Maryland Psych Jurisprudence Flashcards

Question

Does an applicant have to submit to a criminal history records check?

Answer 1

Yes. (18-302.1)

Answer 2

i- National examination in the practice of psychology (EPPP) ii- State jurisprudence exam

Answer 3

State jurisprudence exam

Answer 4

The Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository of the Dept of Public Safety and Correctional Services

Answer 5

1- Shall be confidential 2- May not be redisseminated 3-Shall be used only for the licensing purpose authorized by this title

Answer 6

1- Submit a verified application (which includes transcript) to the Board on the form required 2- Pay the application fee set by the Board 3-Submit to a criminal history check in accordance with 18-302.1

Answer 7

-The Board shall give exams at least once a year at times/place it determines. -Each qualified applicant shall be notified of the time and place -Board shall determine the subjects, scope, form, and passing score for examinations -Board may not limit the number of times exam can be take, so long as reexamination fee is paid

Answer 8

Electronically, unless specific request is made

Answer 9

i- age at which the crime was committed, ii- circumstances surrounding the crime, iii- length of time that has passed since the crime, iv- subsequent work history, v- employment and character references, vi- other evidence that demonstrates whether applicant poses a threat to public health or safety

Answer 10

When- at least 90 days before. How- last known electronic address (if returned or at request of licensee/registrant, first-class mail to the last known address).

Answer 11

1- Date on which the current license/registration expires 2- Date by which renewal application must be received for the renewal to be issued and mailed before expiration 3- The amount of the renewal fee

Answer 12

March 2019

Answer 13

-6 years after a renewal applicant submitted to a check -Every 6 years after initial renewal check

Answer 14

1- An application for inactive status on designated form. 2- Pays the inactive status fee

Answer 15

1- Complies with renewal requirements at the time individual changes from inactive to active. 2- Meets the continuing education requirements set by the Board

Answer 16

1- Meets the renewal requirement of 18-309 2- Pays a reinstatement fee set by the Board 3- Applies for reinstatement within 5 years of expiration

Answer 17

Meet the current requirements for obtaining a new license/registration

Answer 18

To protect the public interst

Answer 19

1- Ethical standards of psychologists published by APA 2- Professional character of psychological services

Answer 20

Only if the Board accepts the surrender.

Answer 21

18-313 (1) to (22) Maryland Psychologists Act

Answer 22

Impose a monetary penalty not exceeding $10,000

Answer 23

The General Fund of the State

Answer 24

1- Consented to submit to an examination if requested by the Board if reason to believe harm may be caused to persons while investigating an allegation; and 2- Waived any claim of privilege as to the testimony or examination reports of the examining psychologist or physician ## Footnote 13-314(b)

Answer 25

Administrative Procedure Act

Answer 26

1- Served personally or by certified mail, return receipt requested, bearing a USPS postmark 2- To the last known address of the individual 3- At least 10 days before the hearing

Answer 27

...issue subpoenas and administer oaths in connection with any investigation.

Answer 28

On petition of the Board, a court of competent jurisdiction may compel compliance with the subpoena.

Answer 29

The Board may hear and determine the matter.

Answer 30

Any person aggrieved by the final decision of the Board may petition for judicial review as allowed by the Administrative Procedure Act.

Answer 31

A decision of the Board to deny a license or registration, enforce a suspension of a license or registration for more than 1 year, or revoke a license or registration.

Answer 32

1- Reinstate a license/registration that has been revoked 2- Reduce the period of a suspension 3- Withdraw a reprimand ## Footnote MD Psych Act 18-317

Answer 33

1- The Board, 2-The Attorney General, in the name of the State, OR 3- A State's Attorney, in the name of the State.

Answer 34

1- Resides, OR 2- Engages in the acts sought to be enjoined

Answer 35

No, proof is not required under 18-317.1

Answer 36

1- Committee of the Board or MPA that is recognized by the Board and includes, but is not limited to psychologists 2- May function solely for the board or jointly representing another board(s) 3- Purpose: evaluates and provides assistance to any psychologist/indivdiual regulated by the Board, in need of treatment/rehabilitation for alcoholism, drug abuse, chemical dependency, or other physical/emotional/mental condition

Answer 37

Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact, or PsyPact

Answer 38

1- Regulate the day-to-day practice of telepsychology of psychologists across state boundaries 2- Regulate the temporary in-person, face-to-face practice of psychology by psychologist across state boundaries for 30 days within a calendar year 3- Authorize state psychological regulatory authoritories to afford legal recognition to psychologists licensed in another state

Answer 39

1- When a psychologist is licensed in both the home and receiving states 2- To permanent, in-person, face-to-face practice but does allow for temporary authorization to practice

Answer 40

1- Increase public access to professional psychological services 2-Enhance states' ability to protect the public's/client's/patient's health and safety 3- Encourage the cooperation of compact states in the areas of psychology licensure and regulation 4- Facilitate exchange of information between compact states regarding psych licensure, adverse action, and disciplinary history 5- Promote compliance with laws governing psych practice in each compact state 6- Invest all compact states with the authority to hold licensed psych accountable through mutual recognition of compact state licenses

Answer 41

18-3A-01 Article II

Answer 42

Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards

Answer 43

Certificate issued by ASPPB to standardize criteria for interjurisdictional telepsychology practice

Answer 44

Certificate issued by ASPPB that grants temporary authority to practice based on notification to the state psychology regulatory authority of intention to practice temporarily and verification of one's qualifications for such practice

Answer 45

Compact Privilege to Practice Telepsychology

Answer 46

Compact Temporary Authorization to Practice

Answer 47

No- must have a current, full, unrestricted license to practice in home state which is a compact state

Answer 48

Establishment of the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission

Answer 49

Joint public agency created and established by the compact states

Answer 50

PsyPact Rulemaking

Answer 51

A person authorized to practice psychology under this title. ## Footnote Health Occupations 18-101 to 502

Answer 52

Guilt of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to: -Fine not exceeding $10,000 OR -Imprisonment in jail not exceeding 1 year OR -Both

Answer 53

Subject to a civil fine of not more than $50,000 to be assessed by the Board in accordance with regulations adopted by the Board. Any penalties collected under this subsection is payed to the Fund.

Answer 54

"Maryland Psychologists Act"

Answer 55

Code of MD Administrative Regulations, Title 10 Maryland Dept of Health, Subtitle 36 Board of Examiners of Psychologists

Answer 56

Performing the psychological activities or services that are required training for completing the program in psychology.

Answer 57

The performance of both a State criminal history check by the Central Repository and a national criminal history check by the Federal Bureau of Investigation. Includes information regarding an applicant's: -arrests -charges -convictions -disposition of other pending criminal charges

Answer 58

Individual who has obtained doctoral degree is psychology, or completed all academic course requirements, and is gaining additional training/experience in a postdoctoral training program in psychology. Includes the term "resident."

Answer 59

a- Matriculated in a doctoral degree program in psychology b- Fulfilling program requirements by completing a predoctoral internship training program in psychology

Answer 60

A clinical, counseling, or school psychology program, or a combination thereof, or a respecialization program

Answer 61

a- Matriculated in a master's or doctoral degree program in psychology b- Fulfilling program requirements by gaining field or practicum experience

Answer 62

An organized post-baccalaureate program in psychology with identified faculty and training objectives

Answer 63

1- Includes answers to application questions, documentation of supervised professional experience, attestations of supervised professional experience submitted to the Board by the persons providing the references, official transcripts of all post-baccalaureate studies submitted to the Board by the educational institutions, EPPP score, criminal records check 2- Submitted to the Board and notarized 3- Accompanied by the required nonrefundable application fee via personal check, cashier's check or money order 4- If nonresident or not employed in MD, submit a statement to show the reasons for seeking licensure in MD

Answer 64

1- Includes application, official transcripts of all studies submitted to the Board, criminal history record check reports are received by the Board 2- Accompanied by the required nonrefundable application fee via personal check, cashier's check, or money order

Answer 65

Nor more than 15 business days after receipt of the application

Answer 66

1- Application has not been completed with 1 year of the date the application is submitted. 2- The applicant fails either the EPPP, if applicable, or the Maryland examination.

Answer 67

By notifying the Board in writing, by certified mail, within 60 days of receipt of the Board's decision and by: 1- Submitting new or additional evidence to verify or clarify qualifications; or 2- Requesting an informal hearing before the Board

Answer 68

Psychologist who holds an active license to practice psychology in good standing in another state and is certified by the ABPP or credentialed as a Health Service Psychologist by the National Register of Health Service Psychologists.

Answer 69

a- Proof of good standing as a licensed psychologist in another state b- Proof of certification by the ABPP or credentialing as an HSP by the National Register of Health Service Psychologists c- Passing score on the MD Jurisprudence Exam d- Criminal history records check e- Required nonrefundable application fee

Answer 70

A- Applicant for licensure shall have doctoral degree as defined in Health Occupations Article 18-101(c), Annotated Code of MD B- Applicant for registration as a psychology associate shall meet the educational requirement as defined in Health Occupations Article, 18-302(g), Annotated Code of MD

Answer 71

2 years, consisting of a minimum of 3250 hours

Answer 72

Professional Supervised Experience Required for Licensure - General

Answer 73

Regulation under which psychology associates accruing supervised professional experience toward licensure shall receive required amount of supervision

Answer 74

May be accrued in professional work in psychology using methods, principles, and procedures of psychology including (but not limited to): Teaching, Research, and I/O consultation

Answer 75

Pre-internship, Internship, Pre-doctoral post-internship, or Post-doctoral experiences

Answer 76

1- Up to 1500 hours toward the supervised professional experience 2- Occurs following completion of the first year of the doctoral program

Answer 77

Every 20 hours of experience shall include: a- At least 2 hours of regularly scheduled, formal, face-to-face individual supervision b- At least 2 hours of other learning activities (case conferences, seminars on applied issues, conducting co-therapy with a staff person including discussion of the case, or group supervision)

Answer 78

-Consistent of minimum 1750 hours -Be completed in 24 months -Be accredited by APA or CPA -A member program of APPIC -Part of an academic program approved or designated by APA, CPA, ASPPB/National Register AND includes an internship that is approved by the program's academic training director as meeting criteria for internship

Answer 79

1- Maximum of 1500 hours may be obtained this way 2- Shall be completed if applicant does not have 3250 pre-doctoral supervised experience

Answer 80

Description of supervision-to-experience hours, titles to use, documentation required, etc.

Answer 81

COMAR 10.36.01.04-04

Answer 82

Scaled score 500 on or after January 1, 2002 (73% before)

Answer 83

A- Student/intern/fellow may qualify for an exception to licensure while performing the activties and services of a supervised course of study in psychology (COMAR 10.36.01.07 (1) to (4) B- Limited Practice Reciprocity

Answer 84

Every two years Expires March 31st, unless renewed

Answer 85

A license automatically expires when the psychologist fails to meet the renewal requirements by March 31

Answer 86

Psychologist in good standing may request inactive status for 2 years upon notification to the Board and payment of the required fee.

Answer 87

2 years, plus 2 year extension with payment of inactive status fee

Answer 88

a- completing an application for renewal b- paying the renewal fee c- verifying that CE requirements have been satisfied as set in COMAR 10.36.02 d- submitting to criminal history record check if on inactive status for 1 year or more

Answer 89

After 5 years have passed from the date of revocation

Answer 90

-Submitted to Secretary of Health -Includes: summary of the more important actions of the Board, relevant statistical and fiscal data, summary of concerns or anticipated future changes in the course of action of the Board

Answer 91

Any person. A copy of the Board's interpretation or decision shall be mailed to the petitioner.

Answer 92

Any authoring, editing, learning, presenting, program developing, reviewing, or teaching which meets the objectives of continuing education

Answer 93

Activity by an authorized sponsor

Answer 94

An individual or organization whose program are accepted by the Board as continuing education activity

Answer 95

a- Professional activities beyond that required for licensure/registration b- Relevant to psychological practice, education, or science c- Enable psychologist/psych associates to keep pace with emerging issues and technology d- Allow psychologist/psych associates to develop, maintain, and increase competencies in order to improve services to the public and enhance contributions to the profession.

Answer 96

Approximately 1 hour of continuing education activity, unless stated otherwise in 10.36.02.04

Answer 97

An activity: i- With 1+ instructors who are experts in the topic and impart knowledge or professional skills by a systematic presentation to participants; ii- That may be offered in person or in real time through electronic means; and, iii- Allows for interaction between the leader and the participants or among the participants. Includes: seminars, symposiums, and workshops

Answer 98

An activity requiring the study of print or electronic materials offered by approved sponsors approved for CE for independent or home study that is not a course.

Answer 99

A group of psychologists that meets in person, in a structured and organized manner, and discusses the clinical practice of psychology in order to broaden professional knowledge and expertise.

Answer 100

A 2-year period beginning on April 1 during which completion of a minimum number of CE hours is required to renew a license or registration by March 31 following the reporting period.

Answer 101

1- Maintain professional competency 2- Increase professional skills and knowledge 3- Prepare for new roles or responsibilities in the practice of psychology 4- Expands the science of psychological theory, method, or practice

Answer 102

1- Business meetings 2- Professional committee meetings 3- Presentation and publications primarily intended for a lay audience

Answer 103

A minimum of 40 CE hours with a: 1- Maximum of 20 CE hours in independent study 2- Minimum of 3 CE hours in the following content areas: a- laws pertaining to the practice of psychology, ethics/professional conduct in the practice of psychology; OR managing risks associated with the practice of psychology 3- Minimum of CE hours in activities designed to enhance competence in the provision of psychological services to culturally diverse populations 4- If the psychologist supervised psychology associates during the reporting period, minimum of 3 CE hours in activities designed to enhance competence in the provision of clinical supervision.

Answer 104

A minimum of 20 CE hours during each reporting period with a: 1- Maximum of 10 Ce hours in independent study; 2- Minimum of 3 CE hours in the following content areas: a- laws pertaining to the practice of psychology, ethics/professional conduct in the practice of psychology; OR managing risks associated with the practice of psychology 3- Minimum of CE hours in activities designed to enhance competence in the provision of psychological services to culturally diverse populations

Answer 105

Reporting period ends March 31 of odd years

Answer 106

Reporting period ends March 31 of even years

Answer 107

Yes, 20 CE hours are required.

Answer 108

Yes, 10 CE hours

Answer 109

Within 10 days

Answer 110

a- Proof of completion of continuing education activities; b- A completed continuing education reporting form; and c- Any additional info that may be requested by the Board

Answer 111

a- Certificates of attendance b-Transcripts or course syllabi c- Reprints of publications d- Test results e- Any other proof of completion acceptable to the board

Answer 112

a- Pass an examination on the activity; and b- Be awarded a certificate of completion

Answer 113

Psychologists: 30 hours Psych Associates: 15 hours

Answer 114

First 3 authors

Answer 115

Psychologist: 20 hours Psych Associate: 10 hours

Answer 116

Psychologist: 15 hours Psych Associate: 8 hours

Answer 117

Psychologist: 15 hours Psych Associate: 8 hours

Answer 118

Psychologist: 15 hours Psych Associate: 8 hours

Answer 119

Psychologist: 15 hours Psych Associate: 9 hours (3 CE hours may be earned for each hour of presentation)

Answer 120

Psychologist: 15 hours Psych Associates: 9 hours (3 CE hours per poster)

Answer 121

Licensed psychologist

Answer 122

-1 CE for 7 to 13 hours -2 CE for 14 to 20 hours -3 CE for 21 to 27 hours -4 CE for 28+ hours 4 CE hours is the maximum

Answer 123

A- American Psychological Association B- Association for Psychological Science C- American Medical Association D- National Association of Social Workers E- National Association of School Psychologists F- Maryland Department of Health (MDH) G- National Institutes of Health H- Accredited academic institutions

Answer 124

...deny a renewal application. (Board to notify by certified mail)

Answer 125

1- In writing 2- Received by the Board within 30 days of notification of denial

Answer 126

Less than one year remaining in reporting period: a- Documentation of at least 20 CE hours (no more than 10 independent/home study), b- Pay renewal. More than 1 year remaining in reporting period: a- Documentation of at least 20 CE hours (no more than 10 independent/home study), b- Complete remaining 20 CE hours by end of the reporting period (no more than 10 independent/home study), c- Pay renewal fee

Answer 127

Provide appropriate level of CEs and pay reinstatement and renewal fees

Answer 128

Reapply for licensure/registration

Answer 129

Sent by the Chairman of the Board at least 30 days before the hearing. Notice will include date, time, and place of hearing, as well as issues or charge involved in the proceedings.

Answer 130

Yes- they have the right to appear in person, alone, or by or with counsel.

Answer 131

Attempt to settle the case.

Answer 132

a- Delineating the issues b- Stipulating to facts, laws, and other matters, c- Arranging a schedule, and d- Arranging for the submission of names of witnesses to be called and the subject matter of testimony to be presented in the hearing

Answer 133

By written request served on the other party and filed with the Board or the Office of Administrative Hearings, a party may require another party to produce, within 15 days: 1- A list of witnesses to be called, 2- Copies of documents intended to be produced at the hearing, OR 3- Both

Answer 134

Each party shall provide to the other party not later than 15 days before the prehearing conference, if scheduled, or 45 days before the scheduled hearing date, whichever is earlier: a- The name and CV of any expert witnesses that will testify at the hearing b- Detailed written report summarizing the expert's testimony, which includes the opinion offered and the factual basis and reasons underlying the opinion

Answer 135

1- After the prehearing conference (is scheduled) 2- Later than 15 days before the hearing, if no prehearing conference (Absent unforeseen circumstances)

Answer 136

All motions accompanied by memorandum of points and authorities- at least 15 working days before the hearing. Responses to motions filed with the Board at least 10 working days before the hearing. Board may entertain motions on the day of the hearing, at its discretion

Answer 137

10.36.03.05

Answer 138

Repealed March 13, 1995

Answer 139

Individual, couple, family, group, business, agency, school, organization, or association that a psychologist/psych associate provides, or has provided, with professional services

Answer 140

Individual concurrently participating in two or more roles with another

Answer 141

Any oral, printed, or electronic communication or announcement made by or on behalf of a psychologist, psychology associate, or applicant, and directed to another individual or group

Answer 142

Acts engaged in with or without clothing involving: a-Genital contact; b-Nongenital contact with hips, loin, thigh, buttocks, or breasts; c- Exposure or observation of genitals or nude portions of a body involving breasts, buttocks, or genitals; d- Other behaviors engaged in for the purpose of sexual arousal or sexual gratification

Answer 143

Psychologist and psychology associate are jointly responsible

Answer 144

Within 60 days (in writing)

Answer 145

a- Knowingly/willfully mess with medical record or billing record or other inforamtion about a patient in an effort to conceal inforamtion from use as evidence in an administrative, civil, or ciminal proceeding b- Intimidate or influence an individual to withhold or change testimony in hearings or proceedings c- Hinder, prevent, or otherwise delay an individual from making information available to the Board d- Take credit for work the psychologist/psych associated has not actually performed or supervised

Answer 146

1- Limit practice to areas of competence by which proficiency has been gained through education/training/experience. 2- Acquire the special education and training needed to address cultural difference of special populations. 3- Avoid unfair discrimination on age, gender, race, ethnicity, culture, national origin, disability, socioeconomic status, or other basis proscribed by law. 4- Use interventions and assessment techniques only when the psychologist or psych associate knows that the circumstances are appropriate applications of those interventions/techniques, supported by reliability, validation, standardization, and outcome studies. 5- Maintain competence by meeting requirements of continuing education 6- Engage in ongoing consultation with other psychologist, psychology associates, or relevant professionals and seek appropriate education, training, and education, when developing competence in a new service or technique. 7- Document and maintain appropriate records of professional and scientific work.

Answer 147

a- Undertake or continue a professional relationship with a client when the competence or objectivity of the psychologist or psych associate is or could reasonably be expected to be impaired due to: i- mental, emotional, physiological, pharmacological, substance abuse, or personal problems; or, ii- a present or previous familial, social, sexual, emotional, financial, supervisory, political, administrative, or legal relationship with the client or a person associated with or related ot the client, OR b- Engage in other relationships that could limit the psychologist's or psych associate's objectivity or create a conflict of interest or appearance of conflict of interest.

Answer 148

a- Represent accurately and objectively one's professional qualification, education, experience, and areas of competence b- Correct others who misrepresent professional qualification or affiliations c- Identify a paid advertisement as such

Answer 149

a- Misrepresent, directly or by implication, the affiliations or the purposes or characteristics of institutions and organizations with which one is affiliated b- Claim organizational membership in a manner that suggests specialized competence or qualifications that one does not have c- Make public statements that contain: i- false/fraudulent/misleading/deceptive statements; ii- partial disclosures or relevant facts that misrepresent, mislead, or deceive; iii- statement that create false or unjustified expectations of favorable results d- Solicit business or testimonial endorsements from clients who are vulnerable to undue influence

Answer 150

a- Obtained using appropriate language understandable to the client b- Vary forms and procedures to ensure client has capicity to consent, been provided with info concerning participation in the activity that might affect willingness to participate (including limits of confidentiality and monetary costs/reimbursements), aware of voluntary nature of participation, given the opportunity to ask questions and receive answers regarding the activity.

Answer 151

Make clear to the client: a- Nature of participation as well as costs and other obligations to be accepted by research participants b- Purpose and nature of any evaluations, treatment, or educational or training procedure c- All aspects of research including risk/consequences that will reasonably be expected to influence willingness to participate d- Right to withdraw from treatment/research at any time e- Notification that permission shall be given by client/student/research participant before the use of observation or electronic taping, recording, or filming procedures

Answer 152

a- The clarification of reasonable expectations b- Nature and purpose of testing, reports, and consultations c- Limits of confidentiality d- Specific info concerning fees, billing, and electronic services available in the payment of fees e- Psychotherapeutic schedules f- Process and conditions of termination of therapy

Answer 153

a- Perform evals/diagnostic services in a professional relationship when assessment data is indicated by the professional context; 2- Administer psych tests in keeping with accepted standards of practice and avoid use of obsolete measurement techniques; 3- Use appropriate or specialized assessment instruments when working with individuals from special populations; 4- Use appropriate scoring devices, norms, and standards in evaluating test protocols; 5- Select scoring and interpretive programs and services on the basis of evidence of the validity of the programs and procedures; 6- Report the results of assessment procedures by: a- using adequate interpretative aids or explanations, including deficiencies of the assessment norms for the individual assessed and any relevant reservations or qualification which affect the validity/reliability/other interpretation of results, and avoiding misuse of automated interpretive reports 7- Base recommendations or decisions on test results that are reasonably current and not obsolete 8- Supply a manual or other printed material that describes details of assessment when offering the assessment procedure or automated interpretation service to other professionals 9- Release test results only to patients/clients as appropriate

Answer 154

1- Release test protocols or raw data to persons not qualified to interpret and use the information appropriately (except as legally required) 2- Encourage or promote use of psych assessment techniques or computerized assessment and interpretation by unqualified persons 3- Reproduce materials or describe psych tests or assessment devices in popular publications, lectures, or public presentation in ways that might compromise their validity

Answer 155

1- Take steps to disclose to all parties involved conflicts of interest that arise in a manner consistent with applicable confidentiality arrangements 2- Make arrangement for another appropirate professional to deal with emergency needs of clients as appropriate during periods of anticipated absences from professional availability

Answer 156

1- Exploit or harm clients, colleagues, students, research participants, or others 2- Take actions that violate or diminish legal and civil rights of clients or others 3- Exploit the trust and dependency of clients, students, and subordinates 4- Allow personal, social, religious, organizational, financial, or political situations and pressures to lead to a misuse of their influence 5- Enter into a new nonpsychological, nonprofessional relationships with a former client that is considered exploitative dependent on, but not limited to: a- nature/duration/intensity of professional services rendered to the client, b- length of the professional relationships, c- length of time between termination of professional and initiation of nonprofessional relationships, d- mental stability of psychologist/psychology associate and former client, e- circumstances of termination, and f- likelihood of adverse impact on the client.

Answer 157

1- Engage in sexual intimacies with a current client 2- Engage in sexual intimacies with a former client for at least two years after end of professional services OR if even after two year the sexual relationship is exploitative 3- Engage in sexual intimacies with individuals known to be parents, guardians, spouses, domestic partners, seuxal partners, children, siblings of current client or for at least 2 years after end of pro services 4- Terminate a professional relationship with a client for the purpose of engaging in sexual intimacies with one of the individuals in #3 5- Engage in sexual behavior with a client in the context of a professional evaluation, treatment, procedure, or service to client, regardless of the setting 6- Engage in sexual behavior with a client under the pretext of diagnostic or therapeutic intent or benefit

Answer 158

1- Engage in sexual solicitation, physical advances, or verbal or nonverbal conduct that is sexual in nature 2- Engage in sexual harassment of the past or present clients, supervisees, research participants, or employees with deliberate or repeated comments, gestures, or physical contacts of a sexual nature, OR 3- Create a hostile workplace or educational environment by unwelcome and offensive behaviors that are sufficiently sever or intense to be abusive of a reasonable individual, including single or multiple acts

Answer 159

1- Provide psychological services for minor children or adult who has legal guardians only with appropriate authorization AND 2- Take special care to protect the interests of minors or clients who are unable to give voluntary, informed consent

Answer 160

1- Make or recommend referral to other professional, technical, or administrative resources if the referral is clearly in best interest of client 2- Terminate professoinal relationship in an appropriate manner, notify the client in writing of this termination, and assist the client in obtaining services from another professional if: a- it is reasonably clear the client is not benefiting from the relationship, b- a multiple relationship develops or is discovered, c- impaired competency or objectivity develops or is discovered, d- psychologist/psych associate has been threatened or otherwise endangered by the client/another person with whom the client has a relationship.

Answer 161

1- Maintain confidentiality 2- Discuss requirements and limitations of confidentiality at the beginning of professional relationship or at intake interview 3- Safeguard information obtained in clinical or consulting relationships or evaluative data obtained in the course of practice, teaching, research, or other professional services 4- Release mental health records or other confidential info only as permitted/required by law 5- Obtain written permission for electronic recording of interviews 6- Avoid undue invasion of privacy to ensure written and oral reports contain only data relevant to the purpose of evaluation 7- Treat assessment result or interpretation as confidential 8- Obtain written consent before presenting in any fashion identifying information, and disguise info when case reports or other confidential info are used as a basis for teaching or research

Answer 162

1- Clients shall be informed of limits 2- Clients below the age of minority or who have legal guardians shall be informed of limits of confidentiality with respect to communication with the professional in a manner that can be understood at the start of the professional relationship 3- Research participants shall be informed of limits of confidentiality during informed consent 4- Clients shall be informed by duty of the law to inform authorities of abuse and neglect of children and vulnerable adults

Answer 163

1- Keep records of patient's condition and assessment results 2- Maintain clinical records of informed consent, presenting problems, diagnosis, fee arrangements, dates and substance of each billed service, original test data with results and other evaluative material, and result of any formal consultations with other professionals 3- Make provision for maintaining confidentiality in storage and disposal of written and electronic records 4- Maintained professional records for period consistent with State and federal laws 5- Limit access to client records and all working in practice comply with requirements of confidentiality of client material 6- Provide evaluations or treatment reports within a reasonable time consistent with state and federal laws when requested by client, insurance carrier, court, institution, or other authorized health provider

Answer 164

Wall certificate - $50 Wallet card - $30

Answer 165

Application fees are nonrefundable Exam fees shall be refunded if the request to cancel an exam is received in writing 2 weeks before exam date

Answer 166

MHCC assesses a fee for health care professionals which the applicant shall pay at the time of license renewal as specified in COMAR 10.25.02

Answer 167

Provision of psychological services through direct client contact at least 26 hours per week

Answer 168

A psychologist licensed in MD with at least 2 years post-licensure experience who supervises a registered psychology associate

Answer 169

i- Ensure competent supervision of a registered psychology associate in areas outside the area of expertise of the supervisor OR ii- Provide temporary supervision when the supervisor is unavailable

Answer 170

a- One hour or more per week for a registered psychology associate who has earned a doctoral degree in psychology b- Two hours or more per week for a registered psych associate who has been admitted to candidacy for a doctoral degree in clinical/counseling/school psychology or education w/ field of specialization in psychology/counseling psychology and completed at least 3 years post grad in psych and passed preliminary doctoral exams c- Three hours or more per week for all other registered psychology associates

Answer 171

1 hours supervision for every 5 hours of evaluation/testing

Answer 172

a- By one-half for a registered psychology associate who has had 3 years full-time experience, or its equivalent, as a psychology associate b- Proportionately for a psych associate who provides services less than full-time

Answer 173

a- Provided to a psych associate at a face-to-face meeting, which may include videoconferencing, unless granted an exemption by the Board; and b- Exclusive of supervision on administrative issues

Answer 174

If a supervisor is not practicing at the same site as the psych associate

Answer 175

1- Shall be available for emergency consultation and direction of a psych associate, and for client management. 2- May supervise a maximum of five psych associates 3- May not engage in supervision that would constitute a multiple relationship 4- Shall take responsibility for all services provided by psych associate 5- Shall comply with additional continuing education requirements for supervisors set forth in COMAR 10.36.02

Answer 176

"Registered Psychology Associate under the supervision of a licensed psychologist"

Answer 177

1- All clients shall be informed of the supervision arrangement and implications for insurance reimbursement and confidentiality 2- Inform all those billed for service by the psych associate that the psych associate provided services under supervision 3- Psych associate may not engage in or give the appearance of practicing psychology independently of the supervisor

Answer 178

1- Dates and duration of supervisory sessions 2- Client names or other ID for all cases 3- Outcome of each case reviewed 4- Signatures of both supervisor and psych associate 5- Reason for any delegation of supervisory resposibility

Answer 179

At least 5 years

Answer 180

a- Evaluations b-Authorizations for release c-Treatment plans d- Report

Answer 181

At least 5 years and will include 1- Date and time of visit 2- Site location 3- Any issues or concerns relating to the registered psych associate's provision of services at the site

Answer 182

List of all psych associates supervised including beginning and ending dates for each psych associate 1- supervised during the previous licensure period and 2- currently being supervised

Answer 183

Name and license number of any supervisors who provided supervision to the registered psych associate 1- during the previous registration period and 2- during the present registration period

Answer 184

Disciplinary Sanctions, Monetary Penalties, and Civil Fines

Answer 185

Monetary penalty

Answer 186

Formal disciplinary action against a license such as a reprimand, probation, suspension, or revocation

Answer 187

Includes 27 violations and recommended minimum sanctions, maximum sanctions, minimum penalties, and maximum penalties If guilty of multiple violations, the higher penalty/sanction shall control

Answer 188

a- lack of prior disciplinary record b-self-reported the violation to the Board c-full and voluntary admissions of misconduct to the Board and cooperation during Board proceedings d-Implementation of remedial measures to correct or mitigate harm arising from the misconduct e- Timely good-faith effort to make restitution or to rectify consequences of misconduct f- Evidence of rehabilitation or rehabilitative potential g- Absence of premeditation to commit the misconduct h- Absence of potential harm to public or adverse impact i- conduct as an isolated incident and not likely to recur

Answer 189

a- previous criminal or administrative disciplinary history b-violation committed deliberately or with gross negligence or recklessness c-violation had the potential for, or caused, serious patient or public harm d- part of a pattern of detrimental conduct e- motivated to perform violation for financial gain f- vulnerability of patient(s) g- licensee/registrant lacked insight into wrongfulness of the conduct h- committed violation under guise of treatment i- previous attempts at rehabilitation were unsuccessful

Answer 190

No, it does not automatically stay payment of a penalty

Answer 191

1- May not restore, reinstate, or renew license/registration until penalty has been paid in full 2- May refer all cases of delinquent payment to the Central Collection Unit of the Dept of Budget and Management

Answer 192

$100 per day of practice past the expiration date

Answer 193

No less than $5,000 and no more than $50,000, dependent on: a- extent to which financial benefit was derived from unauthorized practice b- willingness of the unauthorized practice c- actual or potential harm caused by the unauthorized practice d- length of time in which the individual engaged in the unauthorized practice

Answer 194

Individual younger than 18 years old

Answer 195

An assessment performed by a psychologist in order to render findings and recommendations regarding custody or visitation that are in the best interest of a child

Answer 196

A proceeding in which legal custody, physical custody, or visitation with respect to a child is an issue

Answer 197

1-child and adult development/psychopathology 2- Family dynamics and psychopathology, including impact of divorce 3- MD law governing divorce, child custody proceedings, child abuse/neglect, and family violence 4- Performing psychological assessment of children, adult, and families

Answer 198

a- Parenting skills and capacities of the adults b- The child's psychological functioning and developmental needs

Answer 199

a- Individually interviewing and assessing each party and each child (if age appropriate) b-Observing the interactions of the child with each parental figure in respective households (whenever possible) c- Additional relevant information such as: third-party interview, medical records, school record, and legal documents

Answer 200

a- Unavailability of information b- Lack of cooperation of the parties c- Lack of compliance with court orders d- Inconclusive assessment data

Answer 201

Use of interactive audio, video, or other telecommunications or electronic media by a psychologist or psychology associate who engages in the practice of psychology at a location other than the location of the client

Answer 202

i- audio-only telephone conversation between provider and client ii- e-mail message between provider and client iii- fax between provider and client iv- text message or other type of message sent between provider and client by sms or multimedia messaging service

Answer 203

Both in MD if provider licensed/registered in MD (and no PsyPact)

Answer 204

1- Psychologist's/Psych Associate's name 2- Location 3- License/Registration number 4- Contact information

Answer 205

1- The client's diagnosis, symptoms, medical/psychological history, and preference for receiving services via telepsychology 2- Nature of services to be provided, including anticipated benefits, risks, and constraints resulting from their delivery via telepsychology Client evaluation shall take place at an initial in-person session, unless documentation in the record as to why could not be in person

Answer 206

If applicant is delinquent, as noted by the Office of the Comptroller of MD Dept of Labor: 1- Notice will be sent by the Board to renewal applicant identifying the deliquency 2- Applicant for renewal has 30 days to correct or before current license/registration expires correct (whichever is later), submitting verification to the Board If not verification is received, the Board shall deny the renewal license and inform the renewal applicant in writing that the renewal license has been denied

Answer 207

No, an individual is not civilly liable for giving information to the Board or participating in its activities

Answer 208

A procedure used by a hospital, related institution, or HMO to ensure the truth and accuracy of objective verifiable info by a physician who is applying for practices privileges, entering into contract, or seeking employment with a hospital, related institution, or HMO

Answer 209

No, Health Occupations Code 14-501 (a)-(d) defines and establishes that a qualified organization can provide this information, but does not prohibit a hospital, related institution, or HMO from using its own primary source verification procedure.

Answer 210

All persons are entitled to have access to information about the affairs of government and official acts of public officials and employees

Answer 211

A custodian shall permit inspection of the part of a public record that gives: i- name of the licensee ii- business address of the licensee (or home address if business not available) iii- business telephone number of the licensee iv- educational and occupational background of the licensee v- professional qualifications of the licensee vi- any orders and findings that result from formal disciplinary actions vii- any evidence provided to the custodian to meet requirements of statute as to financial responsibility

Answer 212

A custodian may deny inspection of test questions, scoring keys, and other examination information that relates to the administration of licenses, employment, or academic matters After examination given and graded, a person in interest may be permitted to inspect the examination and results, but is not permitted to copy or otherwise reproduce the examination

Answer 213

If the policy , contract, certificate for reimbursement for a service within the lawful scope of practice of a licensed psychologist, the insured or any other person covered is entitled to reimbursement for the service whether it was performed by a physician or licensed psychologist

Answer 214

1- Spouse 2- Child 3- Child's spouse 4- Parent 5- Spouse's parent 6- Sibling 7- Sibling's spouse

Answer 215

-Any referral of a patient for health care services -Includes: i- Forwarding a patient by one health care practitioner to another, or to a health care entity outside the health care practitioner's office or group practice; OR ii- Request or establishment by a health care practitioner of a plan of care for the provision of health care services outside the health care practitioner's office or group practice

Answer 216

1- to a health care entity in which the health care practitioner or practitioner in combo with immediate family owns a beneficial interest 2- Practitioner's immediate family owns a beneficial interest of 3% of greater 3- In which health care practitioner, immediate family, or combination has a compensation arrangement

Answer 217

1- Provide a written statement (unless made orally by phone) that i- discloses the existence of the ownership of the beneficial interest or compensation arrangement; ii- States patient may choose to obtain health care service form another health care entity; and iii- Requires patient to acknowledge in writing receipt of the statement (which shall be placed in medical record)

Answer 218

- Guilty of a misdemeanor - And, on conviction, is subject to a fine not exceeding $5,000.00

Answer 219

Offender to pay back any direct payments

Answer 220

Offender may not submit or resubmit denied claims or bills for services to third-party payor or individual in receipt of service

Answer 221

1- A member or a health care provider may file a compliant with the Commissioner without first filing with a carrier if sufficient information and supporting documentation demonstrates a compelling reason to do so (the definition of which shall be defined by the Commissioner) 2- A member or health care provider may file complaint with the Commissioner if has not received a grievance decision from the carrier on or before the 30th working day on which the grievance is filed 3- Commissioner shall notify the carrier that is the subject of the complaint within 5 working days after the date the complaint is filed with the Commissioner

Answer 222

1- Communications relating to diagnosis or treatment of the patient 2- Any information that by its nature would show the existence of a medical record of the diagnosis or treatment

Answer 223

1- Disclosure necessary for purposes of placing patient in a facility for mental illness 2- A judge finds that the patient, after being informed there will be no privilege, makes communications in the course of examination ordered by course and issue at trial involves their mental/emotional disorder 3- In civil or criminal proceedings i- the patient introduced own mental condition as an element of his claim or defense; OR ii- after patient death, mental condition is introduced by any party claiming or defending through or as a beneficiary of the patient 4- Patient, authorized rep, or personal rep makes a claim against the psychiatrist or licensed psychologist for malpractice 5- Related to civil or criminal proceedings under defective delinquency proceedings 6- Patient (or in death/disability authorized or rep) waives privilege of making claim or bringing suit on a policy of insurance on life, health, or physical condition

Answer 224

Ultimate issues, including insanity, competency to stand trial, and matters within the scope of that psychologist's special knowledge, in any case in any court or in any administrative hearing

Answer 225

...the mental health care provider or administrator knew of the patient's propensity for violence and patient indicated to the provider/administrator, by speech, conduct, or writing, of the patient's intention to inflict imminent physical injury upon a specified victim or group of victims

Answer 226

i- Seek civil commitment of the patient ii- Formulate a diagnostic impression and establish and undertake a documented treatment plan calculated to eliminate the possibility that patient will carry out threat iii- Inform appropirate law enforcement agency and, if feasible, specified victim(s) of: 1- nature of threat, 2- identity of patient making the threat, and 3- identity of the specified victim(s)

Answer 227

a- Minor is married or is the parent of a child b- In judgment of attending physician life/health of minor would be affected adversely by delaying treatment to obtain consent from another individual c- Treatment for or advice about drug abuse, alcoholism, venereal disease, pregnancy, contraception other than sterilization, physical exam and treatment of injuries from alleged rape/sexual offense, physical exam to obtain evidence of alleged rapes/sexual offense, and initial medical screening/physical exam on and after admission of the minor into a detention center

Answer 228

capacity to refuse treatment for drug abuse or alcoholism in an inpatient alcohol or drug abuse treatment program for which a parent or guardian has given consent

Answer 229

Information may, but need not, be given to a parent, guardian, or custodian of the minor or the spouse of the parent about the treatment needed by the minor or provided to the minor, except information about an abortion

Answer 230

16 (old) OR 12 (2023 legislative session update) - does not include ability to consent for medication if under 16

Answer 231

ability to refuse consultation, diagnosis, or treatment for a mental or emotional disorder for which a parent, guardian, or custodian of the minor has given consent

Answer 232

Physical or mental injury of a child by any parent, person providing care/supervision, or family member undercircumstances that indicates the child's health or welfare is harmed or at substantial risk of being harmed; or, sexual abuse of a child whether physical injuries are sustained or not

Answer 233

Any component of the Department's confidential computerized database that contains info regarding child abuse/neglect investigations (exclusive of local department case file)

Answer 234

Any individual under the age of 18 years

Answer 235

Any professional employee of any correctional, public, parochial or private educational, health, juvenile service, social or social service agency, institution, or licensed facility. Includes: teacher, counselor, social worker, caseworker, and any probation or parole officer

Answer 236

A relative by blood, adoption, or marriage of a child

Answer 237

The location: i- in which the child resides, 2- where the abuse or neglect is alleged to have taken place, or 3- where the person suspected of abuse or neglect resides

Answer 238

A person who lives with, or is a regular presence in, a home of a child at the time of the alleged abuse or neglect

Answer 239

The name of: 1- child 2- a member of the household of the child 3- a parent or legal guardian of the child OR 4- an individual suspected of being responsible for abuse or neglect of the child

Answer 240

A finding there is credible evidence, which has not been satisfactorily refuted, that abuse, neglect, or sexual abuse did occur

Answer 241

A State, county, or municipal police department, bureau, or agency. Includes: a State, county, or municipal police department or agency; a sheriff's office; a State's Attorney's office; and, the Attorney General's office

Answer 242

Department that has jurisdiction in the county: 1- where the allegedly abused/neglected child/vulnerable adult lives OR 2- if different, where the abuse/neglect is alleged to have taken place

Answer 243

The observable, identifiable, and substantial impairment of a child's mental or psychological ability to function

Answer 244

Leaving a child unattended or other failure to give proper care and attention to a child under circumstances that indicate: 1- the child's health or welfare is harmed or placed at substantial risk or harm OR 2- mental injury to the child or substantial risk of mental injury

Answer 245

An allegation of abuse or neglect

Answer 246

A finding that abuse, neglect, or sexual abuse did not occur

Answer 247

Any act that involves sexual molestation or exploitation of a child by caretaker, or household or family member. Includes: i- incest, rape, or sexual offense in any degree; ii- sodomy; and iii- unnatural or perverted sexual practices

Answer 248

A finding that there is an insufficient amount of evidence to support a finding of indicated or ruled out.

Answer 249

Health practitioner, police officer, educator, or human service worker

Answer 250

If reason to believe child has been subject to abuse or neglect, shall notify local department/agency and, if appropriate, notify head of organization for which the individual is a staff member

Answer 251

Oral- as soon as possible to local department Written- within 48 hours of contact/examination/attention/treatment, to local department and copy to local State's Attorney (if suspected subject of abuse)

Answer 252

1- Name, age, home address of the child 2- Name and home address of parent/person responsible for child's care 3- Whereabouts of the child 4- Nature and extent of the abuse or neglect 5- Any other info to determine i- cause of suspected abuse/neglect and ii- identity of any individual responsible for the abuse/neglect

Answer 253

Within 24 hours after receiving report

Answer 254

Within 5 days of receiving the report

Answer 255

1- See the child 2- Attempt to have an on-site interview with the child's caretaker 3- Decide on safety of the child, wherever the child is, and of other children in the household 4- Decide on the safety of other children in the care or custody of the alleged abuser

Answer 256

1- a determination of the nature, extent, and cause of the abuse or neglect, if any 2- If mental injury suspected, an assessment by two of the following- a licensed physician, licensed psychologist, licensed social worker 3- If abuse/neglect is verified- i- determination of who is responsible for abuse/neglect; ii- determination of name/age/condition of any other children in household; iii- an evaluation of the parents and home environment; iv- determination of any other pertinent facts/matters; v- determination of needed services

Answer 257

i- include appropriate techniques to expedite validation of sexual abuse complaints ii- include investigation techniques to: 1- decrease potential for physical harm to the child and 2- decrease any trauma experience by the child in the investigation and prosecution of the case iii- establish an ongoing training program for personnel involved in the investigation or prosecution of sexual abuse cases

Answer 258

Preliminary findings: reported to local state's attorney within 10 days of first notice of suspected abuse Completion: To the extent possible- investigation shall be completed with 10 days of receipt of first notice. If an investigation is not completed within 30 days it shall be completed within 60 days of receipt of the first notice of suspected abuse/neglect Written report of findings submitted to local state's attorney within 5 days of completion of investigation

Answer 259

Local (MD) department shall promptly: forward the report to the appropriate corresponding agency outside of MD, cooperate with the out-of-state agency investigating the report, and if deemed appropriate by local department interview child to determine safety and provide services to child/family

Answer 260

Yes, in addition to a physician, psychiatrist, or other professional qualified person.

Answer 261

1- Individual 16+ years 2-Parent/Guardian 3- Psychiatrist/Psychologist (with parent/guardian consent) 4- Local Department of Social Services that has guardianship of child/adolescent 5- DOE or local education agency (with consent of parent/guardian) 6- DJS when has custody/guardianship 7- Circuit court when sitting as juvenile court

Answer 262

Formal, written application to the Director and is on form required by the Administration

Answer 263

1- Under 18 years 2- Has a mental disorder 3- Requires residential services 4- Needs 24 hours supervision 5- Need to receive treatment for mental disorder 6- There is no less restrictive form of treatment

Answer 264

1- Determine if child/adolescent meet requirements for placement 2- If so- i- approve the application and ii- determine the date of placement

Answer 265

Sustaining of any physical injury as a result of cruel or inhumane treatment as as a result of a malicious act by any person.

Answer 266

Not a minor who is 1- unable to manage property, requires a guardian OR 2- unable to provide for daily needs to protect health/safety, requires a guardian

Answer 267

Any action which involves the misuse of a vulnerable adult's funds, property, or person

Answer 268

Does mean: willful deprivation of a vulnerable adult of adequate food, clothing, essential medical treatment, or rehabilitative therapy, shelter, or supervision

Answer 269

Providing of nonmedical remedial care and treatment for the healing of injury or disease, with the consent of the vulnerable adult, recognized by State law instead of medical treatment

Answer 270

Adult public guardianship review board

Answer 271

The inability of a vulnerable adult to provide self with the services: 1- that are necessary for own physical and mental health AND 2- the absence of which impairs or threatens their well-being

Answer 272

An adult who lacks the physical or mental capacity to provide for the adult's daily needs

Answer 273

With needed services for health, safety, and welfare

Answer 274

1- Patient in a mental health facility 2- Patient in a facility for individuals with ID 3- Patient in a nursing home 4- Patient in a hospital

Answer 275

Health practitioners, police officer, or human service workers based on suspicion of abuse/neglect (any individual may file a report, but is not mandated)

Answer 276

To local department as soon as possible either by telephone, direct communication, or in writing.

Answer 277

1- Demographic info of alleged vulnerable adult 2- Demographic of caretaker 3- Whereabouts of alleged vulnerable adult 4- Nature of alleged vulnerable adult's incapacity 5- Nature/extent of abuse/neglect/self-neglect/exploitation (details) 6- Any other info to help determine cause and identity of person responsible

Answer 278

1- The person consents 2- The court orders disclosure

Answer 279

Submitted signed and verified certificates of competency from the following health care professionals who have examined the disabled person: i- Two licensed physicians ii- One licensed physician and either one licensed psychologist OR one licensed certified social worker-clinical At least one of the examinations/evaluations by above professionals shall occur within 21 days before filing the petition

Answer 280

1- Name, address, qualifications of the person who performed the examination/evaluation 2- Brief history of the person's involvement with the disabled person 3- Date of exam/eval 4- Person's opinion as to A- cause/nature/extent/probable duration of disability; B- whether institutional care is required; and C- whether disabled person has sufficient mental capacity to understand the nature of and consent to the appointment of a guardian

Answer 281

A certificate from the Secretary of that Department or an authorized rep of the Secretary stating the person is "rated as disabled" by the Department.

Answer 282

1- In writing 2- Date 3- On appropriate facility form 4- Relationship of the applicant to the individual for whom admission is sought 5- Signed by the applicant 6- Accompanied by certificates from 1 doctor and 1 psychologist, or two doctors 7- Any other information needed

Answer 283

i- a diagnosis of a mental disorder ii- an opinion that the individual needs inpatient care or treatment iii- an opinion that admission to a facility or VA hospital is needed for the protection of the individual or another

Answer 284

1- More than one week before the certificate is signed OR 2- More than 30 days before the facility/VA hospital receives the application for admission

Answer 285

1- Has a financial interest in facility being sought OR 2- Related to the individual by blood or marriage

Answer 286

The behavioral or other symptoms that indicate: i- To a lay petitioner, a clear disturbance in the mental functioning of another individual; and, ii- To the following health professional doing an examination, at least one mental disorder that is described in the current DSM (physical, psychologist, clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, clinical nurse specialist in psychiatric and mental health nursing, psychiatric nurse practitioner, or licensed clinical marriage and family therapist)

Answer 287

1- Be signed and verified by the petitioner 2- State petitioner's name, address, and home/work telephone numbers 3- State the emergency evaluee's name and description 4- State the address of emergency evaluee and name/address of spouse, child, parent, or other relative or any other individual who is interested in the emergency evaluee 5- If the petitioner is an authorized petitioner (health care worker), include license number 6- Description of behavior and statements, or any other info leading to believe evaluee has a mental disorder or presents a danger to life/safety of self or others 7- Other facts that support the need for an emergency evaluation

Answer 288

1- they may be required to appear in court 2- they make the statements under penalty of perjury

Answer 289

Health care worker: to a peace officer Lay person: present petition to the court for immediate review

Answer 290

1- The court shall endorse if there is probable cause. 2- If the court does not find probable cause, the court will indicate that on the petition and no further action may be taken under the petition.

Answer 291

Don't knowingly or willingly destroy or mess up shit in a medical record! Penalty for doing so is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction subject to a fine not exceeding $5000 or imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or both (destroy, damage, alter, obliterate, or otherwise obscure a medical record, hospital record, laboratory report, X-ray report, other other info in an effort to conceal from use as evidence in an administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding)

Answer 292

5 years after the record or report is made

Answer 293

After the patient attains the age of majority (18) plus three years OR 5 years after the record/report was made, whichever is later, UNLESS Parent/guardian is notified or minor is notified under certain conditions (20-102(c); 20-103(c))

Answer 294

1- By first-class mail to last known address 2- Include date records will be destroyed 3- Include statement that record or synopsis of record must be retrieved at a designated location within 30 days of the proposed date of destruction

Answer 295

The health care provider, administrator of the estate or designee who agrees to provide for maintenance of the medical records of the practice/business shall contact appropriate health board in writing: 1- Forward notice required before the destruction or transfer of medical records OR 2- Publish a notice in a daily newspaper that is circulated locally for 2 consecutive weeks stating the date record will be destroyed/transferred and location/date/time where records can be retrieved if wanted

Answer 296

Yes, can be held liable for actual damages

Answer 297

1st fine- up to $1000 for all violations cited in a single day 2nd fine- up to $2500/day 3rd and subsequent fines- up to $5000/day

Answer 298

i- Is required by law to be obtained from a unit; ii- is not required only for revenue purposes; and, iii- is in any form including: approval, certificate, charter, permit, or registration.

Answer 299

An officer or unit that is authorized by law to: i- adopt regulation subject to Subtitle 1 of "this title" (Licenses- Special provisions) OR ii- adjudicate contested cases under this subtitle

Answer 300

1- Unit take final action on the application; and, 2- Either i- time for seeking judicial review of the action expires; or ii- any judicial stay of the unit's final action expires

Answer 301

i- Written notice of the facts that warrant suspension or revocation AND ii- An opporutnity to be heard (exception if Unit find that the public health, safety, or welfare imperatively requires emergency action AND the licensee is promptly given written notice, reasons to support findings, and opportunity to be heard)

Answer 302

Information concerning general health condition of a patient admitted to a health care facility or receiving emergency care in a health care facility Does NOT include health care info primarily in connection with mental health services

Answer 303

Sharing of information in medical record, including acknowledgment that a medical record exists

Answer 304

A situation when, in professional opinion of the health care provider, a clear and significant risk of death or imminent serious injury or harm to a patient or recipient exists

Answer 305

Health status of a patient describe in terms of (or similar): -Critical -Poor -Fair -Good -Excellent

Answer 306

Any care, treatment, or procedure by a health care provider: 1- To diagnose, evaluate, rehabilitate, manage, treat, or maintain the physical or mental condition of a patient or recipient; or 2-That affects the structure or any function of the human body

Answer 307

A person licensed/certified/authorized under the Health Occupations Article or 13-516 of the Education Article (college/higher ed medical personnel), or in an approved education/training program OR Facility as defined by the Articles identified in the Medical Record Act

Answer 308

Any oral, written, or other transmission in any form/medium of info that: i- is entered in the record of a patient/recipient ii- identified or can readily be associated with the identity of patient/recipient iii- relates to the health care of the patient or recipient. Includes- disclosures, perscription documents, exams, files received from others, and identifiable information

Answer 309

Health rendered to a recipient primarily in connection with the diagnosis, evaluation, treatment, case management, or rehabilitation of any mental disorder.

Answer 310

1- An adult on whom a health care provider maintain a medical record 2- A person authorized to consent to health for an adult consistent with authority granted 3- A duly appointed personal representative of a deceased person 4- A minor, if the medical record concerns treatment for which the minor gave consent, or a parent/guardian/custodian/representative of the minor as provided in 20-102 or 20-104 (TX of a Minor) 5- Parent of a minor, except if parent's authority is limited by law OR person authorized to consent to health for a minor consistent with authority granted 6- An attorney appointed in writing by a person listed above

Answer 311

1- Has primary responsibility for the development of the mental health treatment plan for the recipient 2- Is actively involved in providing that treatment

Answer 312

1- Information related to administration of a health care facility (risk management, quality assurance, activities of a medical/dental review committee) 2- Info governed by federal confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records regulations 3- Info governed by the developmental disability confidentiality provisions

Answer 313

No, unless: 1- Authorized by the person in interest 2- Otherwise permitted by Medical Records Act 3- Permitted by 1-202(b) or (c) of the Human Services Article 4- Directory information

Answer 314

1- May not disclose records by sale, rental, or barter 2- Can transfer files with the ethical guidelines of practice/facility ownership transfer

Answer 315

1- Accredited by the Electronic Healthcare Network Accreditation Commission 2- Certified by the Maryland Health Care Commission

Answer 316

1- Be in writing, dated, and signed by the person in interest 2- State the name of the health care provider 3- Identify to whom the information is to be disclosed 4- State the period of time that the authorization is valid, which may not exceed 1 year except: i- in cases of criminal justice referrals (valid until 30 days after final disposition), OR ii- when a patient is a resident of a nursing home, in which case authorization stays valid until revoked or any specified period of time 5- Apply only to a medical record developed by the health care provider unless i- authorization specifies disclosure of records received from another AND ii- other provider has not prohibited redisclosure

Answer 317

1- Except in cases of criminal justice referral, a person in interest may revoke an authorization in writing. 2- Becomes effective on the date of receipt by the health care provider 3- A disclosure made before the effective date of revocation is not affected by revocation

Answer 318

1- A written authorization 2- Any action taken in response to an authorization 3- Any revocation of an authorization

Answer 319

i- Make a summary of the undisclosed portion available to the patient, recipient, or person in interest ii- Insert a copy of the summary in the medical record of the patient or recipient iii- Permit examination and copying of medical record by another health care provider authorized to treat the patient/recipient for the same condition as the provider denying the request iv- Inform patient/recipient of the patient's/recipient's right to select another health care provider under this subsection

Answer 320

1- Procedures shall be established to allow person in interest to request additions/corrections to the record 2- No information may be deleted from the record 3- Within reasonable time after request, provider shall make the requested change or provide written notice of a refusal to make change to person in interest

Answer 321

4- Notice of refusal shall contain each reason for refusal and procedures (if any) established for review of the refusal 5- If final decision is refusal to make change- permit person in interest to submit a note of disagreement into the medical record and provider may include a statement of reasons for refusal

Answer 322

i- To any individual the person in interest has designated to receive the notice/statement ii- To whom the health care provider has disclosed an inaccurate, incomplete, or a disputed medical record within the previous 6 months

Answer 323

Medical Records Act- Duty to Hold confidential and Duty to Disclose a Medical Record

Answer 324

1- Employees/agents, legal counsel, insurer 2- Education or research purposes, evaluation/management of health care delivery systems, accreditation of a facility by professional standard setting entities (if person agrees to no further disclosure) 3- Subject to additional limitations for a medical record developed primarily in connection with the provision of mental health services, to a government agency performing its lawful duties by an act of the Maryland General Assembly or the United State Congress 4- Subject to additional limitations for a medical record developed primarily in connection with the provision of mental health services, to another health care provider for the sole purpose of treating the patient/recipient on whom the record is kept 5- Disclosure without authorization to third party payors/agents 6- To provide for emergency health care needs 7- To immediate family members of the patient or any other individual with whom the patient is known to have a close personal relationship, unless patient instructed not to make disclosure or record developed primarily in connection with the provision of mental health services 8- Appropriate organ, tissues, or eye recovery agency to evaluate for possible donation 9- Dept of Health and Mental Hygiene or organ/tissue/eye recovery agency for purpose of conducting death record review 10- Within Montgomery County DHHS

Answer 325

Includes subpoena, summons, warrant, or court order that appears on its face to have been issued on lawful authority

Answer 326

Section 4-306 of Medical Records Act

Answer 327

Section 4-307 of Medical Records Act

Answer 328

An individualized recipient centered service designed to assist a recipient in obtaining effective mental health services through the assessing, planning, coordinating, and monitoring of services on behalf of the recipient.

Answer 329

An organization approved by the Mental Hygiene Administration to manage mental health resources and services in a designated area or to a designated target population

Answer 330

Director of the Mental Hygiene Administration, or the designee of the Director

Answer 331

-The work product and personal property of a mental health provider; and -Is not included in a medical record, if the mental health care provider: 1- keep the personal note in provider's sole possession for provider's personal use; 2- maintains the personal note separate from the recipient's medical records; 3- Does not disclose the personal note to any other person (except supervising provider, consulting health care provider, attorney of health care provider) -Does not include information on patient's diagnosis, treatment plan, symptoms, prognosis, or progress notes

Answer 332

False- Except as provided in subsection (d)(3), personal notes are not discoverable or admissible as evidence in any criminal, civil, or administrative action

Answer 333

-Provider's supervising health care provider -A consulting health care provider -An attorney of the health care provider -A recipient who has initiated an action for malpractice, an intentional tort, or professional negligence against the health care provider

Answer 334

Medical Records Acts 4-307 (e)

Answer 335

If health care provider knowingly refuses to disclose medical record within a reasonable time, but no more than 21 working days after request, the health care is liable for actual damages

Answer 336

1- Requests or obtains a medical record under false pretenses or through deception; or, 2- Discloses a medical record in violation of "this subtitle"

Answer 337

Guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $1000 for the first offense and not exceeding $5000 for each subsequent conviction for a violation of any provision of this subtitle

Answer 338

1- Healthcare provider or any other person, including an officer or employee of a governmental unit, who knowingly and willfully requests/obtains a medical record under false pretense or through deception or knowingly discloses a medical record in violation of "this subtitle" is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to the following penalties: i- Fine not exceeding $50,000, imprisonment for not more than 1 year, or both ii- Offense under false pretenses: fine not exceeding $100,000, imprisonment up to 5 years, or both iii- Offense committed with intent to sell, transfer, or use individually identifiable health information for commercial advantage, personal gain, or malicious harm, a fine not exceeding $250,000, imprisonment for not more that 10 years, or both (does not apply to officer/employee of government unit that is conducting criminal investigation)

Answer 339

Health care provider or anyone is liable for actual damages