Master Flashcards

(155 cards)

1
Q

A person who leads or directs a unit

A

Leader

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2
Q

A person who is responsible for directing the performance of other people or employees

A

Supervisor

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3
Q

Individual who accomplishes organizational objectives through effective and efficient handling of material and human resources.

A

Manager

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4
Q

Most common organizational structure, defined as having an uninterrupted series of steps in the chain of command. Decisions are top-down. Information is centralized for decision making.

A

Scalar Structure

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5
Q

Refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable.

A

Authority

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6
Q

The process of providing subordinates with the authority, direction, and resources needed to complete an assignment.

A

Delegation of Authority

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7
Q

Consists of dividing large jobs into smaller tasks to be assigned to specific individuals.

A

Division of Labor

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8
Q

Functional division of the lowest level of government

A

Municipal

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9
Q

Designated geographic area where fire protection is provided, usually through a supporting tax.

A

Fire District

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10
Q

There are _____ federally recognized Native American Tribal Governments within the US. Many reside on the ______ acres of land that the US Government holds in trust.

A

573, 55.7 Million

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11
Q

Volunteer Firefighters staff approximately _____ of fire organizations.

A

70%

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12
Q

Reciprocal assistance from one fire and emergency services agency to another during an emergency, based on a prearranged agreement. Generally made upon the request of the receiving agency.

A

Mutual Aid

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13
Q

Written agreement between two or more agencies to automatically dispatch predetermined resources to any fire or other emergency reported in the geographic area covered by the agreement.

A

Automatic Aid

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14
Q

Assistance from Agencies, industries, or departments that are not part of the agency having jurisdiction. Payment, such as per-response or an annual fee is made.

A

Outside Aid

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15
Q

Making decisions quickly and effectively

A

Decisiveness

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16
Q

Using logic and reason in making decisions

A

Intelligence

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17
Q

Accomplishing goals and objectives with a minimum of supervision

A

Initiative

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18
Q

Applying consistently a set of morals or values to the decision making process.

A

Integrity

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19
Q

Being secure in the leadership position

A

Personal Security

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20
Q

Having an idea or concept of future developments.

A

Vision

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21
Q

Working hard to fulfill duties

A

Industriousness

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22
Q

Providing support for others to succeed in accomplishing organizational and personal goals

A

Empowerment

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23
Q

Sharing the glory with your subordinates while keeping the troubles to yourself

A

Encouraging Subordinates

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24
Q

Number of Steps to Create a Command Presence

A

8

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25
How many main reasons are there for lying and what are they?
4, Basic Needs, Affiliation, Self-Gratification, Self Esteem
26
Includes the processes of directing, overseeing, and controlling the activities of other individuals
Supervision
27
Refers to the administration and control of projects, programs, situations, or organizations.
Management
28
Employees are uncertain of their roles. As relationships grow, trust and respect develop and the members begin to see themselves as a part of group. Critical to team-development and the officer can have a significant effect.
Forming
29
Conflict may result at this stage. The most critical aspect of successful team development is to reduce the amount of time the group spends in this phase.
Storming
30
The group establishes and adheres to its own set of norms and values. The leader transitions to a member, allowing other members to share leadership responsibilities.
Norming
31
The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group accomplishes its objectives.
Performing
32
a process of giving motivational direction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback.
Coaching
33
a formal process which assists participants in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or other career problems.
Counseling
34
Used to better prepare individuals for their roles and responsibilities within the organization.
Mentoring
35
the process of controlling or directing available resources for the purpose of achieving a goal or objective through the use of authority or persuasion.
Managing
36
Create mission statement and set goals and objectives.
Planning
37
coordinating tasks and resources to accomplish the units goals
Organizing
38
Guiding, influencing, inspiring, and motivating employees. Proactive approach to managing.
Directing
39
Establishing and implementing the mechanisms to ensure that objectives are attained.
Controlling
40
Policies, procedures, and rules that are used frequently manage the day-to-day emergency and non-emergency unit activities.
Standing Plan
41
accomplish a specific objective. Usually intended to reach a stop within a short time period.
Single-Use Plans
42
Chart the course of the organization.
Strategic Plan
43
The Civil Rights Act of ______ (Year)
1964
44
Occurs when people hide their own emotions so that others do not know how they feel. The goal of this behavior is to appease others and avoid conflict at all costs.
Passive
45
How many steps are there to conflict resolution?
7: Recognize/Stop Action, Determine what and who, Determine violations if any, Determine solution, Determine whether individual or group solution, Implement resolution, Follow Up
46
What are the 4 reasons people break the rules?
Resentment, Ignorance, Boredom, Stress (RIBS)
47
_____ has been defined as “Training that Corrects”
Discipline
48
How many general purposes for interpersonal communication are there?
5: Learning, Playing, Helping, Relating, Influencing
49
Acquire knowledge or skills
Learn
50
Establish a new relationship or maintain an existing one
Relate
51
Control, Direct, or Manipulate Behavior
Influence
52
Create a diversion and gain pleasure or gratification, as with positive humor.
Play (entertain)
53
Attend to another person’s needs or console someone in a time of tragedy or loss.
Help
54
The face can show ___ basic emotions, they are:
7: Anger,contempt, Sadness, Disgust, Surprise, Fear, joy
55
Focusing on the speaker while ignoring any other distractions.
Attending
56
Decoding the message and assigning meaning to it involves: organizing the message in a logical pattern, interpreting non-verbal cues, asking questions to clarify.
Understanding
57
Retaining information in short term and then long term memory. Taking notes, repeating information back, using mnemonic devices.
Remembering
58
Critically analyzing information to determine how accurate it is, or separata fact from opinion.
Evaluating
59
Indicating to the sender that the message or information has been understood or requires more information.
Responding
60
What are the types of Speeches and presentation?
Persuasive, Informative, and Instructional.
61
How many steps are in a Persuasive speech?
5: Gain attention. Describe the problem, Present the best solution, Describe the best solution, Provide the steps to accomplish change.
62
How many steps are in the Speech and Presentation Preparation Process?
9: Select the topic, Determine the purpose, Generate Ideas, Develop the central idea, Gather supporting evidence, Organize the speech, Rehearse the speech, Deliver the speech, Evaluate the speech.
63
Types of Narrative Reports include
Justification, Recommendation, Progress, Progress and Justification, and Description.
64
What are the 5 C’s of Radio Communication?
Conciseness, Clarity, Confidence, Control, and Capability
65
Diversity Classifications
Age Gender Sexual Orientation Ethnicity Race Religion Politics Socioeconomic Level Education
66
The systematic control of an organization’s records to ensure quick access to information.
Records Management
67
______ are the basis for planning and justifying budget request.
Activity Records
68
The process of identifying and analyzing the exposure to hazards, selecting appropriate techniques to handle exposures, implementing chosen techniques, and monitoring the results of those techniques.
Risk Management
69
Assesses risks and hazards emergency responders face while performing operations.
Operational Risk Management Plan
70
Risks are identified in the community, within the organization, and within the operational setting at emergency and nonemergency incidents.
Risk Identification
71
Risks are evaluated on their probability and potential for negative consequences, including the anticipated severity and frequency of occurrence.
Risk Evaluation
72
A ranking of identified risks will be based on the degree of severity and frequency.
Establishment of Priorities for Action
73
Control measures will be identified for each significant risk
Risk Control Techniques
74
Monitoring of the risk control measures will be an ongoing process.
Risk Management Monitoring
75
Operational Risk Management contains a ____ step process.
5: Situational Awareness, Hazard Assessment, Hazard Control, Decision Point, Evaluation
76
A blueprint to reducing firefighter deaths and injuries.
Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives
77
Originally an email group, this website produces an independent newsletter that shares information about close call incidents that resulted in firefighter injuries and fatalities.
FirefighterCloseCalls.com
78
Designed to improve the safety, quality, and consistent delivery of Emergency Medical Services. Collects data from EMS practitioners in order to develop policies, procedures, and training programs to improve the safe deliver of EMS.
EVENT (EMS Voluntary Event Notification Tool
79
A not-for-profit think tank, consortium group with a mission to promote an EMS safety innovation, collaboration, research, knowledge transfer, education, and safety information dissemination.
EMS Safety Foundation
80
There are ___ Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives.
16
81
There are ___ IAFC Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Survival.
11
82
There are ___ IAFC Incident Commander’s Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Safety.
11
83
A voluntary, confidential, non-punitive and secure reporting system with the foal of improving firefighter safety. Cooperative effort between the IAFC and IAFF.
National Firefighter Near-Miss Reporting System
84
There are ___ Rules in the National Volunteer Fire Council’s Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Health.
10
85
Standard on Fire Department Occupational Health and Safety Program.
NFPA 1500
86
Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System.
NFPA 1561
87
Standard for Fire Department Safety Officer
NFPA 1521
88
Standard on Fire Department Infection Control Program
NFPA 1581
89
Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments
NFPA 1582
90
Standard on Rehabilitation Process for Members During Emergency Operations and Training Exercises.
NFPA 1584
91
Standard on Selection., Care, and Maintenance of Open-Circuit SCBA.
NFPA 1852
92
Respiratory Protection CFR
29 CFR 1910.134
93
Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications.
NFPA 1021
94
Standard for Fire Service Instructor Professional Qualifications.
1041
95
Standard for Providing Fire and Emergency Services to the Public.
NFPA 1201
96
___ Step Method of Instruction.
4: Preparation, Presentation, Application and Evaluation.
97
Standard on Water Supplies for Suburban and Rural Fire Fighting Requirements.
NFPA 1142
98
Uniform Fire Code.
NFPA 1
99
Standard on Types of Building Construction.
NFPA 220
100
The ____ is the single most important life safety item to be inspected.
Means of Egress
101
The means of Egress consist of ___ parts.
3: Access to the Exit, The Exit itself, and the Exit Discharge.
102
Life Safety Code
NFPA 101
103
Uniform Fire Code
NFPA 1
104
There are ___ contents-hazard classifications.
3: Low, Ordinary, High
105
National Fire Alarm Code.
NFPA 72
106
May be activated manually. Sensors that detect heat, smoke, or flame can activate them. They initiate an alarm signal only on the premises where they are installed. Primary purpose is to alert building occupants to a fire, secondary purpose is to alert passersby.
Local Alarm Systems
107
Used only in communities that have municipal alarm box systems. Installed within a building and connected directly to a municipal alarm box located on the street. When a fire activates the system, the system transmits a signal to the fire and emergency service organization.
Auxiliary Alarm Systems
108
Connected directly to the fire and emergency services organization communications/dispatch center. Transmit an alarm, usually over a leased telephone line. Commonly used in communities that are not served by a central station system. One of these may cover up to 5 buildings.
Remote Station Systems
109
Used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings, high-rise buildings, and groups of commonly owned buildings In a single location. Each building is protected by a separate system connected to a common receiving point. Receiving point must be remote from and hazardous operations.
Proprietary Systems
110
Receiving point is not on the protected premises, and the owner of the protected premises does not employ the person receiving the alarm. Alarm is received, the operator notifies the fire organization and a representative of the property owner/occupant.
Central Station System
111
Standard for the Installation of Stationary Fire Pumps for Fire Protection.
NFPA 20
112
Stationary Fire Pumps are almost always __________ pumps with a discharge capacity from ___ to ___gpm.
Electrically Driven Centrifugal Pumps, 500-4500gpm.
113
Standard for Installation, Maintenance, and use of Emergency Services Communications Systems.
NFPA 1221
114
Standard for the Installation of Standpipe and Hose Systems
NFPA 14
115
The _______ provided for a phase-out of Halons and banned their manufacture after _____.
Montreal Protocol of 1987, January 1, 1994
116
Inergen is a blend of what 3 naturally occurring gases?
Nitrogen, Argon, and Carbon Dioxide.
117
Extinguishers with a gross weight not exceeding ____ should be installed so that the top of the extinguishers is not more than ___ above the floor.
40lbs, 5'
118
Extinguishers with a weight greater than ___, except wheeled types, should be installed so that the top of the extinguishers is not more than ___ above the floor.
40lbs, 3.5'
119
Architectural Drawing showing the overall project layout of building areas, driveways, fences, fire hydrants, and landscape features; view is directly from above.
Plot Plan
120
Form of energy associated with the motion of atoms or molecules and capable of being transmitted through solid and fluid media by conduction, through fluid media by convection, and through empty space by radiation. – Heat
heat
121
Thermal or chemical decomposition of fuel because of heat, generally resulting in the lowered ignition temperature of the material.
Pyrolysis
122
The tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature. (also called Heat Stratification)
Thermal Layering
123
The interface of the hot and cooler gas layers.
Neutral Plane
124
Those who deliver services to the public or external customers
Line personnel
125
Those who provide support to the line personnel and internal of external customers
Staff personnel
126
Means that each person within an organization reports to one, and only one, designated authority
Unity of command
127
a critical variable influencing career success, personal achievement, and life satisfaction.
Emotional intelligence
128
Backdraft occurs in the ______ stage.
decay
129
Heat is transferred from one object to another by:
conduction, convection, radiatiion
130
Occur when a mixture of unburned fuel gases and oxygen comes in contact with an ignition source.
Smoke explosions
131
In single family residential structures, the square footage of houses increased over ____ between 1972 and 2008.
150%
132
Modern trusses are generally spaced ____ apart.
24"
133
For steel trusses, ________ is the critical temperature of steel.
1000 degrees
134
Exigent circumstances
People in imminent danger Evidence may face imminent destruction A suspect may escape
135
NFPA 20 requires stationary fire pumps to run for at least ___ per week.
30 min
136
__________ systems are designed to protect and area in an occupancy.
Pre-engineered
137
____________ systems are specifically calculated and constructed for a particular occupancy.
Engineered
138
There are 2 main types of dry chemical systems:
local applications and total flooding
139
Local application
vent hood
140
total flooding
paint booth
141
Halons and halogenated extinguishing agents contain atoms from one of the halogen series of chemical elements:
fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine Class B & C fires
142
Halon 1211
Portable extinguishers
143
Halon 1301
fixed systems
144
FM-200
Alternative to Halon 1301
145
NFPA 11
Standard on foam
146
ATC foam
Polar solvents
147
Fire extinguishers should never be less than ____ from the floor.
4"
148
Noncombustible barriers or dividers hung from the ceiling in large open areas that are designed to minimize the mushrooming effect of heat and smoke and impede flow of heat.
Draft curtains (curtain boards)
149
Release heat and smoke to the outside from square or rectangular structures that penetrate a buildings roof
Monitors
150
President Directive __ requires the use of ______.
5 NIMS
151
The environment within a structural fire can exceed ____ within 3-4 minutes with a potential for flashover to occur within __ minutes.
500 degrees 5 min
152
NFPA 1710
2 out RIC
153
Upper human survivability limit
212 degrees
154
Possible warning signs that sexual harassment is occurring:
Lack of engagement Avoidance of certain coworkers Absenteeism Changes in behavior
155
Absorption rates increase ___ percent for every 5 degree rise in temperature. Areas with high absorption rate include the groin, jaw, forehead, and back
400 percent