Marketing Concepts Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Strategy is NOT…
A. performing different activities from competitors
B. performing similar activities in different ways
C. performing similar activities better than the way competitors perform them
D. establishing a difference that the firm can preserve
E. all of the above choices are different definitions of strategy

A

C. Strategy is about being different

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2
Q

Analyzing the 4Cs is necessary to provide the foundation for a good strategic marketing plan.
Which of the following is NOT one among them?
A. Company
B. Context
C. Customers
D. Cost
E. Competitors

A

D. Cost

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3
Q

A(n) _____________ is defined as being comprised of individuals and organizations that are
interested and willing to buy a good or service to obtain benefits that will satisfy a particular
need or want and who have the resources to engage in such a transaction:
A. industry
B. agency
C. market
D. business
E. retail department

A

C. A market is a set of buyers. Industry is a set of sellers.

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4
Q

When a company is attempting to differentiate its products to distinguish them from
competitors’ products, in which aspect of strategic management planning is the company
engaged?
A. Market segmentation strategy
B. Distribution strategy
C. Targeting strategy
D. Pricing strategy
E. Positioning strategy

A

E. The positioning strategy is aimed at distinguishing the brand from competitors.

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5
Q

The major components of the marketing environment include:
A. sociocultural, regulatory, economic, natural, and psychological.
B. technological, sociocultural, demographic, regulatory, natural, and economic.
C. national, cultural, subcultural, international, and domestic.
D. tertiary, secondary, primary, and local.
E. global, regional, national, domestic, state, and local

A

B. technological, sociocultural, demographic, regulatory, natural, and economic.

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6
Q

A major issue in a business strategy is that of:

A. sustainable competitive advantage.
B. coordinating marketing activities.
C. allocating marketing resources to accomplish the firm’s objectives.
D. creating a well-integrated program of marketing mix elements
E. specifying the target market(s) for a particular product line

A

A. sustainable competitive advantage.

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7
Q

Increased interest in healthy eating and fitness is an example of a(n) ______________ macro
trend:
A. regulatory
B. economic
C. natural
D. demographic
E. sociocultural

A

E. Sociocultural trends are those that have to do with the values, attitudes, and behavior
of individuals in a given society

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8
Q

The recent sudden reversal of policies by the Mexican government to encourage foreign
investment in Mexico is an example of which component of the macro-environment?
A. Technological environment
B. Political/legal environment
C. Natural environment
D. Demographic environment
E. Sociocultural environment

A

B. Political/legal environment

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9
Q

The aging of the world’s population is an example of a(n) ______________ macro trend
A. regulatory
B. economic
C. natural
D. demographic
E. sociocultural

A

D. Demographic

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10
Q

When a major department store chain in France, such as Carrefour, makes strong demands on
its apparel suppliers to reduce their costs so that Carrefour can reduce its need for clearance
sales, which competitive force does this represent for the apparel industry?
A. threat of new entrants
B. bargaining power of buyers
C. bargaining power of suppliers
D. threat of substitute products
E. little rivalry

A

B. The department store is a customer of the retailer and hence its strong demands are
manifesting the bargaining power of buyers

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11
Q

Brand loyalty is accomplished when consumers are _____ in the purchase process but search
for _____.A. highly involved; brand alternatives
B. highly involved; better retail prices
C. somewhat involved; little or no information
D. somewhat involved; better retail prices
E. highly involved; little or no information

A

E. Loyal customers don’t search for alternatives.

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12
Q

Dividing the market for a particular type of automobile into customers who seek style and
customers who seek durability is an example of:
A. demographic segmentation.
B. usage segmentation.
C. product differentiation.
D. demand function modification.
E. market segmentation

A

E. Market Segmentation

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13
Q

Generally, which of the following is a low-involvement purchase?
A. An automobile
B. A VCR
C. A computer
D. Cereals
E. Clothing

A

D. Cereals

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14
Q

When Hyatt Hotels announced a new marketing program which featured excursions and
social events for teenagers, at which marketing descriptor was this program aimed specifically?
A. Sex
B. Household life cycle
C. Education
D. Age
E. Income

A

D Targeting teenagers is obviously an age segmentation

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15
Q

When Ford notices that a large number of pickup trucks are sold in the Southwest U.S., on
which descriptor is it focusing?
A. Income
B. Age
C. Education
D. Occupation
E. Geography

A

E. Geography

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16
Q

Compared to physical positioning, perceptual positioning:
A. is consumer oriented.
B. is technically oriented.
C. has a large number of dimensions.
D. represents impact of product specs.
E. has direct R&D implications

A

A. Physical positioning starts from certain attributes that a product has, but perceptual
positioning starts from the needs of the customers and tries to distinguish itself from the rest by
working on the customer perception of the brand

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17
Q

When the total market for a given product category is fragmented into several groups of
people having relatively homogeneous needs, wants, and sought after benefits, these groups are
termed:
A. market fragmentation.
B. a differentiated market.
C. a counter-market.
D. a market segment.
E. market homogenization

A

D. A market segmentation

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18
Q

The first step in the product positioning process is to:
A. identify the set of determinant attributes that defines the product space.
B. collect information from a sample of customers and potential customers about perceptions.
C. analyze intensity of a product’s current position.
D. identify a relevant set of competitive products.
E. write a positioning statement or a value proposition

A

D. identify a relevant set of competitive products.

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19
Q

When a clothing retailer wants to target women between the ages of 25 to 55, earning an
annual income of $30,000 or more, in a five-mile radius of their store, they are using which
descriptor?
A. Geography
B. Geodemographics
C. Sex
D. Age
E. Income

A

B. The retailer is using both geography and demographic information to target certain
customers

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20
Q

which strategy involves serving one or more segments that, while not the largest, consist of
a sufficient number of customers seeking somewhat-specialized benefits from a good or
service?
A. Growth market strategy
B. Niche market strategy
C. Undifferentiated market strategy
D. Peripheral market strategy
E. Differentiated market strategy

A

B. Niche market strategy

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21
Q

Coca-Cola, which also owns Minute Maid orange juice and PowerAde, an energy drink, is
using what type of branding strategy for these products?
A. Family branding
B. Multiple branding
C. No-name branding
D. Individual branding
E. Co-branding

A

D. Individual branding

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22
Q

_____ uses the same brand name to cover a group of products or product lines.
A. Individual branding
B. Family branding
C. Co- branding
D. Global branding
E. Group branding

A

B. Family branding

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23
Q
  1. Under which set of circumstances is family branding advisable?
    A. When the brand is well known and a new product has quality problems.
    B. When advertising economies of scale exist and the brand has low perceived quality.
    C. When advertising economies of scale exist and the products under the brand have variable
    quality.
    D. When advertising economies of scale exist and the brand has high perceived quality.
    E. When the brand is a well known price leader and the new product is positioned toward a high
    quality, high prestige portion of the market.
A

D. When advertising economies of scale exist and the brand has high perceived quality.

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24
Q

Which branding strategy imposes the greatest risk to brand equity?
A. Co-branding
B. Global branding
C. Individual branding
D. Family branding
E. Multiple brands

A

D. Family branding

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25
Q

Kellogg’s Raisin Bran and Kellogg’s Rice Crispies are examples of:
A. individual branding.
B. distributor branding.
C. private labeling.
D. family branding.
E. no-name branding

A

D. family branding.

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26
Q

The Ford Explorer Eddie Bauer edition illustrates which branding strategy?
A. Co-branding
B. Global branding
C. Individual branding
D. Family branding
E. Multiple brands

A

A. Co-branding

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27
Q

The production of appliances for Sears by Whirlpool under its own Kenmore name is an
example of:
A. manufacturer branding.
B. national branding.
C. individual branding.
D. sale of OEM components to competitors.
E. private labeling

A

E. private labeling

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28
Q

When the product market is in the introductory or growth stage, the firm is an early entrant,
target customers are sensitive to price, and the firm is pursuing a low-cost business-unit strategy.
Which pricing objective would be most appropriate?
A. Quality or service differentiation
B. Skimming
C. Harvesting
D. Survival
E. Penetration

A

E. Penetration

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29
Q

After setting a strategic pricing objective, the next step in the price setting decision process is
to:
A. estimate demand and price elasticity of demand.
B. determine costs and their relationship to volume.
C. examine competitors’ prices and costs.
D. select a method for calculating price.
E. set a price level

A

A. estimate demand and price elasticity of demand.

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30
Q

A skimming pricing objective can be used when

A. barriers block immediate entry by potential competitors.
B. the firm is the market leader among a group of competitors.
C. competitors are already established, and the firm wants to enter the market.
D. the firm is a low-cost producer among competitors in the market.
E. the firm has a weak position relative to other competitors in the market

A

A. barriers block immediate entry by potential competitors.

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31
Q

In the typical demand curve there is a(n) _________ relationship between a product’s price
and the quantity of that product demanded by consumers; the _________ the price, the ________
consumers want to buy.
A. inverse; higher; less
B. inverse; lower; less
C. direct; higher; more
D. direct; lower; more
E. inverse; higher; more

A

A. inverse; higher; less

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32
Q

Buyers of BMW automobiles perceive such cars as higher in quality and more prestigious
than other automobiles and are willing to pay more for these cars. This is an example of the
____________ effect.
A. unique-value
B. price-quality
C. substitute-awareness
D. difficult-comparison
E. end-benefit

A

B. price-quality

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33
Q

When a small increase in price leads to a relatively large drop in the quantity demanded, the
demand for the product is known as:
A. price inelastic.
B. unitary price.
C. price neutral.
D. price elastic.
E. cost insensitive

A

D. price elastic.

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34
Q

Which of the factors which affect customers’ sensitivity to price is Duracell emphasizing
when it claims in television ads that its batteries last longer than its competitors’?
A. Total-expenditure effect
B. Sunk-investment effect
C. Unique-value effect
D. End-benefit effect
E. Shared-cost effect

A

C. Unique-value effect

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35
Q

Which of the factors which affect customers’ sensitivity to price is a restaurant in a Hawaii
using when it charges its hotel guests premium prices for food because it assumes that they are
unaware of lower-priced restaurants in the area?
A. Shared-cost effect
B. Sunk-investment effect
C. Substitute-awareness effect
D. Unique-value effect
E. End-benefit effect

A

C. Substitute-awareness effect

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36
Q

Which of the factors which affect customers’ sensitivity to price is a car dealer using when it
charges a premium price for a car stereo which is installed in a luxury sedan?
A. Shared-cost effect
B. Substitute-awareness effect
C. Inventory effect
D. End-benefit effect
E. Unique-value effec

A

D. End-benefit effect

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37
Q

According to the price elasticity of demand, the _________ the proportion of price-sensitive
customers in a product’s market, the _________ sensitive overall demand is to a change in the
price of the product.
A. larger; more
B. larger; less
C. smaller; more
D. smaller; same
E. lesser; same

A

A. larger; more

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38
Q

When the price of gas skyrocketed during the 1970s, the sales of large cars made in the U.S.
plummeted. This event illustrates that consumers’ demand for gas was _________ while their
demand for luxury-sized automobiles was __________.
A. elastic; inelastic
B. highly elastic; highly inelastic
C. inelastic; elastic
D. strong; weak
E. either a or b above are correct

A

C. inelastic; elastic

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39
Q

Differential pricing involves a firm selling the same product at _________ to take advantage
of different market segments’ ____________.
A. multiple prices; price sensitivities
B. a higher than normal price; price inelasticity
C. a higher than normal price; price elasticity
D. multiple prices; price expectancies
E. a lower than normal price; price insensitivities

A

A. multiple prices; price sensitivities

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40
Q

Which one captures the “chasm” in the adoption of innovative products:
A. The difficulty in getting “early adopters” interested in the product after “innovators” have
already adopted the product.
B. Getting “late majority” and the “laggards” on board.
C. Having saturated the “visionary” market, trying to convince “pragmatists” to buy.
D. Getting from “early majority” to “late majority”
E. Getting from “late majority” to “laggards”

A

C. Having saturated the “visionary” market, trying to convince “pragmatists” to buy.

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41
Q

What is the best way to “cross the chasm”?
A. Focus on one segment (also called the beachhead segment), and try dominating that segment
by offering a “whole product” (a complete solution).
B. Focus on multiple segments and try to diversify the offerings.
C. Offer different solutions to different market segments.
D. Be content with innovators and early adopters.
E. Do market research on what makes early majority customers buy a product.

A

A. Focus on one segment (also called the beachhead segment), and try dominating that segment

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42
Q

Which one is not one of the potential issues with the positioning of Planters Nuts?
A. Women were not represented as a significant target market.
B. Only focused on a specific age range.
C. Some of their ads indicated special occasions as the most relevant time to use.
D. Their brand image was more established than their competitors.
E. Their competitors had easier-to-remember associations, such as heart-healthy, as their
positioning

A

D. Their brand image was more established than their competitors.

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43
Q

Which one could be a potential issue with Sports drink/Energy drink segmentation used for
Crescent Pure?
A. Not big enough segments compared to healthy drinks.
B. Not healthy product segments to be in.
C. Industry product categorizations rather than true market segments coming from real
differences between consumers.
D. None of the above.
E. All of the above

A

C. Industry product categorizations rather than true

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44
Q

Which one is not true about Amazon’s investments in different product categories?
A. A major reason behind producing content in the form of movies and TV series is keeping
Prime users engaged and growing.
B. Kindle is the razor product where the bulk of the profits comes from the blades (books).
C. AWS is recently developed with the focus on prime customers.
D. Whole Foods was purchased with the idea of making Amazon the one-stop shop for
everything including groceries.
E. All of the above are true

A

C. AWS is recently developed with the focus on prime customers.

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45
Q

Which one is not one of the potential challenges following Chase Sapphire Reserved card’s
product launch?
A. the 100,000 point sign-on bonus was expensive to retain, going forward.
B. churners would abuse the sign-on bonus and dilute the profitability of the product portfolio by
leaving early.
C. retention of the acquired customers throughout the next year would be an issue.
D. millennials were attracted to the card.
E. none of the above

A

D. millennials were attracted to the card.

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46
Q

What was the production era attitude and date?

A

Attitude: A good product will sell itself
Date: prior to 1920s

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47
Q

What was the sales era attitude and date?

A

Attitude: creative advertising and selling will overcome consumers resistance to buy and persuade them to buy
Date: prior to 1950s

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48
Q

What was the marketing era attitude and date?

A

Attitude: the consumer rules, find a need and fill it
Date: since 1950s

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49
Q

What was the relationship era attitude and date?

A

Attitude: long term relationships with costumers and other partners lead to success
Date: Since 1990s

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50
Q

what is market?

A

individuals and organizations who are interested and willing to buy a particular product to obtain benefits that will satisfy a need or want

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51
Q

What is a marketplace?

A

Where the products or services are sold

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52
Q

What is strategy?

A

A fundamental pattern of present and planned objectives,
resource deployments, and interactions of an organization with markets,
competitors, and other environmental factors.

What: (objectives to be accomplished)
Where: (on which industries and product-markets to focus)
How: (which resources and activities to allocate to each product-market to
meet environmental opportunities and threats and to gain a competitive
advantage)

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53
Q

What is scope?

A

Who are we? who are we not?

54
Q

What are Resource deployments?

A

How financial/human resources are allocated across businesses, product markets, and
functional departments

55
Q

What are the 4 C’s

A

Company, Context, Competitors, Customers

56
Q

What is STP?

A

Segmentation, Targeting, Positioning

57
Q

What are the 4 P’s?

A

Product, Price, Place, Promotion

58
Q

What is competitive advantage?

A

A Company can outperform its rivals only if it can establish a
difference that it can preserve. It must deliver greater value to
customers or create comparable value at a lower cost, or both

59
Q

What steps are needed in assessing the Market attractiveness (macro trend analysis)?

A
  1. Sociocultural environment
  2. Demographic environment
  3. Economic environment
  4. Regulatory environment
  5. Technological environment
  6. Natural environment
60
Q

What is sociocultural environment? and examples

A

Those trends that have to do with values,
attitudes, and behavior of individuals in a given
society.
Business ethics, social awareness, health and fitness

61
Q

What is the demographic environment? and examples

A

Demographic trends, Age, marriage, class, immigration, education level, sex

62
Q

What is the economic environment?

A

All the external economic factors that influence buying habits of consumers and businesses and therefore affect the performance of a company
COVID 19 pandemic, inflation

63
Q

What are Microeconomics?

A

Ability of consumers to buy goods and services

64
Q

What is gross income?

A

Total amount of income

65
Q

What is disposable income?

A

The amount of money left over after necessities

66
Q

What is Discretionary income?

A

Amount of money left over after taxes and necessities

67
Q

What is the regulatory environment?

A

the set of taxes, rules, and laws or regulations that businesses must adhere to
Political trends, regulations, and deregulations

68
Q

What is the technological environment?

A

external factors in technology that impact business operations

69
Q

What is the natural environment?

A

how physical locations, like geography and climate, can impact businesses

70
Q

What are porter’s 5 competitive forces?

A
  1. Threat of new entrants
  2. Bargaining power of suppliers
  3. Bargaining power of buyers
    4.Threat of substitute products
  4. Rivalry among existing industry firms
71
Q

Assessing Industry Attractiveness using
Rivalry Among Present Competitors

A

When competition is high there are lower profits

72
Q

Assessing Industry Attractiveness
Threat of New Entrant

A

The greater the threat the less industry attractiveness
entry is harder under these conditions

73
Q

Assessing Industry Attractiveness
Bargaining Power of Suppliers

A

The greater the power of supplier the less attractive the industry will be
power is exercised through increased price of through more strict terms and conditions

74
Q

Assessing Industry Attractiveness
Bargaining Power of Buyers

A

The greater power of buyers the less an industry attractiveness
the power is high under these conditions
a few large buyers, low switching cost, threat of backward integration, low buyer profitability/income

75
Q

Assessing Industry Attractiveness
Threat of Substitute Products

A

Substitute product here means alternative
product types that perform essentially the
same function
Substitute product put a ceiling on the
profitability of an industry, so the higher the
threat of substitute product the less will be an
industry’s attractiveness

76
Q

Most markets are ____

A

Heterogeneous, which means customers are different

77
Q

Different offering for different segments leads to

A

consumers being more happy and more profits
and less competition which leads to more profits

78
Q

What is the process of differentiation?

A

Segmentation, targeting, positioning

79
Q

What is segmentation?

A

is the process by which a
market is divided into distinct subsets of
customers with similar needs and
characteristics

80
Q

What is targeting?

A

evaluating the relative attractiveness of various
segments and choosing the most attractive
ones

81
Q

What is positioning?

A

Creating a unique brand image, or position

82
Q

3 components of market segmentations

A

Criteria: for segmenting customers
Identifying: homogenous segment that is different from others on those criteria
segment size and potential

83
Q

What is part of the segmentation criteria?

A

Who the consumers are (demographical)
where they are (geographical)
How they behave (behavioral)

84
Q

What is demographical segmentation?

A

Segmenting using demographics
age, sex, occupation, race, etc

85
Q

What is geographical segmentation?

A

segmentation based off of geography
people in the same geographical regions tend to be relatively hon
different regions vary in growth rates, customer structure, important to services businesses

86
Q

What is geo-demographical segmentation?

A

Segmenting market demographically within geographic regions

87
Q

What is behavioral segmentation?

A

Divide buyers into groups on the basis of their
knowledge of, attitude toward, use of, or
response to a product
needs and Product use, user status

88
Q

What is the user status and user rate?

A

Status: Non users, ex users, potential users, first time users, regular users

Rate: light, heavy

Key accounts in B2B

89
Q

What are the steps in choosing the most attractive market segments?

A
  1. Choose criteria for segment attractiveness and competitive position
  2. Weight selected criteria
  3. Assess the current position of each market segment
  4. Decide what market segments to target
  5. Evaluate the implications for business strategy and required resources
90
Q

What is the importance of differentiation?

A

A company can outperform its rivals only if it can establish a difference that it can preserve

91
Q

How do you establish differences?

A

Brand positioning and having a positioning analysis

92
Q

What is brand positioning?

A

establish differences using all the elements of
the marketing mix (product, price, promotion,
place).

93
Q

What is a positioning analysis?

A

Marketers use to understand the current differences of brands/products/services in a given industry and find out the opportunities for future differentiation

94
Q

What is physical positioning?

A

Based on objective characteristics of a product
- Technical orientation
- Physical characteristics
- Objective measures
- Data readily available
- Large number of
dimensions
- Direct R&D implications

95
Q

What is perceptual positioning?

A

based on perceptual attributes
-Consumer orientation
- Perceptual attributes
- Perceptual measures
- Needs marketing
research
- Limited number of
dimensions
- R&D implications need
to be interpreted

96
Q

Steps in the positioning analysis process

A

1,Identify relevant set of competitive products serving a target market
2.Identify the set of determinant attributes
3.Collect Information from a sample of customers
4.Determine brand’s current position
5.Determine customers’ most preferred combination of attributes
6.Examine the fit between preferences of customers and position of
brand
7.Write positioning statement or value proposition

97
Q

Why do the analysis process?

A

Marketers who conduct only
brand/product line level
positioning analysis risk being
blindsided by unforeseen
competition from other product
categories

98
Q

What are determinant attributes?

A

the attributes that play a major role in
helping customers to differentiate
among the alternatives
Examples; features, benefits, percentage, Etc

99
Q

What are the two steps used to collect data about customers perceptions?

A

-Qualitative using interviews and
focus groups to learn which
attributes are determinant
-Quantitative in form of survey
asking the score customers
give to each brand on these
attributes

100
Q

What is product positioning?

A

Analyzing the current positions of the products

101
Q

The current postion if often assessed using….

A

positioning grid/perceptual map

102
Q

What does the positioning grid provide?

A

Visual representation of the positions of various products or brands in the competitive set in terms of two or more determinant attributes

103
Q

what is a positioning statement?

A

succinct statement that identifies the target market and the product category

should state
measurable end-user
consequences that the user of
the product will experience,
rather than features or attributes
of the product itself

104
Q

What is a value proportion?

A

list that specifies target market, benefits offered (and not offered), price range (relative to competitors) (main difference from positioning statement)

105
Q

What are the elements of product design decisions?

A
  1. Identify the core benefit to be delivered
  2. decide what features/qualities are needed
  3. decide hoe to brand the product
  4. decide about packaging, warranty and other services
106
Q

What are the dimensions of quality for goods?

A

performance, reliability, durability, serviceability, aesthetics

107
Q

What are the dimensions of quality for services?

A

empathy, assurance, responsiveness, reliability, etc

108
Q

what is branding?

A

Identifies and helps differentiate the
goods or services of one seller from those of
another
- Simplifies shopping
- Facilitates the processing of information
concerned with purchase options
- Provides confidence that the consumer has made
the right decision
- Helps to ensure quality
- Satisfies certain status needs

109
Q

What is individual branding?

A

requires the company to provide each
product or product line with a distinctive name
Examples: Tide, crest

110
Q

What is family branding/brand extension?

A

uses the same
brand name to cover a group of products or product
lines.
examples: nike, HP

111
Q

What is cobranding?

A

Cobranding uses multiple brand names with a single product
Examples; Baileys

112
Q

What is retailer brands/private labels?

A

produced by one
company to be offered under distributer or retailer brand

113
Q

In deciding to endow a product with a brand
take the following points into consideration

A

-Fit between brand identity and product. Lack of
fit can hurt the product and dilute the brand
identity
- A product failure can irreversibly hurt a brand

114
Q

what is part of the Categories of Adopters (Early Market: 16%)

A

innovators (technology enthusiasts, 2.5%)
 Appreciate technology for its own sake
 Motivated by the idea of being a change agent
 Will tolerate initial glitches and are willing to alpha/beta test
“I think electric cars are the future!”
“I embrace cloud computing and love the new technological shift!”

Early adopters (visionaries, 13.5%)
 Attracted by high risk, high reward
 Demand tech support, but willing to work with you
 Want to stand out with revolutionary products
“I want to be the first one on the block with an electric car.”
“I see that cloud computing is the future and I want to get the benefits early.”

115
Q

Categories of Adopters (Mainstream Market: 68%)

A

Early majority (pragmatists, 34%)
 Comfortable with evolutionary changes
 Want proven applications and a standard technology solution
 Buy only with a reference from a trusted source (herd mentality)
“I want to see electric cars prove themselves, and I want enough charging and
service stations.”
“I want to see all the security issues and pitfalls fixed in cloud computing.”

Late majority (conservatives, 34%)
 Risk averse, technology shy, very price sensitive
 Require assembled, bullet-proof solutions from established brands
“Not until the majority have made the switch and it’s inconvenient to drive regular
gasoline-fueled cars.”
“Not until existing computing solutions and servers are unsupported.”

116
Q

Early versus Mainstream Market

A

Visionaries
 Adventurous / take risks
 Think / spend big
 Want to stand out
 Follow their own dictate
 Motivated by future
opportunities
 Want revolutionary
products and solutions

Pragmatists
* Prudent / manage risk
* Reasonable / within budget
* Want to adopt in a herd
* Consult colleagues and
peers
* Motivated by present
problems
* Want evolutionary products
and solution

A chasm exists between these two groups of adopters.

117
Q

How Do You Know You’re in the Chasm?

A

You are in the chasm when the visionary
market is saturated but the mainstream market
is not yet ready to buy.
- Visionaries are willing to take risks. They will
work around the product to customize.
-Pragmatists are risk averse. They want a
completely customized solution before
buying.

118
Q

Problems within the Chasm

A
  • The market stalls, revenue declines, firms lose money, and
    venture capitalists become impatient.
  • The chasm is a graveyard for many high-tech companies and
    products
  • presents a catch 22
119
Q

How Do You Cross the Chasm

A

-Focus exclusively on one beachhead segment that you can
dominate
-Use a complete product for your beachhead segment (whole
product solution

120
Q

What is the only “P” in the marketing mix that generates revenue?

A

Pricing

121
Q

What are the steps in setting a price?

A
  1. Set strategic price objective
  2. estimate demand, price elasticity of demand and perceived value
  3. determine costs and their relationship to volume
  4. examine competitors prices and costs
  5. select a method for calculating price
  6. set a price level
  7. adapt price structure to meet variations in demand and cost across geographic territories, market segments, sales, channels, etc
122
Q

What should the strategic pricing objectives reflect?

A

What the firm hopes to accomplish with the product in its target market

123
Q

What is skimming?

A

Setting the price very high and appealing to only the least price-sensitive segment of potential
customers.
-This method is not applicable in highly
competitive environment. Thus, it should
be used when there is not many
competitors and there are barriers to
entry (at least in short term)
-Applicable to early stages in product life
cycle

124
Q

What is harvesting?

A

Attempts to maximize short-term profits
before demand for the product
disappears.
- Applicable to products at the end of their
life cycle

125
Q

The total number of
customers willing to buy
during a given period varies
according to

A

the price charged

126
Q

What is the price elasticity of demand?

A

The degree of
responsiveness of demand to a price change

127
Q

What are methods for estimating demand?

A

Surveys
-pricing experiments: cary the price of different -products in a store or change different prices for the same product in similar territories
-Statistical methods: analyzing longitudinal (over time) or cross sectional (from different locations at the same time) data of past prices, quantities sold, and other factors

128
Q

What is the cost pus method?

A

The price can be determined by adding a standard markup to the cost of the product

129
Q

What is the rate of return pricing?

A

Bring the cost of capital to the calculation of price, the impact of variations in volume can also be examined by preparing a break even analysis

130
Q

Firms who use cost-oriented pricing often….

A

“leave money on the table” because consumers are willing to pay more but they charge less

131
Q

What is the going rate/competitive parity pricing apporaoch?

A

maintaining prices equal to those one or more major competitors

132
Q

What is differential pricing/discriminatory pricing?

A

occurs when a firm sells a product or service at two or more prices not determined by proportional differences in cost. Some common differential pricing adjustments include
-Time pricing
-Location pricing
- Customer segment pricing