group with a mission to promote an EMS safety innovation, collaboration, research, knowledge transfer, education, and safety information dissemination.

A

EMS Safety Foundation

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108
Q

There are ___ Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives.

A

16

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109
Q

There are ___ IAFC Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Survival.

A

11

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110
Q

There are ___ IAFC Incident Commander’s Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Safety.

A

14

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111
Q

A voluntary, confidential, non-punitive and secure reporting system with the foal of improving firefighter safety. Cooperative effort between the IAFC and IAFF.

A

National Firefighter Near-Miss Reporting System

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112
Q

There are ___ Rules in the National Volunteer Fire Council’s Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Health.

A

10

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113
Q

Standard on Fire Department Occupational Health and Safety Program.

A

NFPA 1500

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114
Q

Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System.

A

NFPA 1561

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115
Q

Standard for Fire Department Safety Officer

A

NFPA 1521

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116
Q

Standard on Fire Department Infection Control Program

A

NFPA 1581

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117
Q

Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments

A

NFPA 1582

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3
4
5
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118
Q

Standard on Rehabilitation Process for Members During Emergency Operations and Training Exercises.

A

NFPA 1584

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119
Q

Standard on Selection., Care, and Maintenance of Open-Circuit SCBA.

A

NFPA 1852

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120
Q

Respiratory Protection CFR

A

29 CFR 1910.134

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121
Q

Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications.

A

NFPA 1021

122
Q

Standard for Fire Service Instructor Professional Qualifications.

A

1041

123
Q

Standard for Providing Fire and Emergency Services to the Public.

A

NFPA 1201

124
Q

___ Step Method of Instruction.

A

4: Preparation, Presentation, Application and Evaluation.

125
Q

Basic to all teaching. It is essentially a road map that guides the instructor, teacher, or company officer through the topic. Step-by-step guide. Contains information and instruction on what will be taught and the procedures to be followed.

A

Lesson Plan

126
Q

In the Demonstration Method, there are ___ steps to prepare, and ___ steps to demonstrate the skill.

A

4, 11

127
Q

Standard on Water Supplies for Suburban and Rural Fire Fighting Requirements.

A

NFPA 1142

128
Q

Uniform Fire Code.

A

NFPA 1

129
Q

Standard on Types of Building Construction.

A

NFPA 220

130
Q

Type V Construction can be up to about ___ stories in height.

A

6

131
Q

Type IA Construction requires a ___ hour rating of the structural frame and load-bearing walls: floors must have a ___ hour rating: and roofs must have a ___ rating. (Most Stringent Classification.)

A

3, 2, 1 ½

132
Q

Type IB Construction requires a ___ hour rating of the structural frame and load-bearing walls: floors must have a ___ hour rating: and roofs must have a ___ rating.

A

2, 2, 1

133
Q

Type IIIA Construction requires a ___ hour rating of exterior bearing walls and a ___ rating of other materials.

A

3, 1

134
Q

Type IV Requires a minimum ___ inch dimensioned lumber when supporting a floor, or not less than ___ inch nominal depth when supporting roof or ceilings loads only.

A

8, 8

135
Q

Type IV Requires wood framed or glue laminated arches for roof construction that rise from the floor with a minimum of ___ inch nominal width and ___ inch depth for the first half of its length and then no less than ___ inches for the top half of its length.

A

6, 8, 6

136
Q

Type VA requires a ___ hour resistance rating for all elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.

A

1

137
Q

The ____ is the single most important life safety item to be inspected.

A

Means of Egress

138
Q

The means of Egress consist of ___ parts.

A

3: Access to the Exit, The Exit itself, and the Exit Discharge.

139
Q

Life Safety Code

A

NFPA 101

140
Q

Uniform Fire Code

A

NFPA 1

141
Q

There are ___ contents-hazard classifications.

A

3: Low, Ordinary, High

142
Q

National Fire Alarm Code.

A

NFPA 72

143
Q

May be activated manually. Sensors that detect heat, smoke, or flame can activate them. They initiate an alarm signal only on the premises where they are installed. Primary purpose is to alert building occupants to a fire, secondary purpose is to alert passersby.

A

Local Alarm Systems

144
Q

Used only in communities that have municipal alarm box systems. Installed within a building and connected directly to a municipal alarm box located on the street. When a fire activates the system, the system transmits a signal to the fire and emergency service organization.

A

Auxiliary Alarm Systems

145
Q

Connected directly to the fire and emergency services organization communications/dispatch center. Transmit an alarm, usually over a leased telephone line. Commonly used in communities that are not served by a central station system. One of these may cover up to 5 buildings.

A

Remote Station Systems

146
Q

Used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings, high-rise buildings, and groups of commonly owned buildings In a single location. Each building is protected by a separate system connected to a common receiving point. Receiving point must be remote from and hazardous operations.

A

Proprietary Systems

147
Q

Receiving point is not on the protected premises, and the owner of the protected premises does not employ the person receiving the alarm. Alarm is received, the operator notifies the fire organization and a representative of the property owner/occupant.

A

Central Station System

148
Q

Standard for the Installation of Stationary Fire Pumps for Fire Protection.

A

NFPA 20

149
Q

Stationary Fire Pumps are almost always __________ pumps with a discharge capacity from ___ to ___gpm.

A

Electrically Driven Centrifugal Pumps, 500-4500gpm.

150
Q

NFPA 20 requires stationary fire pumps to be run for at least ___ per week.

A

30 minutes

151
Q

Standard for Installation, Maintenance, and use of Emergency Services Communications Systems.

A

NFPA 1221

152
Q

Standard for the Installation of Standpipe and Hose Systems

A

NFPA 14

153
Q

Standard for Dry Chemical Extinguishing Systems

A

NFPA 17

154
Q

_____ systems are specifically calculated and constructed for a particular occupancy, while _____ systems are designed to protect a given amount of area in any occupancy. –

A

Engineered, Pre-Engineered

155
Q

_____ is the most common type of dry chemical system.

A

Total Flooding

156
Q

Standard for Wet Chemical Extinguishing Systems.

A

NFPA 17A

157
Q

Standard on Carbon Dioxide Extinguishing Systems.

A

NFPA 12

158
Q

The _______ provided for a phase-out of Halons and banned their manufacture after _____.

A

Montreal Protocol of 1987, January 1, 1994

159
Q

Standard for Clean Agent Fire Extinguishing Systems.

A

NFPA 2001

160
Q

A “Clean Agent” hydrochlorofluorocarbon.

A

Halotron, FM-200, and Inergen.

161
Q

A hydrochlorofluorocarbon considered to be an alternative to Halon 1301.

A

Halotron

162
Q

Inergen is a blend of what 3 naturally occurring gases?

A

FM-200

163
Q

Standard for Low, Medium, and High Expansion Foam.

A

Nitrogen, Argon, and Carbon Dioxide.

164
Q

Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers.

A

NFPA 11

165
Q

Extinguishers with a gross weight not exceeding ____ should be installed so that the top of the extinguishers is not more than ___ above the floor.

A

NFPA 10

166
Q

Extinguishers with a weight greater than ___, except wheeled types, should be installed so that the top of the extinguishers is not more than ___ above the floor.

A

40lbs, 5’

167
Q

The clearance between the bottom of the extinguisher and the floor should never be less than ___.

A

40lbs, 3 ½ feet

168
Q

Standard for Preincident Planning

A

4”

169
Q

Horizontal member between trusses that support the roof.

A

NFPA 1620

170
Q

Architectural Drawing showing the overall project layout of building areas, driveways, fences, fire hydrants, and landscape features; view is directly from above.

A

Purlin

171
Q

NFPA 704 3 Colors to Signify Specific Types of Hazards. What are the colors, and what do each represent?

A

Plot Plan

172
Q

Standard for Smoke and Heat Venting

A

Red – Flammability, Blue – Health, Yellow – Instability

173
Q

Release heat and smoke to the outside from square or rectangular structures that penetrate a buildings roof.

A

NFPA 204

174
Q

Fire resistive half-walls (also known as Draft Curtains) that extend down from the underside of a roof to limit the horizontal spread of heat and smoke. These also concentrate heat and smoke directly under automatic roof vents.

A

Monitors

175
Q

Indicate how buildings are situated in relation to other buildings and streets in the area.

A

Curtain Boards

176
Q

Show the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs.

A

Plot Plans

177
Q

Show side views of structures that depict number of floors in a building and the grades of surrounding ground.

A

Floor Plans

178
Q

There are ___ major tasks with any preincident plan:

A

Elevations

179
Q

The environment in a structure fire can exceed ___ in ___ minutes, with the potential for flashover to occur within ___minutes.

A

3, Gathering the Data, Entering the data into databases, and Keeping the data current.

180
Q

The upper human survivability limit is ___.

A

500 Degrees, 3-4 Minutes, 5 Minutes

181
Q

A system that optimizes the utilization of all available resources, personnel, procedures, and equipment in order to promote safety and improve operational efficiency. Originated by the transport industry.

A

212 Degrees

182
Q

Designed to create a culture or climate of freedom in which personnel are encouraged to contribute to the safety and goals of mitigating the incident.

A

Crew Resource Management (CRM)

183
Q

The IAFC released its initially draft of Rules of Engagement for Structural Firefighting in___,

A

Crew Resource Management (CRM)

184
Q

There are ___ organizational levels in NIMS-ICS.

A

2010

185
Q

An ___ establishes the overall strategic decisions and assigned tactical objectives for an incident.

A

8

186
Q

Layman described ___ considerations needed for analyzing any emergency situation.

A

IAP

187
Q

The number and types of units being dispatched provides the company officer with an idea of the ___ or ___ of the incident.

A

5: Facts, Probabilities, Own Situation, Decision, and Plan of Operation

188
Q

Layman identified two or more decisions that must be made in the ongoing size-up process, the initial decision may be seen as having ___ segments.

A

Size or Complexity

189
Q

Controlling the environment in which responders must work and bystanders or victims may find themselves. This is essential to ensuring the life safety of responders, victims, and bystanders.

A

3

190
Q

Heat moves from warmer objects to cooler objects at a rate that is related to the ___ of the objects and the ___ of its materials.

A

Scene Control

191
Q

Form of energy associated with the motion of atoms or molecules and capable of being transmitted through solid and fluid media by conduction, through fluid media by convection, and through empty space by radiation. – Heat

A

Temperature Difference, Thermal Conductivity.

192
Q

Thermal or chemical decomposition offuel because of heat, generally resulting in the lowered ignition temperature of the material.

A

Heat

193
Q

The tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature. (also called Heat Stratification)

A

Pyrolysis

194
Q

The interface of the hot and cooler gas layers at the opening is commonly referred to as the ___.

A

Thermal Layering

195
Q

There are ___ common elements of flashover.

A

Neutral Plane

196
Q

The mixture of smoke and air is extremely rich in a backdraft situation, usually greater than ___% hydrocarbons.

A

4: Transition in fire development, rapidity, compartment, and ignition of all exposed surfaces.

197
Q

Class A, or ___ type fuels are the most common types of fuels found in structures.

A

10%

198
Q

The actual and potential ventilation of a structure based on structural openings, construction type, and building ventilation systems.

A

Cellulose

199
Q

contains heat within a compartment, causing a localized increase in the temperature and fire growth.

A

Pre-Existing Ventilation

200
Q

Increases fire spread through the transfer of radiant heat from wall surfaces to adjacent fuel sources.

A

Insulation

201
Q

Slowly absorbs and releases large amounts of heat to maintain temperature.

A

Heat Reflectivity

202
Q

Thermal Properties of a Compartment include:

A

Retention

203
Q

DHS and FEMA conducted tests comparing lightweight wood construction to legacy construction. A total of ___ tests were conducted, with ___ on floor-ceiling assemblies and ___ on roof-ceiling assemblies.

A

Insulation, Heat Reflectivity, and Retention

204
Q

___ is vital to safety and must always be emphasized.

A
    1. 2
205
Q

RECEO-VS Stands for:

A

Team Integrity

206
Q

OSHA established the 2-in/2-out rule has a part of 29 CFR ___.

A

Lloyd Layman, Mid-20th Century.

207
Q

Shelter in Place is also called ___.

A

Rescue, Exposures, Confinement, Extinguishment, Overhaul, Ventilation, Salvage

208
Q

In response to the Americans with Disabilities act, many new buildings and those that have undergone major renovation include what are called ___.

A

1910.134

209
Q

Layman used this term to describe the need to limit the fire or other emergency to the property or area of origin where the emergency began.

A

Safe Haven

210
Q

Layman used this term to describe the need to prevent extension of the incident effects into uninvolved areas.

A

Areas of Rescue Assistance

211
Q

In Laymans model, the ___ process floats, meaning it can be used when needed.

A

Exposures

212
Q

The Operational Planning P Model was initially developed by ___.

A

Confinement

213
Q

Operational Planning P focuses on the first ___ steps of the NIMS-ICS planning process, they are:

A

Ventilation

214
Q

The overall plans for controlling an incident. Broad, general statements of the final outcomes to be achieved.

A

The US Coast Guard

215
Q

Specific statements of measurable outcomes.

A

5: Understand the Situation, Establish objectives and strategies, Develop the plan of action, prepare and disseminate the plan, and Evaluate/Revise the plan.

216
Q

Situations that require immediate action to stabilize the incident mandate the company officer’s assistance to carry out the operation. The CO accompanies the crew to provide the appropriate level of supervision.

A

Strategic Goals

217
Q

___ or accessory actions that emergency services personnel perform are the greatest threats to the recovery of evidence or any physical indications of the cause of the incident.

A

Tactical Objectives

218
Q

A meeting that generally involves all participating units and agencies, based on the PIA.

A

Fast Attack

219
Q

A formal critique should be held within ____ of the incident.

A

Overhaul

220
Q

The term commonwealth is used to describe 4 States and 1 terrirory, they are:

A

Post-Incident Critique

221
Q

The Unites States currently administers ___ territories, they are:

A

1 Week

222
Q

A procedure to be put into effect should an emergency occur within a given area.

A

Kentucky, Massachusetts, Pennsylvania, Virginia, and Puerto Rico

223
Q

The ____ was created to integrate federal government prevention, preparedness, response, recover, and mitigation plans into one all-discipline, all-hazard approach to domestic incident management.

A

6: Guam, US Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Midway and Puerto Rico.

224
Q

An ongoing, repeated assessment conducted over time to evaluate an employee’s performance against an organizations standards.

A

Area Contingency Plan

225
Q

The company officer’s final assessment of the individual’s performance. Conducted at the end of a given period of time, annually as a performance review, or for performance improvement or disciplinary purposes.

A

US National Response Plan

226
Q

The Change Process has ___ Stages.

A

Formative Evaluation

227
Q

Change in the Organization’s short or long-term plan.

A

Summative Evaluation

228
Q

Change in the Organization’s Design

A

4: Denial, Resistance, Exploration, and Commitment.

229
Q

Change in the skills, performance, attitude, behaviors, or cultures of the workforce to meet the force of change.

A

Strategic Change

230
Q

What are the reasons to resist change?

A

Structure

231
Q

Resistance to change an be overcome with ___ basic steps.

A

People

232
Q

A model for change has been created to facilitate most forms of change facing an organization; it is based on ___ steps.

A

Uncertainty, Loss of Power, Lack of Shared Vision, Lack of Trust, Learning Anxiety, Fear of Loss, Self-Interest

233
Q

The change process should be viewed as ____ rather than ____.

A

7

234
Q

John Kotter determined in the 1990’s that there are ___ reasons change fails

A

5

235
Q

____ are influential members, such as the chiefs, president of the labor organization, branch/division heads, members of the governing board, or heads of other departments.

A

Cyclical rather than Linear

236
Q

____ may have greater influence on the productivity and success of the formal group more than any other factor.

A

8

237
Q

____ determine the company officer’s ability to deal effectively with the group

A

Key Actors

238
Q

A group may exhibit ___ essential characteristics.

A

Informal Subgroups

239
Q

___ is one of the greatest influences on the success of a group.

A

Group Dynamics

240
Q

Positive Self Image is sometimes called ____.

A

5

241
Q

When group interaction is cooperative, a ____ effect is created.

A

Group Image

242
Q

Expectations are stated positively and behavioral limitations are set. May be used for discipline, to determine the cause of inappropriate behavior, and establish a means of correcting it.

A

Esprit de corps

243
Q

Guides the individual through any new activities, reinforces correct behaviors, and redirects incorrect ones.

A

Synergistic

244
Q

A supervisor or other superior acts as an advisor or guide to the member.

A

Counseling

245
Q

a variety of procedures designed to help individuals adjust to certain situations and a means of either reinforcing correct behavior or eliminating improper behavior.

A

Coaching

246
Q

a process of directing an individuals skills performance.

A

Mentoring

247
Q

The formal coaching model contains ___ steps.

A

Counseling

248
Q

Places a subordinate under the guidance of a more experienced professional who acts as a tutor, guide, and motivator. Guides the subordinates actions in real experiences on the job.

A

Coaching

249
Q

Personnel Evaluations must be

A

4

250
Q

To maintain order through training and/or the threat or imposition of sanctions; setting and enforcing the limits od boundaries for expected performance.

A

Mentoring

251
Q

____ discipline results when reasonable rules of conduct are established an are fairly and consistently applied.

A

Timely, Stated Clearly, Non-Discriminatory, Consistent, Documented, Conducted by trained supervisors, and Objective

252
Q

Progressive Discipline usually starts with ____.

A

Discipline

253
Q

Progressive discipline involves ___ levels.

A

Positive (constructive)

254
Q

A program in which an individual can learn a particular skill set by following an active practitioner in the field.

A

Negative

255
Q

A career or professional development plan is like a ____.

A

Training or education

256
Q

There are ___ steps in the Planning Process for professional development,

A

3: Preventative Action (Oral Reprimand), Corrective Action (Written Reprimand), and Punitive Action

257
Q

Basic skills able to meet the minimum requirements.

A

Job Shadowing

258
Q

Higher level of skills performance that is the result of additional practice.

A

Roadmap

259
Q

highest level of skills performance

A

3: Current Situation, Intermediate Objectives, and Final Goal

260
Q

Budget intended to fund the day-to-day operations.

A

Competency

261
Q

Budget intended to fund large, one time expenditures.

A

Proficiency

262
Q

There are ___ basic steps in determining the area of origin.

A

Mastery

263
Q

Guide for Fire and Explosion Investigations

A

Operating Budget

264
Q

A v-shaped pattern may have been made during the ____ stage of a fire.

A

Capital Budget

265
Q

Type of fire pattern created as a result of the plume of hot gases rising above an individual fire.

A

4 Exterior, Interior, Interview, Analyze

266
Q

Fire pattern that radiant heat forms in the hot-gas layer during a fire before flashover.

A

NFPA 921

267
Q

Fire pattern found on noncombustible surfaces where there has been direct contact with or intense radiant heat on the surface. Soot is burned away.

A

Incipient

268
Q

Fire pattern created when structural components such as wood studs or trim are exposed to flame.

A

Plume-Generated

269
Q

Fire pattern that is the result of fire burning downward through a floor surface above the joist.

A

Hot-Gas Layer

270
Q

There are ___ generally accepted classifications of fire cause. –

A

Clean Burns

271
Q

Fires set because of ____ fall into the largest category of arson fires and account for 50% of the total arson problem.

A

Pointers or Arrows

272
Q

Most small children under that age of ___ experiment with fire.

A

Saddle Burns

273
Q

Between the ages of ___ and ___ the majority of fires that children set is the result of psychosocial conflicts, such as revenge, anger, or need for attention.

A

4: Accidental, Natural, Incendiary, Undetermined

274
Q

The last phase of the juvenile firesetter is the crisis phase, between ___ and ___ years of age.

A

Revenge – Personal or professional vendettas.

275
Q

Company Officer II must be trained at a minimum of ICS ____, though ICS ____ is recommended. –

A

7

276
Q

_______ is often one of the most dangerous phases in incident management.

A

13-Aug

277
Q

The ______ level involves the overall command of the incident.

A

15-18

278
Q

A ____ level assignment comes with the authority to make decisions and assignments within the boundaries of the overall plan and safety concerns.

A

200, 300

279
Q

_____ level refers to those activities assigned to specific resources that result in the accomplishment of tactical level requirements

A

Transfer of Command

280
Q

The terms Division and Group are ______ level management components.

A

Strategic Level

281
Q

ICS Form for Incident Objectives

A

Tactical

282
Q

ICS Form for Assignment Lit

A

Task

283
Q

ICS Form for Incident Radio Comumunications Plan

A

Tactical

284
Q

The PIA is a _____ and _____ assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information about the incident.

A

ICS 202

285
Q

Post-incident Critiques can be _____ or _____.

A

ICS 203

286
Q

An _____ critique can be used as a training exercise.

A

ICS 205

287
Q

Condition, substance, or device that can directly cause injury or loss

A

ICS 206

288
Q

The source of a risk.

A

Critical and Objective

289
Q

Likelihood of suffering harm from a hazard; Exposure to a hazard; the potential failure or loss.

A

Formal or informal

290
Q

Estimated effect that a hazard would have, often expressed as high, moderate, or low.

A

Informal

291
Q

The organization’s _____ is responsible for the development of an organizational risk management plan.

A

Hazard

292
Q

For Risk Evaluation, OSHA refers to frequency as _______.

A

Hazard

293
Q

Avoiding the activity that creates risk.

A

Risk

294
Q

Physically transferring the risk to someone else or purchase insurance.

A

Risk

295
Q

Implementing effective measures is the most common method for risk management.

A

Chief Executive Officer

296
Q

Human Factors for accidents can be classified into ___ broad categories, they are:

A

Incidence Rate

297
Q

Statistics verify that _____ and _____ are the leading causes of fire and emergency responder fatalities.

A

Risk Avoidance

298
Q

Physically transferring the risk to someone else or purchase insurance.

A

Risk Transfer

299
Q

Implementing effective measures is the most common method for risk management.

A

Control Measures

300
Q

Human Factors for accidents can be classified into ___ broad categories, they are:

A

3: Improper Attitude, Lack of Knowledge / Skill, Physically Unsuited

301
Q

Statistics verify that _____ and _____ are the leading causes of fire and emergency responder fatalities.

A

Cardiac arrest and Stroke