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Twin Otter > Marino - Otter-AOC flash cards > Flashcards

Marino - Otter-AOC flash cards

1
Q

Prop De-IceHow long until the entire cycle is complete

A

2 minutes and 16 seconds (34 * 4)

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2
Q

Prop-DeIceCycling the deice switch will…

A

Switch to the next element in the sequence(Left Outter, left inner, right outter, right inner)

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3
Q

Prop De-Icedeice will stop when the switch is turned off or…

A

When the oil pressure is below 40psi (prevents overheating when the prop is not turning)

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4
Q

Prop De-IceAfter engine failure, will the prop de-ice system still allocate time to the failed side

A

Yes, although the failed side is not receiving power, the timer will still allocate time to it.

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5
Q

BootsHow are the boots of the horizontal stab different than the wings (structurally)

A

There is a nylon cap between the horizontal stabilizer and the stabilizer boot as reinforcement from ice from the wing colliding with the stab.

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6
Q

Dual Pressure SwitchWhat will happen with cabin heat in AUTO and pressure below 25psi

A

The dual pressure switch will stop further opening of the hot air valve.

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7
Q

Dual Pressure SwitchWhat will happen with cabin heat in AUTO and the pressure falls below 20psi

A

Hot air valve will close

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8
Q

What is the function of the ejector near the horiz stab?

A

The ejector uses bleed air to create a vacuum, holding the boots tight to the leading edge of the wing and hoz stab.

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9
Q

What is the function of the distribution valve?

A

The three valves (one for each wing plus for the stab) takes signal from the timer to switch each boot between pressure from the bleed air (inflate) and suction from the ejector (deflate).

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10
Q

What is the boot timing for FAST and SLOW

A

One minute cycles (each boot) and Three minutes cycles.

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11
Q

What is the purpose of the valve heater

A

To prevent freezing of bleed air condensation in the distribution valve. Remember the air condenses through a heat exchanger before it gets to the boots.

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12
Q

What are inflation times for the wing and stab boots

A

5 seconds and 3 seconds

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13
Q

What is the dwell time in FAST and SLOW

A

44 and 164 seconds

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14
Q

What is the nulling function of the boots

A

When turned off, then on the boots will start the cycle of the next boot in the sequence

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15
Q

What does the stab boot lights indicate

A

The pressure is being supplied to the boots, it does not insure operation

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16
Q

Stab boot activation with flapsHow many times will the stab boots inflate with flaps 5-12 degrees

A

Twice, only with bleeds on and boots are off

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17
Q

Stab boot activation with flapsHow many times will the stab boots inflate with >17 degrees

A

An additional two, only with bleeds on and boots are off

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18
Q

What will happend when using the wipers >100 kts

A

They may not park and possibly pop the circuit breaker

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19
Q

What are the limitations on windshield heat

A

Never run it on the ground unless taxi before takeoff into icing conditions.Must be left on in icing conditions

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20
Q

Why should you avoid anti-collision lights on with the boots on auto

A

the strobe can interfere with the boot’s timer

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21
Q

What are the 6 operating limitations of the de-ice system

A
  1. All de-ice systems must be fully operative2. Boots must be operated prior to flap extension3. Ng MUST be above 75% Ng4. Do not extend flaps >10 degrees5. Extend intake deflectors in icing6. Intentional flight into Severe icing is prohibited
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22
Q

What is an qualified non-crewmember?

A

Has completed ditching training and all applicable training specified in 209-124Scientists comply as long as the PI vouches that they have ditching training and is familiar with 209-124.

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23
Q

What is an Air Crewmember?

A

Able to perform emergency duties in flight, FDIFT

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24
Q

What are the limitations with flight observers (media, VIP)?

A

Can only be on 1 flight within a 4 month period limited to 3 flights per year. Must complete online training specified in 209-124.

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25
Q

How can you determine if the flight is exclusively for official purposes?

A

There will always be appropriate task code for all official flights.

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26
Q

How can you determine if a flight is nonessential?

A

2.2Can a commercially obtained transportation be more economical?Is the flight to for the performance of official duties?Is the flight on the flights schedule?

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27
Q

What must be done before media reps fly on the aircraft?

A

Must obtain permission from Chief of OPS with cc to XO and CO.

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28
Q

What must be done before a VIP embarks?

A

Notify the Chief of OPS. (2.3.a)Include “VIP ONBOARD” on crew manifest hotline plus email Chief of OPS. Include VIP Full name, Title, Rank/Grade. (4.8.c)Note above on release and acknowledge form

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29
Q

Participation in an air show must be approved by…

A

the CO (2.4)

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30
Q

A heavy aircraft is defined as…

A

Zero fuel weight greater than 20,000 lbs.

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31
Q

Who determines if a FD or NAV is required on a P-3 flight?

A

Chief of OPS (2.6)

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32
Q

What is minimum crew in an Otter?

A

Pilot and Copilot

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33
Q

A mechanic is required on the otter…

A

in remote locations determined by Chief of Ops

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34
Q

Technically when is only time you can fly single-pilot?

A

Only for VFR ferry flights if has been approved by CO. (2.6)

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35
Q

When is crew limited to min crew?

A

Training flight.Post-mx check flightOperations operating with reduced aircraft engines or systems. (2.7)

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36
Q

What are the exceptions to the min crew limit?

A

When non-crewmembers are required for the testing evolution.On non-syllabus training flights permitted by AC. (2.7)

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37
Q

AOC Personnel must be familiar with what documents (8)

A
  1. AFM2. FARs3. Safety Manual4. Mx operating instructions5. Alternation and Instrumentation program6. ORM process7. Admin Orders8. 216-104 & 209-124
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38
Q

What events require a mx inspection (AFM)? (6)

A
  1. Hard Landing2. Gear Strike3. Severe Turbulence4. Rejected TO5. Tail Strike6. Overweight Landing
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39
Q

Who designates the AC, when more than one AC is onboard?

A

Chief of Ops (3.1)

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40
Q

What the overall duty of the Aircraft Commander?

A

Command authority over all crew members and observers aboard the aircraft, and has command responsibility for ensuring the safe conduct of the mission. (3.1)

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41
Q

What is the first of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Go/no-go decisions

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42
Q

What is second of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Aircraft and personnel safety during flight ops

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43
Q

What is the third of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Safe and efficient mission accomplishment

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44
Q

What is the fourth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Preflight and post-flight duties to include checking wx and NOTAMS

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45
Q

What is the fifth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Adherence to Project Instructions and the ORM

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46
Q

What is the sixth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Adherence to FAA guidelines

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47
Q

What is the seventh of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Notification and coordination of maintenance requirements

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48
Q

What is the eighth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Compliance with AOC Tool Control and Accountability

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49
Q

What is the nineth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Ensuring aircraft Airworthiness, serviced and required documentation to include AFM, SOP and ORM are onboard

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50
Q

What is the tenth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Notifying appropriate authority of any accident or substantial damage to aircraft or property

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51
Q

What is the eleventh of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Delegating duties to SIC

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52
Q

What is the twelfth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Records, logs and communications to include personnel status

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53
Q

What is the thirteenth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Billable flight hours tracking

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54
Q

What is the fourteenth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Cleanliness of aircraft

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55
Q

What is the fifteenth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

HAZMAT and dangerous goods aboard

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56
Q

What is the sixteenth of the 16 responsibilities of the AC?

A

Positive perception of NOAA through conduct and interactions

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57
Q

What is the first of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

Airworthiness Cert

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58
Q

What is the second of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

Registration

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59
Q

What is the third of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

Weight and Balance on file

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60
Q

What is the fourth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

Pilot’s Cert

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61
Q

What is the fifth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

FAA Medical

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62
Q

What is the sixth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

Passport (if applic) (4.9)

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63
Q

What is the seventh of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

Govt Credit Cards (4.9)

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64
Q

What is the eighth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

Travel Orders (4.9)

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65
Q

What is the ninth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

Flashlight (for night) (4.9)

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66
Q

What is the tenth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

AFM (3.1)

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67
Q

What is the eleventh of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

SOP (3.1)

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68
Q

What is the twelfth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

ORM (3.1)

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69
Q

What is the thirteenth of the 13 documents that must be aboard the aircraft at all times?

A

MEL (5.2)

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70
Q

What are the duties of the PM?

A
  1. Liasion with the PI2. Manages all field services3. Set work schedules4. Resolve budgetary issues5. Pre-deployment logistics6. Arrange diplomatic clearances7. Ensure scientific needs and mission obj are met8. Coordinate airspace issues with FAA9. Act as VIP representative10. NOAA Customer Satisfaction Survey
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71
Q

What are the 6 responsibilities of the Mission Commander?

A
  1. Mission Planning2. Coordinating with the AC and PI3. Data collection and transmission4. Data quality assurance5. Install and remove sci equipment6. Comms with the project sponsor and AOC
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72
Q

When shall the AC conduct a mission briefing?

A

Before all flights, particularly before first flight of a series. Shall occur no later than one hour prior to block out time.

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73
Q

What is required for preflight prep?

A

Wx forecastFuel requirementsAlternatesATC delaysTO and landing distancesRwyway lengthsFile/ BriefCall manifestCoordination with controlling agency

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74
Q

What is the duty of the AC, if weather conditions could threaten completion of the flight?

A

Develop an alternate flight plan to execute if wx dictates

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75
Q

What is the prefered weather source?

A

FSS briefer

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76
Q

Flights in NOAA aircraft shall be conducted under IFR…

A

to the maximum extent possible

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77
Q

What is the priority order of the aviation rules and regulations?

A
  1. AOC Policies2. FAA regulations3. FAA/Military Docs4. DoD publications5. Approach plates
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78
Q

An AC with an ATP, can take off below mins if and only if…

A
  1. Departure alternate within 15 minutes at normal cruising speed with one engine inop2. Wx conditions at dep alt must be: 600-2 for precision approach 800-2 for non-precision approach if no approach, wx reports must allow for descent from MEA, approach and land under VFR wx minimums
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79
Q

An AC without an ATP, can NOT depart if…

A

Wx is less than published approach minimums and in no case less than 200-1/2 (for emergencies only) (use lowest minimums available for any runway)

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80
Q

For any departure below approach mins, what must be completed?

A

A time-critical ORM, i.e. a though takeoff brief

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81
Q

What must you do if the info on the crew manifest changes?

A

Place a second amended call to the manifest

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82
Q

What documents must be provided to non-AOC crewmembers?

A

Crewmember Guidelines and Information Disclosure for Persons flying aboard Federal Goverment Aircraft ANDAcknowledgement and Release formemail forms to flight ops

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83
Q

What if you can not email or fax the acknowedgement form?

A

Crewmember identification and emergency information must be voiced over the manifest line

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84
Q

The words “VIP ONBOARD” must be written/communicated on what documents when applicable?

A

Acknowledge and Release FormCrew Manifest Calla separate email to flight ops

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85
Q

What 7 personal items must be kept with each crewmember?

A
  1. Airmen’s Certificate2. FAA Medical Certificate3. Official Passport4. Government Credit Card5. Travel Orders6. Eyeglasses (if app)7. Flashlight for night ops
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86
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient for airports which have no published DP?

A

200 feet per NM

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87
Q

Particularly on high elevation runways, multi-engine aircraft must maintains maintain single engine performance…

A

positive rate of climb above Min Obstacle Clearance at any point of flight

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88
Q

Review of runway lengths and takeoff/landing distances must be calculated…

A

prior to every flight

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89
Q

How early shall the fuel order at MacDill be requested?

A

Day prior or no later than 1.5 hours prior to scheduled block-out time

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90
Q

How should in-flight fuel calc be conducted?

A

Always calculate reserve plus fuel to airport, compare calcs with co-pilot

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91
Q

What is AFF and how should it be identified on the flight plan?

A

Automatic Flight Following which enables flight following through aff.gov. Be sure to include “AFF equipt” within the remarks section of flight plan.

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92
Q

What are the pre-flight responsibilities of the AC?

A
  1. Confirm resolve of all discrepancies within ACLogs2. Ensure MEL requirements are met3. Ensure mech discrepancies are resolved4. Ensure properly fueled5. Compute proper Weight and Balance6. Ensure all delegated pre-flight duties are complete7. Inspect surfaces for ice/snow/frost8. Deliver Safety Briefing of emergency procedures9. Ensure each crewmember outfitted with flight/survival gear10. Complete last change walk around
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93
Q

What if an inop component is not in the MEL?

A

Considered part of aircraft, downing item

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94
Q

What must be done after an inop item is placarded or removed?

A

MEL item must be addressed in Aircraftlogs. Also ensure that the MEL is always onboard

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95
Q

Within what radius is smoking prohibited around the aircraft?

A

50 feet unless fueling then 200 feet

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96
Q

Crewmember are departing the aircraft on the left side, can you simply feather the left engine?

A

No, 6.2 states the engine must be shutdown

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97
Q

Who is responsible that fueling is in accordance with the MOI when at an FBO?

A

The AC

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98
Q

What should be regarded in regards to fire extinguishing equipment during fueling?

A

Fire extinguishing equipment must always be present

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99
Q

Fuel should occur how many feet away from energized aircraft radar and ground radar?

A

200/300

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100
Q

What should be regarded with respect to Non-essential crewmembers during fueling?

A

shall not embark, be on board or disembark aircraft during fueling

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101
Q

What should the AC do in the event of a spill?

A
  1. Contact local airfield authorities2. Remain on site3. Report spill to Chief of Ops
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102
Q

When are seatbelts required?

A
  1. Takeoff2. Approach3. Landing4. Prior to turbulence5. Other times deemed by AC
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103
Q

If a crewmember is physically or psychologically impaired…

A

They can not perform as crew members

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104
Q

What are the critical phases of flight?

A
  1. Engine Starts2. Taxi3. Takeoff4. Departure5. Approach6. Landing7. Operations below 500’8. Operations around severe wx
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105
Q

Pilots in training must not be at either seat during ops below… (without an IP)

A

200’ AGL

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106
Q

When can a non-flight crewmember occupy a pilot seat?

A

…if a qualified AC is at the controls and a co-pilot has direct oversight at all times. They may not occupy during critical phases of flight.

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107
Q

Emergency checklists are to be accomplished in what format?

A

Challenge, Reply, Reply

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108
Q

Sterile cockpit operations, what type of conversations are allowed

A

Only conversations relating to training or check flights specifics.

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109
Q

The AC shall occupy either seat during what stages of flight?

A

Critical stages of flight

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110
Q

When are intersection takeoffs permitted?

A

Only after the AC has ensured the aircraft performance, rwnway length remaining and runway conditions meet takeoff requirements.

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111
Q

When should the climb checklist and any turns be conducted during the climbout?

A

Only above 500’ AGL unless directed by ATC

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112
Q

Are crewmembers allowed to externally communicate with regards to aircraft condition, malfunctions or emergencies?

A

Only if approved by the AC.

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113
Q

When is the co-pilot required to monitor flight path and MEA figures during IFR or night transit?

A

Required when terrain is less than 3000’ within 25 miles of flight path

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114
Q

What is the obstacle clearance requirement?

A

Must be able to climb single-engine to avoid all obstacles by at least 300’ from flight path.

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115
Q

What is the policy with regard to autopilot?

A

Autopilot use is encouraged to decrease workload, but shall not be used during takeoff, landing, ops below 200 when landing and 500’ when not intending to land.

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116
Q

When shall the crew familiarize themselves with terrain and obstruction clearance requirements?

A

When mission calls for flights at or below 1000’.

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117
Q

What is required for flights below 200’ AGL?

A

CO approval and no turns planned

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118
Q

What is required for flights below 500’AGL

A

Working Radar Altimeter

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119
Q

What is limited below 500 AGL?

A

Standard rate turns in VMC and no turns at night

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120
Q

When shall a SWITLIK be worn?

A

At or below 500’ AGL

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121
Q

When shall an anti-exposure suit be PROVIDED?

A

When water temp is 59 degrees or below and/or air tem is 32 or below. Decision to don suits shall be made by the AC based on the type and duration of the flight.

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122
Q

Who may fly during an FCF?

A

On personnel essential to the safe and proper conduct of the flight. Mech if requested.

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123
Q

Under what conditions shall the FCF be conducted?

A

Day VFR with min fuel and mission equipment off

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124
Q

When shall a FCF be conducted?

A

When the repair or alternation can appreciably change the flight characteristics of substantially affect the flight operation of the aircraft.

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125
Q

Where will the request for FCF be listed?

A

In the squawk section by the mech.

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126
Q

What is the limitations of the otter with regard to T-storms?

A

shall not be operated into areas of known or forecast thunderstorms unless the aircraft has operative weather radar, or the wx forecast indicates that the flight can be conducted through the area visually with adequate separation from the activity.

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127
Q

When can T-storms be penetrated?

A

NEVER, even with op radar

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128
Q

What should be considered during training maneuvers?

A
  1. Min 3000’2. Clearing turns3. Seat belts(7.22)
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129
Q

What is the on-going wx mins in regard to continuation of flight?

A

If conditions at the destination airfield and the listed alternate will not be at or above IAP mins at the ETA, the flight should not be continued. (7.23)

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130
Q

Does Foreflight replace the need for paper charts?

A

No, paper charts shall remain on board and be readily accessible by the flight crew at all times.

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131
Q

What shall be included in the approach breif other than what is listed on the IAP?

A
  1. Wx conditions2. Aircraft config3. Status of relevant equipment (de-ice, autopilot)(7.25)
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132
Q

What is the min chocking requirement?

A

Chock both main landing wheels, fore and aft

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133
Q

What shall be included in the post-flight debrief?

A
  1. Performance of equipment and personnel2. Completion of mission objectives3. Safety of flight issues(8.2)
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134
Q

When can you log instrument time?

A

Only when you are flying solely by reference to instruments and are the sole manipulator of the controls. The AC may not log inst time when performing role of PNF. (8.5)

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135
Q

What docs must be forwarded to AOC?

A
  1. Travel vouchers for travel exceeding 30 days2. Fuel receipts (8.7)
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136
Q

In the event of a disaster in the vicinity of the aircraft or flight crew, what must be the first action of the AC?

A

Make positive contact with a supervisor as soon as practical (phone call is the only method) (9.1)

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137
Q

The forecast winds at the field will be gusting to 25 knots, who should the aircraft be prepared?

A

Aircraft must AT LEAST be tied down facing into the wind

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138
Q

What is the forecast wind threshold requiring hangering the otter?

A

Forecast winds 36 to 70 knots

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139
Q

If aircraft security is questionable, what actions should be used as a security precaution?

A

Use of security tape on crew doors, baggage bays, access panels and mx compartments.

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140
Q

What should the AC do, it it is believed aircraft security has been compromised?

A

Immediately contact law enforcement officials and the CO.

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141
Q

What should the AC do in the event of a hijacking?

A

Immediately squawk 7500 and broadcast to ATC “NOAA56 squawking 7500”.Attempt to verbally dissuade hijackerPropose alternative, neutral landing sitesConfigure ICS to broadcast from remote stations other than flight compartment

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142
Q

What actions shall be accomplished prior to ADIZ crossings?

A
  1. Inform controlling agency (SEALORD, HUNTRESS)2. File DVFR with SEARCH AND RESCUE3. Monitor 121.5 and 243.04. Know your intercept procedures
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143
Q

What shall the AC ensure prior to international flights?

A

All crewmembers have official passports in hand even if the possibility of an emergency landing over the border is possible. (10.2)

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144
Q

When should international charts be ordered through Flight Ops?

A

60 days prior to leaving the US

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145
Q

Prior to international departure, what the AC’s role in regard to health?

A

The AC shall inform the AOC Medical Officer about scheduled international operations in sufficient time to complete immunizations prior to departure.

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146
Q

Who handles diplomatic clearances for international flights?

A

Programs

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147
Q

If a language barrier exists at an international location, what is recommended?

A

The use of an agent

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148
Q

What is important in regards to Foreign Nationals on board?

A

DoC and OMAO security must clear the national before they may board. Each national must have a sponsor who is responsible for meeting the Deemed Export Technology Control Program requirements

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149
Q

What shall the AC do when landing at a Airport of Entry?

A

Ensure all necessary customs and clearance forms are prepared and that everyone has appropriate passports and related docs.One crewmember must maintain control over individuals disembarking the Aircraft.

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150
Q

What is special about using MacDill as a Airport of Entry.

A

The AC must contact the Command Post prior to departure from international airport to request Customs.

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151
Q

What in regard to food should be minded when border crossing?

A

Avoid carrying food across the border when able.

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152
Q

According to the ops manual, if a crewmember refuses to fly because of fatigue what is the duty of the AC?

A

AC shall report this to the Chief of Ops. However, the AC should recognize this and call a down day if fatigue is an issue. (11.1)

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153
Q

What is to be done, if a waiver is required to extend flight duty limitations?

A

Request the extension through Appx D of 220-1-1 and submit through Chief of Ops to CO. (11.2)

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154
Q

When does crew duty start?

A

When a crewmember reports to designated place to begin preparations. However, this shall be no later than one hour before scheduled TO time. (must be => 1 hr) (11.3)

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155
Q

When does crew duty end?

A

One hour after block time in or upon completion of post-flight duties, whichever is later.

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156
Q

What is the crew duty limiation on a ComAir travel day?

A

ComAir travel day is considered duty day but requires only eight hours of crew after travel.

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157
Q

What is the max crew duty time with op autopilot?

A

16 hours

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158
Q

What is the max crew duty time with inop autopilot?

A

12 hours

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159
Q

What is the crew rest time requirement (except for comair travel days)?

A

12 hours rest

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160
Q

What is the exception in regards to working during a crew rest day?

A

Only preparations for the next ops day is allowed as long as the meeting is no longer than one hour and only includes essential personnel.

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161
Q

When shall a down day occur during deployment?

A

After six consecutive work or standby days

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162
Q

When shall a down day occur while not deployed?

A

After six consecutive flight days.

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163
Q

When shall a down day occur when not deployed (mix of work and flight days)?

A

After 11 work and flight days, however if consecutive flight days it is limited to six. (11.6b3)

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164
Q

When shall notification of a down day be given to the crew?

A

12 hours prior to the scheduled pre-flight meeting time

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165
Q

What the exception to the crew rest period in regard to non-mission flights less than 4 hours in duration?

A

The AC may recommend a crew rest period less than 12 hours and submit to Chief of Ops for approval

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166
Q

What is the max block/flight time per day?

A

12 hours

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167
Q

What is the max block/flight time per week?

A

60 hours

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168
Q

What is the max block/flight time per month?

A

120 hours

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169
Q

What is the max block/flight time per quarter?

A

320 hours

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170
Q

What is the max block/flight time per year?

A

1200 hours

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171
Q

When crossing multiple time zones what can be considered regarding crew rest?

A

AC may determine if a crew rest day is appropriate as a time zone reset.

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172
Q

What does the FAA altitude waiver entail?

A

SS may fly 500’AGL in congested areas and 500’ above obstacles in congested areas

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173
Q

What are the dangers of tall towers

A

Invisible guy wires that can spread half the hieght of the tower

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174
Q

What are the hazards of windfarms

A

Windsheer down wind of the farm because of the reduction of wind in the wash, and wing tip vortices.

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175
Q

What are the conditions required for a Mountain Wave to form?

A
  1. Winds >25kts (AIM says 15)2. Unstable low altitude air mass3. Winds must increase with altitude with constant direction4. Mountain range must be near perpendicular (less than 30 degrees) to the prevailing wind5. Overlying air must be stable
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176
Q

What is a Trapped Lee Wave?

A

When the stable layer is close to the mountain tops, it puts a lid on the wave which then continues to oscillate for hundreds of miles.

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177
Q

Where is the rotary turbulence?

A

Below each wave crest

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178
Q

What is a vertically propagating wave?

A

When the stable layer is much high, thereby the wave is more local as it does not reflect off the stable layer.

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179
Q

Where is the air most turbulent in a Trapped Lee Wave and a Vertically Propagating Wave?

A

Trapped Lee: Low AltitudesVertically Propagating: High Altitudes

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180
Q

What is the difference between a Standing Lenticular Cloud and a Rotor cloud.

A

Lenticular’s are at high altitude and indicate a wave below.Rotor clouds are round and are within the rotor itself.

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181
Q

What are capping clouds?

A

Clouds along the windward edge of the peak, where moisture has condensed.

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182
Q

What actions should be taken when caught in a downdraft?

A

Apply max power and establish Vy. If still descending, turn towards the downhill slope as down drafts are less severe below.

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183
Q

When flying through a valley, what is the safest direction of flight?

A

Always fly toward the lower end of the valley so you can always make the escape.

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184
Q

How should you approach a ridgeline?

A

45 degrees from the windward side

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185
Q

What is a visual cue that you are too low to cross a ridge?

A

The ridge in the background descends out of view.

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186
Q

What is the demarcation line and how should you approach?

A

The boundary between updrafts and downdrafts on the leeward side of the range. Always approach from above the demarcation line. Try to mentally picture where the line is based on terrain and wind direction and speed.

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187
Q

How can you tell if you are above the demaration line.

A

Use the rifle sight method. Pic a object on the far range and keep it visible above the closer pinnacle.

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188
Q

When flying in a canyon, what in regard to speed is most important.

A

Fly slow to better reaction time, tighter radius turns. Know what power settings give you your target airspeed so you don’t have to fumble.

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189
Q

What is the target airspeed in a tight canyon?

A

Vfe provides a good lift to drag ratio at a fairly slow but safe speed.

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190
Q

Why avoid windy days in the mountains and canyons?

A

Since you are already flying slow at Vfe plus the downdrafts around mountains and canyons is a bad combo.

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191
Q

Where should you fly within a canyon?

A

Always fly downstream (towards lower terrain) and keep to one side to give yourself an out (lower) and provides passing room for a meeting situation.

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192
Q

Only when can you depart from the DPs?

A

In clearly VMC conditions

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193
Q

What do you do if you loose situational awareness in mountainous terrain?

A

180 and climb Vx

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194
Q

What type of TO should be executed even on long runways at high elevations?

A

Max performance static takeoffs

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195
Q

Always know your MSA (min safe altitude)

A

1

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196
Q

Why is the TO roll longer at higher DAs?

A

At the same indicated airspeed, your TAS and GS will be higher thus you will cover more distance prior to Vr.

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197
Q

What altitude should you never climb higher than in mountainous terrain?

A

No more than 50% of your single service ceiling unless you are sure of your capabilities.

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198
Q

When should be concerned with cold wx altimeter corrections?

A
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199
Q

Should you automatically fly with the cold wx altitude correction?

A

No, you must fly the altitude assigned by ATC.

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200
Q

Cooler nights make the winds fall down the valley causing…

A

turbulence

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201
Q

How do you avoid mountain waves?

A
  1. Flying 3-5000 feet above the peaks2. Climb to altitude 100 miles from the range3. Approach range at 45 degrees4. Avoid if winds aloft are greater than 25 knots
202
Q

What are the wind conditions for go/no-go mountain flying decision per snow survey and the AIM?

A

25kts per snow survey because of ops.AIM says 35kts winds aloft.

203
Q

What is a quick preflight tool for determining density altitude along stop overs?

A

FSS will calculate the density altitude of fields on request.

204
Q

At what Ng do the secondary fuel nozzles engage?

A

38% Ng

205
Q

What is indicated by the 400 cycle light?

A

Loss of 26VAC, not necessarily a loss of an inverter.

206
Q

If all AC components are working and the 400 cycle light is on, what could it indicate?

A

Popped 400~ circuit breaker (fuse)

207
Q

The 400 cycle light itself is powered by what bus?

A

DC bus of the opposite side

208
Q

When the inverter is switched to EMER, what is happening?

A

The EMER bus side is now powered by the side switched to NORMAL.

209
Q

How is are the AC avionics powered?

A

The Avionics transformer uses system 115 VAC and converts it to 26VAC. This also powers the AHRS in the G600.See the avionics fuses.

210
Q

Where are the current limiters on the otter?

A

Three above the third aisle seat and 3 in the battery box.

211
Q

What are the current limiters?

A

Slow burning fuses that melt if during battery overcharging for prolonged periods.

212
Q

How will a melted current limiter after operations?

A

Loss of a current limiter will reduce the amperage to and from the battery.

213
Q

How can you detect a melted current limiter?

A

Either on the next start or if power loss after generators are turned off.

214
Q

What is the purpose of the distribution breakers?

A

Prevents total failure of the entire bus by isolating the fault.

215
Q

Where is are the distribution breakers?

A

Next to their associated fuse panel.

216
Q

What happens when a distribution breaker pops?

A

Power will still be available to the bus but current is limited.

217
Q

What do you do when the distribution break pops?

A

NEVER reset it.

218
Q

Where is the voltage regulator?

A

On the forward starboard side of the baggage compartment.

219
Q

What are you testing when you check the load and volts?

A

The equalizing circuit of the voltage regulator.

220
Q

What does the Generator Light indicate?

A

An open Reverse Current Relay or generator failure.

221
Q

Where is the reverse current relays?

A

Above the right side of aisle 3.

222
Q

What is above the right seat in aisle 3?

A

Reverse Current Relay, Bus Tie Relay and 3 Current Limiters

223
Q

What prevents ground power from charging the batteries?

A

The External Power RelayLocated under the baggage floor.

224
Q

You have two generator lights on…how much electrical power do you have remaining?

A

20 minutes

225
Q

What will happen if you have a dual generator failure and you open the bus tie?

A

Only the right generator light will now remain on.The battery is powering the light on the left bus only.

226
Q

Where is the generator reset breaker?

A

In the nacelleContinuing to reset the generator will not do anything.

227
Q

How long will the backup Attitude indicator last with a loss of power?

A

10 hoursRemember, you can still fly with it on 56 and 46 (has airspeed and altimeter).

228
Q

When turning off the left bus to isolate a fire, what important step should you remember?

A

Turn off the Battery switch too.

229
Q

What you should stop and think about first with an electrical fire?

A

What systems are no longer working?

230
Q

What does the scientific power override switch do?

A

Prevents automatic load shedding if a generator is lost.

231
Q

Vmc

A

64 (with flaps 10)

232
Q

Vx

A

87

233
Q

Vy

A

100

234
Q

Vyse

A

80 (flaps10)

235
Q

Vfe (flaps 10)

A

103

236
Q

Vfe (flaps >10)

A

93

237
Q

Vmo

A

166 (to 6700)156 (to 10000)

238
Q

Va

A

132

239
Q

Vb (gust)

A

132

240
Q

Why does the Otter not have a Vne?

A

Because control surfaces will start to flutter beyond Vmo.

241
Q

Max torque

A

50psi

242
Q

Max torque for no more than 2 seconds

A

68.7psi

243
Q

How long is reverse power limited to?

A

1 minute

244
Q

Max T5 on start (max max)

A

1090 as long as decreases below 980 within 2 seconds1090-980-2

245
Q

Max T5 on start

A

925 as long as decreases within 10 seconds925-10

246
Q

At what starting T5 should you report the incident to a mechanic?

A

> 850

247
Q

Max T5 on Take off (labeled)

A

725

248
Q

Max T5 during cruise (labeled)

A

695

249
Q

Max T5 at idle

A

660

250
Q

Max emergency T5

A

825 ( for 2 seconds)

251
Q

MAx T5 in reverse

A

725

252
Q

Max Ng

A

101.6 (2 seconds)

253
Q

Max emergency Ng

A

102.6

254
Q

Max Np

A

96%

255
Q

Max emergency Np

A

110

256
Q

Max Np in reverse

A

91 +/-1

257
Q

Normal operating Oil Press

A

80-100

258
Q

Ground Min oil pressure

A

40

259
Q

Min starting oil temp

A

-40

260
Q

Min operating oil temp

A

Oct-99

261
Q

How is the reverse Np governed?

A

By the Np governor, limited to 91% to prevent the constant speed gov from engaging.

262
Q

What are the limitations for using AVGAS in the otter?

A
  1. Ambient temperature must be less than 25 degrees C2. Max ceiling is 15,000 feet3. All four boost pumps must be operational.4. Must record amount of AVGAS in tanks5. No more than 150 hours throughout overhaul cycle.
263
Q

Loadmeter reads >0.5 on the ground, what should you do?

A

Increase Ng to Idle+15

264
Q

What is the maximum Loadmeter reading on the ground for proper cooling above 7 C?

A

0.8

265
Q

What are the starter time limitations?

A

40 seconds…one minute cooling40 seconds…one minute cooling40 seconds….30 minutes cooling

266
Q

Maximum operating altitude…

A

25,000 feet

267
Q

Service ceiling

A

24,380 feet

268
Q

What is the max landing weight of the otter?

A

12,300 lbs

269
Q

What is the load limit in nose baggage?

A

300 lbs

270
Q

What is the load limit in aft baggage and the shelf?

A

500/150 which is included as part of the 500

271
Q

Why does the POH specify 10 flap landings are abnormal and only for icing conditions?

A

Land speeds may exceed the design speed of the nose wheel

272
Q

What is the correction factor for the performance charts for flap 20 landings

A

130% of that charted

273
Q

Is the otter approved for lazy eights and chandelles?

A

No, because it is in the normal category

274
Q

Do we comply with FAR 36 noise limitations?

A

Yes, although we do not operate at Np 91 we do bring Np to 75 after 400 feet.

275
Q

What are the required placards to be posted in the cockpit?

A
  1. Category and speed limits2. Kinds of operation aircraft is certified for3. Airspeed limitations4. Generator load limits5. Engine fire instructions6. Autopilot limitations7. Use of flaps during and after icing
276
Q

The autopilot is certified for what type of coupled approaches

A

Cat 1 ILS

277
Q

Min altitude for autopilot operation

A

500 feet AGL, 200 AGL on coupled approach

278
Q

Before engaging autopilot, ensure the aircraft is….

A

trimmed

279
Q

Maximum airspeed for autopilot use

A

Vmo

280
Q

Minimum airspeed for autopilot use

A

85kts with flaps 10

281
Q

Min airspeed for autopilot use during single engine ops

A

105kts

282
Q

Only override autopilot on

A

ground checks or to overcome a malfunction

283
Q

Max flaps for autopilot use

A

Flaps 10

284
Q

In severe icing you must ….. the autopilot

A

disengage

285
Q

Inop autofx Vmc

A

68 with flaps 10

286
Q

Only when can you refuel the tip tanks

A

Ground operations only

287
Q

Always use tip tank fuel…

A

prior to the point of no return

288
Q

Tip tanks can only be used at what stage of flight

A

Enroute only

289
Q

What type of oxygen is only to be useed

A

Aviator’s Breathing Oxygen MIL-O-27210

290
Q

What is the first operating condition of the deice system?

A

De-iceing system must be completely operative

291
Q

What is the second operating condition of the deice system?

A

De-ice boots must be used prior to flap extension

292
Q

What is the third operating condition of the deice system?

A

Ng > 75% (unless you have the tail plane deice boot lights installed)

293
Q

What is the fourth operating condition of the deice system?

A

Flap angle must not exceed 10

294
Q

What is the fifth operating condition of the deice system?

A

Intake deflectors must be extended during flight in snow or icing conditions

295
Q

What is the sixth operating condition of the deice system?

A

Intentional flight in severe icing is prohibited

296
Q

What is the Otter’s Wingspan?

A

65 feet

297
Q

What is the Otter’s total height?

A

18’7”

298
Q

What is the Otter’s fuselage height?

A

9’1”

299
Q

What is the turning radius of the wingtip?

A

48 feet

300
Q

Whatt is the turning radius of the nose wheels?

A

22 feet

301
Q

What is the turning radius of the outer wheels?

A

20 feet

302
Q

Min width of surface for 180 degree turn?

A

42 feet (think of 50’ wide runway is the min)

303
Q

What is the min wingtip clearance for 180 turn?

A

96 feet

304
Q

Engine Model?

A

PT6A-27

305
Q

Propeller model?

A

Hartzell HC B3TN-3D

306
Q

Prop Diameter?

A

8’6”

307
Q

Max TO weight?

A

12,500lbs

308
Q

Max landing weight?

A

12,300lbs

309
Q

Max cabin floor loading?

A

200lbs/ft^2

310
Q

Baggage compartments loading?

A

100lbs/ft^2

311
Q

Nose bag weight limit?

A

300 lbs

312
Q

Rear bag limit?

A

500lbs 150 of which in shelf

313
Q

Main door opening size?

A

56”X50”

314
Q

Load factors?

A

+3.17g to -1.5g

315
Q

Gust load factors?

A

+3.19g to -1.63g

316
Q

Max ceiling?

A

25,000

317
Q

Max alt for air start?

A

20,000

318
Q

Max alt for using AVGAS?

A

15,000

319
Q

How much does Yvse decrease per 1000 lbs less than max?

A

4kts down to 71kts

320
Q

What is the max demo crosswind?

A

20kts

321
Q

What fuel can the Otter accept?

A

Jet A, A1, B, JP-4/5/8 AVGAS

322
Q

What is the capacity of the FWD tanks?

A

1235lbs

323
Q

What is the capacity of the AFT tanks?

A

1341lbs

324
Q

What is the capacity of each wing tank?

A

287lbs

325
Q

What is the engine oil requirement?

A

ESSO 2380

326
Q

What is the hydraulic requirements?

A

MIL-H-5606

327
Q

What is the nose tire pressure?

A

32psi

328
Q

What is the main tire pressure?

A

38psi

329
Q

Max T5 for Take-off?

A

725

330
Q

MAx T5 for Max Cruise?

A

695

331
Q

Max T5 for Idle?

A

660

332
Q

Max T5 for Starting?

A

1090-980-2 or 925-10

333
Q

Max T5 for Accelerations?

A

825

334
Q

Max T5 for Reverse

A

725

335
Q

Max Ng?

A

101.5

336
Q

Max Accel Ng?

A

102.6

337
Q

Max Acceration Np?

A

110

338
Q

Oil Pressure other than idle?

A

80-100

339
Q

Oil Pressure at idle?

A

Min 40

340
Q

Oil Temp for take-off

A

Oct-99

341
Q

Oil Temp for Starting and Idle

A

-139

342
Q

Oil Temp for other than Starting, Idle and TO

A

0-99

343
Q

Vs

A

73

344
Q

Vso

A

66

345
Q

Vs flaps 20

A

61

346
Q

Vs flaps 37 (Vs1)

A

56

347
Q

Should you chip ice from the airframe?

A

No, use Type 1 deice fluid

348
Q

What is a “cold-soaking” tip tank?

A

When descending from high altitudes, ice can develop on the tip tank skin as fuel remains cold.

349
Q

What are symptoms of TAIL STALL?

A
  1. Lightening of the controls2. Difficulty trimming3. Pitch excursionsUsually noticed after flap extension as tail AOA has increased
350
Q

What are SLDs?

A

Supercooled Liquid Droplets:Larger droplets than aircraft certified for.Accumulates beyond de-ice systems.

351
Q

Under what conditions can icing occur?

A

+2C - -20C plus visible moisture

352
Q

When departing in

A

crew must review and/or brief cold weather engine ops, taxi, TO, landing procedures, icing and deicing procedures

353
Q

What additional 3 pre-flight checks must be done in cold weather ops?

A
  1. Check airframe for ice or frost, deice if present2. Check tire pressure3. Visually check deice boots
354
Q

What are the 6 de-ice systems that must be checked on the ground?

A
  1. Pitot heat2. Valve heat3. Prop de-ice4. Windshield heat5. De-ice botts (NG >70%)6. Intake Deflectors (Ng >80%)
355
Q

Do not spray de-ice fluid…

A
  1. Into flight control hinges2. Directly on windows3. In pitot/static ports4. Directly on stall warning tabs5. With engines on (if must bleeds off)
356
Q

What type of ANTI-ice fluid is only to be used and why?

A

Type III, because it sheds below Vr at 30kts

357
Q

How do you apply de/anti-ice fluid

A

Parallel to surfaces identical to the slipstream. Try to avoid the bleed air heat exchanger vent on the top of aircraft.

358
Q

Why do you push props forward during start if OAT

A

This engages the FCU to properly meter fuel at low Ng. Feathering engages an idler jet which can lead to a lean mixture in cold air.

359
Q

What is a concern during cold weather?

A

Possible temperature inversion at altitude which can fog up the windshield. Turn on windshield heat if suspected.

360
Q

What is hazardous about approaches after icing conditions?

A

De-ice system can only assist on the leading edges. Assume every post-icing approach is one with heavy airframe icing.

361
Q

When should intake deflectors be used?

A

In snow or icing conditions.

362
Q

What to the tailplane boot lights indicate?

A

Only that sufficient pressure is being supplied to the boots.

363
Q

Taking off in cold fog you should…

A

Turn on pitot and valve heat during takeoff

364
Q

De-ice systems to turn on before entering icing conditions…(3)

A
  1. Prop Deice2. Windshield heat3. Intake Deflectors
365
Q

De-ice systems to turn on after ice accumulation…(3)

A
  1. Bleeds ON2. De-ice boots AUTO3. Rate FAST
366
Q

What shall you do if airspeed reduces by 20kts in icing? (3)

A
  1. Climb or Descend immediately2. Notify ATC (declare emergency if necessary)3. Avoid flaps until approach (10 flaps only)
367
Q

What 6 items need to be completed for flight into severe icing?

A
  1. Autopilot OFF2. IGNITERS Manual3. Intake Deflectors EXTEND4. Props MAX rpm5. Max power > 125 kts6. All de-icing equiptment ON
368
Q

What is the definition of Severe icing conditions? (4)

A
  1. Accretion aft of de-ice surfaces2. Accretion on aft part of spinner3. Accretion on side windows4. Airspeed loss of 10kts or more
369
Q

Concerning Ng, what should be done in icing conditions?

A

Ng as high as possible to supply ample bleed air pressure.

370
Q

After icing conditions, what must be completed before flap extension?

A

Cycle de-ice boots three times before flap extension

371
Q

What types of icing is the Otter certified for?

A

Trace - Light - Moderate Icing only

372
Q

De-ice systems to turn on with

A
  1. Pitot heat2. Intake Deflectors3. Valve heat4. Bleed air switches
373
Q

During an instrument approach in icing conditions, what modifications to the approach should you consider? (2)

A
  1. Stay on top until GS intercept2. Do not accept intermediate step downs
374
Q

What are the conditions associated with Wing Stall? (2)

A
  1. High AOA2. Low Airspeed
375
Q

What are the conditions associated with Tailplane Stall? (2)

A
  1. Low AOA2. Flaps are down
376
Q

What is the recovery procedure for Tailplane Stall? (3)

A
  1. Pull BACK on the yoke2. Raise the FLAPS3. Reduce power (especially on high wing aircraft)
377
Q

What will the boots do when Bleed air is ON and flaps are extended between 5-12 degrees?

A

Horizontal stab boots will pulse twice

378
Q

What will the boots do when Bleed air is ON and flaps are extended more than 17 degrees?

A

Horizontal stab boots will pulse and additional two times

379
Q

How should the approach speed be altered after icing?

A

Increase approach speeds by 5kts but no more else TAIL STALL!!

380
Q

Additional preflight checks in cold weather… (3)

A
  1. Surface clear of ice/frost2. Tire pressure adequate3. Inspect condition of Boots
381
Q

In cold wx conditions what should be included in takeoff brief?

A

Icing procedures

382
Q

What is the remedy for fogged windows on ground?

A

Use the fans to defrost rather than windshield heat

383
Q

How should you exit severe icing?

A
  1. Climb or Descend2. Make a 180 degree turn
384
Q

What part of the cloud has the worst icing?

A

The tops, that is why always better to descend

385
Q

You hear ice hitting airframe from props, what intensity of icing?

A

Moderate

386
Q

What are the Icing Safety outlets? (5)

A
  1. Climb (if you can outclimb cloud)2. Descend (if you can get warmer than Frz lvl)3. Continue (if exiting cloud soon)4. Divert (if worsening)5. Return (if worse than briefed)
387
Q

What type of precip should exit IMMEDIATELY?

A

FREEZING RAIN/DRIZZLE

388
Q

What is important to remember about planning to use the de-icing equipment through known icing?

A

De-icing systems are a defense to buy more time.Never intentionally plan a route through icingAlways plan an out

389
Q

What 5 things should you ask a briefer prior to flying a route into icing conditions?

A
  1. Ceilings2. Cloud tops3. Freezing level4. PIREPS5. Frontal Activity
390
Q

What safety documents must be presented and/or signed by each non-crewmember?

A

209-124: NOAA Aviation Safety Policy Handbook220-1-1 Appendix A: Crewmember guidelines and information (with Release and Waiver)

391
Q

Whom does the policy apply?

A

All NOAA personnel flying on any aircraft in the performance of their official duties.

392
Q

Because NOAA operates Public Use aircraft not under the jurisdiction of the FARs, what does 41 CFR 102-33 require of our agency?

A

To develop agency-specific flight program standards that meet or exceed applicable civil or military rules.

393
Q

Section 4 of 209-124 specifies that all qualified non-crewmembers must be (2 items)…

A
  1. Appropriately trained in aviation safety specified in 209-124 Section 82. Provided with Aviation Life Support Equipment
394
Q

What is the NTSB definition of an “accident?”

A

Occurrence … between the time any persons boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked in which any person suffers DEATH or SERIOUS INJURY or in which the aircraft receives SUBSTANTIAL DAMAGE.

395
Q

What is the definition of a Crewmember?

A

Person performing duties directly related to or assisting the operation of the aircraft (anyone listed on the schedule from AOC…PIC,SIC,FE,NAV,FD,IFT,MECH)

396
Q

What is the definition of an incident?

A

Other than accident which affects the safety of operations.

397
Q

What is the definition of an observer?

A

Non-qualified non-crewmember who monitors performance of flight.Shall not be granted more than once every four months or more than 3 times per year.Must complete online training specified in 209-124i.e. VIPS

398
Q

What is the definition of a Qualified Non-Crewmember? Do the requirements change for non-NOAA crewmembers?

A

Qualified (trained per 209-124 section 8) to perform skills associated with performing governmental function for which the aircraft is being operated.Has received a pre-flight safety briefingPossesses Aviation Life Support Equipment per 209-124 section 8NO

399
Q

Who comprises the NOAA Aviation Safety Board?

A

Members fromAOCNOAA Safety and Environmental ComplianceRepresentatives from all of the line officesGeneral Counsel RepAcquisitions RepWorkforce Management Rep

400
Q

What is the only designation given to non-crewmembers who do not possess Aviation Safety Training?

A

ObserversOnly good for once every 4 months and no more than 3 times per year

401
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring all non-crewmembers have the required safety training?

A

Principle Investigator

402
Q

When should incidents be reported?

A

Within 24 hours

403
Q

When should serious incidents ($1M / Death / Hospitalize 3 or more / Disabled) and accidents be reported?

A

No later than 8 hours

404
Q

Who must approve an OBSERVER aboard a NOAA aircraft?

A

Ops Boss and CO

405
Q

Can a PI claim one of his aerial observers as an “observer” according to the regs?

A

Up to the discretion of the Ops boss and CO

406
Q

What is the NOAA-WIDE aviation safety policy?

A

209-124

407
Q

What is the AOC specific safety policy?

A

220-1-4

408
Q

If a VIP flys aboard a NOAA aircraft, when is the next time they can fly?

A

After four months have passed, this rule can not be abused by flying two consecutive days and claiming the four month clock has restarted

409
Q

Does an “observer” require a safety brief?

A

Yes, the only thing the “observer” does not have is aviation safety training.

410
Q

Although the PI is responsible for the safety training of his team, what is the AC responsibility?

A

Question the PI as to if they have received the traning.

411
Q

What does NOHRSC stand for?

A

National Operational Hydrologic Remote Sensing Center

412
Q

What are the typical dimensions of the flight lines?

A

10 nm long 1000ft wide area 2-3 sq miles

413
Q

What is the product of the aerial survey?

A

Mean aerial soil moisture equivalent measurements which provide a representative sample of the survey area

414
Q

What happens with the data?

A

Raw data is checked for accuracy by NOHRSC entered into SHEF and set to the NCRFC (River forecasting center)

415
Q

Approximately how many flight lines are there?

A

2475 lines in 25 of the northern most states plus 7 Canadian Provinces

416
Q

How are the lines determined?

A

Areas in the northern areas of the country and mountainous regions where significant snow is expected

417
Q

What time of year is the snow survey/soil moisture conducted?

A

Year round

418
Q

What becomes of the survey data?

A

The data is used to generate River and flood forecasts water supply forecasts and spring flow outlooks

419
Q

What are sources of gamma radiation?

A

Gamma decay of naturally occurring radioisotopes and atmospheric interactions with cosmic ray particles

420
Q

What are the principle contributors to the Terrestrial Gamma Radiation?

A

Potassium Uranium and Thorium

421
Q

What other sources are detected by Rad Assist?

A

Airbourne Radon daughters cosmic rays and the radioactivity within the aircraft structure.

422
Q

How are other gamma emittors flitered out?

A

The calibration process removes these additional contributors to isolate gamma associated with the Snow Water Equivalent

423
Q

Where in the soil is the gamma radiation emitted from?

A

The upper 8 inches of the soil containing the Pot Ur and Thor

424
Q

What is a gamma ray?

A

High energy high frequency electromagnetic emmision between x-ray and cosmic ray frequencies

425
Q

How is the gamma radiation effected by the soil moisture?

A

Water attenuates the terrestrial radiation signal. The SWE is determined by comparing the snow covered data with the radiation attenuation over bare ground. Therefore SWE is measured from the attenuationi of the radiation signal solely from water mass.

426
Q

What are cosmic rays?

A

Energetically charged subatomic particles(protons, helium and electrons (1%)) originating in outer space.

427
Q

What is the purpose of the cosmic flight lines?

A

To isolate purely the aircraft and cosmic contributions to the gamma spectrum and remove them from the SWE equation

428
Q

How are cosmic flights flown?

A

At high altitudes (to reduce terrestrial interferance) lines separated by at least 3000ft flown over lakes where radon concentrations are low

429
Q

How does radon affect the system?

A

Radon alters the Uranium readings causing errors in the data

430
Q

Why would crystal attenuation be lost at high altitudes?

A

The low concentration of particles is so low that the crystals stop working

431
Q

What exactly is the crystal?

A

Sodium Iodine salt

432
Q

How does the NaI detect gamma?

A

When activated with thallium and subjected to ionized radiation emits photons which is detected by scientillation (light to voltage) material

433
Q

Why must be crystals be contained in a hermetically sealed assembly?

A

NaI is hydroscopic

434
Q

What is the name of the Gamma detector onboard?

A

Radiation Solutions RSX-5

435
Q

How many crystals are in the RSX-5?

A

4 downward facing and 1 upward facing

436
Q

What are the temperature limitations of the crystals?

A

“-30C to +45C” however avoid rapid temperature shocks

437
Q

What is the first sequence of events for gamma detection?

A
  1. Crystals convert gamma to light
438
Q

What is the second sequence of events for gamma detection?

A
  1. photomultiplier converts to electrical signal
439
Q

What is the third sequence of events for gamma detection?

A
  1. digitally analyzied by Advanced Digital Spectrometer (ADS)
440
Q

What is the fourth sequence of events for gamma detection?

A
  1. Rad-Assist monitors data real-time
441
Q

What is the fifth sequence of events for gamma detection?

A
  1. Counts are then fed to the Airboarne Gamma Data Acquisition Software (AGDAS) to determine SWE/Soil Moisture/background data
442
Q

What atmospheric conditions must be factored into the SWE equation?

A

Distance from the ground (source) Temperature Pressure

443
Q

Why must the atmospheric conditions be used in the SWE equation?

A

Density of the air mass can cause an error of 0.95cm

444
Q

What three atmospheric sensors must be operational for snow survey?

A

Radar altimeter Temperature sensor Pressure sensor

445
Q

Where does the RSX-5 obtain temperature and pressure?

A

Through hard connections with the aircrafts Air Data Computer (ADC)

446
Q

What does one inch of mercury equate to in altitude?

A

1000ft

447
Q

What is the BG.dat file?

A

Contains the estimated back ground correction data for each line determined from previous surveys

448
Q

What is an important fall data check with regards to the BG.dat file?

A

The background data must contain expected conditions for every line at the time of future airbourne SWE for the coming winter

449
Q

What is required for each line to a successful survey?

A

A correct Mean Soil Moisture estimate for each line

450
Q

What is the first primary set contained in the BG.dat file?

A

Values for K Th and Gross Counts representing counts needed to calculate a normalized 25% SM value

451
Q

What is the second primary set contained in the BG.dat file?

A

List of values which reporesent and estimate of the soil moisture values for each line or an actual SM value if line has been flown (Date flown Rounded SM value Background data)

452
Q

Who requests the surveys?

A

River Forecasting Center and the Weather Forecasting Office requests surveys of river basins for hydrologic and forecast models

453
Q

How are is the data disemilated?

A

SWE values are provided to NWS in SHEF format and distributed via AWIPS to NOHRSC data assimilation program and incorporated into the NSA

454
Q

What is the first of the four general aspects of the Aerial Survey?

A

Radiation sensed from low flying aircraft

455
Q

What is the second of the four general aspects of the Aerial Survey?

A

Water mass attenuates the radiation signal

456
Q

What is the third of the four general aspects of the Aerial Survey?

A

The difference between the raw gamma values and the MSM equals the SWE

457
Q

What is the forth of the four general aspects of the Aerial Survey?

A

Measures attenuation of radiation signal due solely to the intervening water mass

458
Q

What is the first of the five limitations of the system?

A

Can determine up to 39 inches of water

459
Q

What is the second of the five limitations of the system?

A

Does not measure snow depth

460
Q

What is the third of the five limitations of the system?

A

Not sensitive to phase of water

461
Q

What is the fourth of the five limitations of the system?

A

Accounts for moisture in the atmosphere

462
Q

What is the fifth of the five limitations of the system?

A

Vegetation does not affect the readings

463
Q

What are the dimensions of the flight line coverage?

A

10 mi long, 100ft wide covering 2-3 sq mi

464
Q

What is the soil moisture estimate usually set at?

A

35%, which is the typical field holding capacity

465
Q

After both the soil moisture and SWE flights have been flown, how can inaccuracies be accounted for?

A

If the hydrologists believe the soil contains more moisture than orginal estimates (due to drought) then the amount of SWE calculated during the second flight would be reduced.

466
Q

What are three inaccuracies of the aerial survey?

A
  1. Systematically underestimate SWE values 2. Not representative of the overall area 3. 1000 ground samples are needed to get a good comparison with the aerial data.
467
Q

What is the weight of the cage assembly?

A

320lbs

468
Q

What does the DPU (Data Processing Unit) do?

A

Collects the raw data from the RSX-5 crystals, stores and processes the data for use by RadAssist.

469
Q

What is the purpose of RadAssist?

A

Displays currect status of the gamma spectrum, GPS health and tuning data from the DPU.

470
Q

What are the 3 DPU inputs?

A
  1. 28VDC 2. GPS (built-in but utilizes aircraft antenna 3. Pressure Altitude (air mass density) 4. Absolute Altitude (RadAlt for depth of air mass calculations) 5. Temperature (manually inputted through AGDAS)
471
Q

What does AGDAS stand for?

A

Airborne Gamma Data Acquisition System

472
Q

What is the purpose of the AGDAS?

A

Uses the data to calculte Snow Water Equivalent values.

473
Q

What is the purpose of the network switch?

A

Connects the DPU, AGDAS and the RadAssist Laptop.

474
Q

Why does the system require DC power?

A

For the radar altimeter.

475
Q

The GPS splitter provides antenna input to what devices?

A

the DPU and the Garmin 496.

476
Q

What is the temperature tolerance of the RSx-5?

A

“-30C to +45C” however avoid rapid temperature shocks

477
Q

What is the 1/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

Pilot must be at the flight controls with seat belt fastened

478
Q

What is the 2/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

Autopilot certified for CAT 1 coupled ILS approaches

479
Q

What is the 3/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

Min altitude for AP op other than during coupled approaches is 500 feet AGL

480
Q

What is the 4/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

On a coupled ILS approach, the AP must be disengaged at or above 200ft above runway elevation

481
Q

What is the 5/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

AP must not be engaged during TO and landing

482
Q

What is the 6/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

Do not engage AP if airplane is out of trim

483
Q

What is the 7/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

Max speed for AP op is Vmo

484
Q

What is the 8/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

Min speed for AP op with flaps 10 is 85KTS

485
Q

What is the 9/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

Min speed for AP op with single engine is 105KTS

486
Q

What is the 10/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

Do not override AP except for ground checks or to overcome malfunction while simultaneously disengaging

487
Q

What is the 11/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

Max flap setting with AP is 10 degrees

488
Q

What is the 12/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

Coupled ILS approaches are only permitted with both engines operating

489
Q

What is the 13/13 of the autopilot limitations?

A

AP must be disengaged in severe icing

490
Q

If the AP is inop, what restrictions are implemented with regard to duty time?

A

Crew duty time is now limited to 12 hours

491
Q

What is required >50 nm from shore?

A

Life Preserver

492
Q

What is 1 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins

A

Life Preserver with locator light

493
Q

What is 2 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins

A

Liferaft of capacity with locator light

494
Q

What is 3 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins

A

Pyrotechnic per liferaft

495
Q

What is 4 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins

A

Waterproof emergency radio signalling device

496
Q

What is 5 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins

A

Lifeline

497
Q

What is 6 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins

A

Two radios capable of comms

498
Q

What is 7 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins

A

Nav radios for air space

499
Q

What is 8 of 8 items required for over water flight more than 30 mins

A

One HF if required for comms

500
Q

What additional piece of equipment must be with liferaft?

A

Survival kit

Twin Otter (1 decks)

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