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E6 SWE > Marine/Maritime Ops > Flashcards

Marine/Maritime Ops Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MLEM Manual?

A

COMDTINST M16247.1

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2
Q

What is the MSRO Manual?

A

COMDTINST M16600.6

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3
Q

What is the Risk Management Manual?

A

COMDTINST M3500.3A

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4
Q

What Appendix are Command Center QRCs on?

A

Appendix B of the Command Center QRC, CG-TTP 3-56.1

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5
Q

How many MARSEC tiers are there?

A

3 Tiers (MARSEC 1, 2, 3)

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6
Q

Which Act prohibits the unlawful transportation of wildlife?

A

Lacey Act

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7
Q

Which Act protects the illegal fishing within the EEZ?

A

Magnuson-Stevens Conservation Act

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8
Q

How many levels in the “Use of Force”?

A

6 Levels
1. Officer presence
2. Verbal commands
3. Control techniques
4. Aggressive response techniques
5. Intermediate weapons
6. Deadly force

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9
Q

Maintains awareness of current and predicted weather conditions and its effects on planned and emergent operations

A

All positions

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10
Q

Track and monitor status, readiness, and location of blue forces

A

Situation Unit Controller

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11
Q

Track, evaluate, and communicate the potential weather impact on SAR operations. Make recommendations for SAR coverage adjustments based on current/anticipated weather conditions

A

Situation Unit Controller

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12
Q

Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) for a recreational vessel

A

0.08 BAC

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13
Q

Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) for a commercial vessel

A

0.04 BAC

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14
Q

A Security Zone is described as a/an _____.

A

Area designated by the COTP to prevent damage or injury to vessels or facilities

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15
Q

What publication includes data on the time sand strengths on flood and ebb currents and the time of slack water?

A

Tidal Current Tables

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16
Q

What publication allows you to determine the daily tide predictions?

A

Tide Tables

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17
Q

What publications list all marine and salvage assets in your AOR?

A

Area Maritime Security Plan and SARFAC

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18
Q

Who is in charge of fisheries regulations?

A

NOAA

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19
Q

What is a restricted area that is in place for the safety of facilities?

A

Security zone

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20
Q

What is the Boarding Officer job aid kit?

A

BOJAK

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21
Q

What is the temporary restriction of someone’s movement?

A

Detention

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22
Q

What is the COMDTINST for the MLEM?

A

COMDTINST M16247.1E

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23
Q

What is the common title for the person that serves as a unit public affairs point of contact?

A

PAO (Public Affairs Officer)

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24
Q

Which is a step in the risk assessment decision matrix?

A

Identify the options to reduce the risk of

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25
Q

National MSRAM Maritime Critical Infrastructure and Key Resources list is maintained on the secure ______ SIPRNET website

A

CG-532

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26
Q

Which is NOT a decision-making principle of ORM?

A

Take appropriate action regardless of risk

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27
Q

What range is categorized “RED” when using the GAR model?

A

45-60

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28
Q

Which is a model of the Operational Risk Process?

A

PEACE

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29
Q

MSRAM analysis and other risk analysis factors form the basis for exceptions, additions, and deletions to the ____.

A

National Maritime Critical Infrastructure and Key Resources list

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30
Q

What model of ORM is used to identify Options?

A

STAAR

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31
Q

The Coast Guard’s primary risk based decision-making model for the PWCS mission is ______.

A

MSRAM

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32
Q

Which of the following is an example of how a low GAR score may be misleading with respect to evaluating all potential risks associated with a mission?

A

Supervision= 1, Planning and Preparation= 1, Crew Selection= 1, Crew Fitness= 1, Environment= 7, Mission Complexity= 1, Overall GAR= 12

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33
Q

Which risk management model uses the colors red, green, and amber?

A

GAR

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34
Q

What is the third step in the ORM process?

A

Assess the risk

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35
Q

Which risk management model is used to identify what can go wrong with a plan?

A

PEACE

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36
Q

What is the fifth step in the ORM process?

A

Evaluate risk vs. gain

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37
Q

How many steps are in the ORM process?

A

Seven

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38
Q

Operational Commanders shall coordinate MSRAM updates using inputs from _____ subject matter experts.

A

Response, Prevention, Recovery and Planning

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39
Q

What does the acronym “GAR” stand for?

A

Green, Amber, Red

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40
Q

Who designated spaces as restricted areas?

A

Cognizant Security Manager

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41
Q

Which risk management model is used to determine if risks are acceptable or unacceptable?

A

STAAR

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42
Q

Who is responsible for overseeing the administration, operation, and maintenance of Aids to Navigation (ATON) systems?

A

Captain of the Port (COTP)

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43
Q

A vessel that violates a Limited Access Areas (LAAs) is subject to _____ authority.

A

Captain of the Port (COTP)

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44
Q

A vessel that violates cargo safety laws and regulations is subject to _____ authority.

A

Captain of the Port (COTP)

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45
Q

Who is responsible for directing the enforcement of port/waterways safety laws and regulations, vessel operations safety laws and regulations, and facility operations safety laws and regulations?

A

Captain of the Port (COTP)

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46
Q

Who is responsible for enforcing all pollution prevention laws and regulations?

A

Captain of the Port (COTP)

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47
Q

Who is responsible for promoting and enforcing safe operating ports, cargo safety laws and regulations, and Limited Access Areas (LAAs)?

A

Captain of the Port (COTP)

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48
Q

Which Coast Guard authority provides Maritime Security Risk Analysis Model support to Area Maritime Security Committees?

A

Captain of the Port (COTP)

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49
Q

A Captain of the Port (COTP) order ____.

A

Is directed only to a specific vessel, facility, or individual

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50
Q

Which of the following actions is an example of the correct use of a COTP Order?

A

Deny entry to the navigable waters within a COTP Zone to a specific cargo vessel or tankship until a particular discrepancy is repaired

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51
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating the area maritime security plan?

A

Federal Maritime Security Coordinator

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52
Q

The official that is pre-designated by the EPA or the USCG to manage and direct pollution responses and environmental cleanup efforts is the _____.

A

Federal On-Scene Coordinator (FOSC)

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53
Q

Under whose authority does a Sector Response Department Pollution Investigator conductor their duties at the scene of a minor inland spill?

A

Federal On-Scene Coordinator (FOSC)

54
Q

What does the acronym “OCMI” stand for?

A

Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspectors

55
Q

The Situation Unit is monitoring the status of a Facilities Inspector conducting a random spot inspection of a facility. Under whose authority is the Facility Inspector operating?

A

Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)

56
Q

Who has the duties of directing vessel inspection programs and shipyard/factory inspections of material and equipment for vessels?

A

Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)

57
Q

Under whose authority will an Investigating Officer, sortied by the Command Center, conduct an investigation of a vessel that has allied with a fixed structure in a navigable waterway?

A

Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)

58
Q

Who has the duties of overseeing the Marine Safety Program and to supervise the Marine Safety Function of the Marine Information for Safety and Law Enforcement MISLE System?

A

Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)

59
Q

Who has the duties of directing enforcement of navigation and seamen laws in general?

A

Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)

60
Q

A seaman with a Merchant Mariner Licensing Document is subject to _____ authority.

A

Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)

61
Q

Excluding state waters, the Exclusive Economic Zone is measure form the baseline out to ____NM.

A

200NM

62
Q

In which situation is a SNO required for crews employing steps 1-4 of the Stopping NCV Checklist?

A

When outside the boundaries of the security zone

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental sources of Coast Guard enforcement authority.

A

United States Constitution

64
Q

The maximum distance offshore that the Coast Guard enforces marine environment protection laws is ______.

A

To the Exclusive Economic Zone

65
Q

Which of the following generally describes the term “authority “ with regard to the law enforcement mission?

A

The governments legal power to act

66
Q

Which of the following describes Force Majeure?

A

A vessel without power due to an engine room fire is forced into coastal State waters

67
Q

The right of hot pursuit may only be exercised by _____.

A

Warships, military aircraft, or other clearly marked vessels or aircraft in government service

68
Q

What is the U.S. Code Section that gives the Coast Guard its authority to carry out law enforcement?

A

14 USC 2

69
Q

When employing steps 1-4 of the Stopping NCV Checklist, what authority covers a crew that is within the boundaries of a security zone?

A

33 CFR Part 165

70
Q

When employing steps 1-4 of the Stopping NCV Checklist, what authority covers a crew that is outside the boundaries of a security zone?

A

Coast Guard Use of Force Policy

71
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of re-establishing lost communications with a security unit?

A

Use frequencies not designated in the communications plan

72
Q

After a determination is made that a catch will be seized, what actions should be taken if the catch is alive and has marketable value?

A

Fish shall be photographed/videotaped and returned to the sea

73
Q

The ____ governs the conservation and management of ocean fishing.

A

Magnuson-Stevens Act

74
Q

If OPCON determines that an illegal catch will be seized and has no marketable value, the catch shall be _____.

A

Photographed/videotaped and returned to the sea

75
Q

Units that encounter or respond to a beached or stranded cetacean, e.g. whale, dolphin, and porpoise, shall immediately notify the ______.

A

NOAA Fisheries Stranding and Disentanglement Coordinator

76
Q

Which agency is primarily responsible for managing U.S. fisheries and works with the Regional Fishery Management Councils to develop Fishery Management Plans?

A

NOAA Fisheries Office of Sustainable Fisheries

77
Q

Extracts, in the form of customized sets of federal fisheries regulations from the Code of Federal Regulations, are provided to fisheries enforcement units and are commonly referred to as _____.

A

LMR Regulations

78
Q

Under the Marine Mammal Protection Act, which of the following is NOT a lawful behavior?

A

Transporting a harbor seal or products made from the seal

79
Q

Which one of the following circumstances is NOT a justification of a fisheries seizure?

A

Violation of 75/25 rule

80
Q

Who do units contact for guidance on disposition of a vessel and all property aboard after a seizure?

A

Operational commander

81
Q

Which satellite-based tracking system provides various data including a vessel’s name and position?

A

N-VMS

82
Q

Which Act makes it unlawful for any person subject to the jurisdiction of the U.S. to import, export, transport, sell, receive, acquire, or purchase Frisch or wildlife taken in violation of an U.S. law, regulation, treaty, or any foreign law?

A

Lacey Act

83
Q

Seizure is normally justified in the following circumstances EXCEPT ______.

A

Foreign flagged vessel fishing outside the U.S. EEZ without appropriate permit

84
Q

A commercial firm that specializes in vessel or facility discharge response, and provides resources such as equipment and trained personnel, is classified by the USCG as a/an _____.

A

Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO)

85
Q

What is a “NOFI” and who should issue it?

A

Notice of Federal Interest issued by OSC

86
Q

A tanker vessel is aground off the coast of Oregon with a confirmed ruptured fuel oil compartment capable of holding 25,000 gallons. What is the appropriate classification of this spill?

A

Coastal - Medium

87
Q

What information is to be gathered when receiving an initial report of an oil spill or hazardous substance release via phone?

A

The name and location of the facility or vessel, and the name and identity of the hazardous substance

88
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the coastal minor spill classification?

A

Fewer than 10,000 gallons of oil

89
Q

What international convention governs the prevention of pollution from ships?

A

MARPOL

90
Q

Your command center receives a report of an oil tanker foundering in heavy seas and in danger of breaking its keel, which could potentially release in excess of 1,200,000 gallons of oil into the sea. What would be the appropriate classification of the resulting spill?

A

Coastal - Major

91
Q

Any person in charge of a vessel or facility, as soon as he2she has knowledge of any oil discharge, shall notify the ____.

A

National Response Center

92
Q

Which law, signed into effect in 1990, was largely in response to growing concern about the nation’s oil spill response capability stemming from the Exxon Valdez incident?

A

Oil Pollution Act (OPA)

93
Q

For a marine oil pollution violation to be issued, a discharge must ____.

A

Be upon a navigable waterway

94
Q

If your command center receives a report of an inland oil discharge, what quantity of oil would classify the spill as Major?

A

More than 10,99 gallons of oil

95
Q

An “Untended Bridge” ______.

A

Has no tender present at the bridge

96
Q

Bridge operator contacts information can be obtained from all of the following sources EXCEPT ______.

A

Light List

97
Q

Each facility that is used for drilling for producing or processing oil, or which has the capacity to transport, store, transfer, or otherwise handle more than one thousand barrels of oil at any one time, _____.

A

Must be covered by evidence of financial responsibility

98
Q

Which control is normally used to effect the execution of Detentions?

A

COTP Detention Order

99
Q

The part of a waterfront facility that here oil or hazardous material are handled in bulk, either between the vessel or where the vessel moors, is considered a/an _____.

A

Marine transfer area

100
Q

All of the following are requirements for a vessel to be considered an un-inspected passenger vessel, EXCEPT the _____.

A

Vessel’s crew must all be documented U.S. citizens

101
Q

The 3 different types of Letter of Deviation are _____.

A

Emergency, non-operating Equipment, Continuing Operation or Period of Time

102
Q

Letters of Undertaking and Surety Bonds are used to ______.

A

Assure payment of a penalty

103
Q

The responsibility for the safe conduct of a marine event and adequate preparation lies with the _____.

A

Sponsoring organization

104
Q

The District Commander may control vessel traffic in a/an _____, which is determined to have hazardous conditions, by issuing regulations.

A

Regulated Navigation Area

105
Q

A marine casualty shall be reported in writing within _____ days.

A

5

106
Q

The form CG-2692 is a _____.

A

Report of Marine Casualty

107
Q

Which of the following is considered a marine casualty?

A

Death of an individual at sea

108
Q

A marine casualty involving a loss of life shall be reported ____.

A

Immediately after addressing safety concerns

109
Q

Before an oil transfer can occur from a vessel requesting a one-time port visit, the vessel owner or operator must accomplish all of the following, EXCEPT ____.

A

Certify verbally that a response plan meeting the regulatory requirements or a SOPEP approved by the flag state is onboard

110
Q

A Port State Control ____ is conducted to ensure a vessel has remained in compliance with appropriate laws or international conventions between the period of annual examinations.

A

Reexamination

111
Q

Which of the following is an enforcement policy that shall be followed for a foreign vessel discovered in port with an expired Vessel Response Plan?

A

The Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspections and Captain of the Port shall suspend the vessel’s cargo operation

112
Q

All _____ vessels 150 gross tons and above, and all other ships over 400 gross tons, shall have an approved SOPEP on board in accordance with MARPOL Annex I, Regulation 26.

A

Tank

113
Q

Port State Control _____ examinations should focus on the areas where “clear grounds” have been established and should not include other areas or systems u less the general impressions or observations of the boarding team support such examinations.

A

Expanded

114
Q

What type of examination should include reviewing or inspecting the vessel’a certificates, licenses and documents, followed by a general examination, i.e., “walk through” of the vessel?

A

Annual

115
Q

Vessels suspected of resenting an imminent threat to life, the port, or the environment will be targeted for boarding _____.

A

Prior to entry into port

116
Q

Vessels that do not have, or are past due for, an annual Freight Vessel Examination or quarterly Control Verification _____ be targeted for examination after entry into port ____ restrictions on the start of cargo or passenger embarkation.

A

may; without

117
Q

Classification Societies are evaluated on their detention performance over the previous ____ years receive Priority ____ status.

A

Three; 1

118
Q

What is the exercise of controls over a foreign vessel by the government of a nation within which the vessel is operating?

A

Port State Control

119
Q

All of the following are types of Port State Control Examinations EXCEPT a/an ______.

A

Restricted examination

120
Q

Vessels that may enter U.S. ports subject to certain limitations are assigned to Category I in the SIV program and are categorized as ______ vessels.

A

Restricted state

121
Q

What program is applicable to vessels from countries that have been identified as posing a threat to U.S. national security.

A

Special Interest Vessel

122
Q

Which Act provides the authority to increase navigation and vessel safety, to protect the marine environment, and to protect life, property, and structures in, on, or immediately adjacent to the navigable waters of the United Stated?

A

Port and Waterways Safety Act of 1972

123
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding anchorages?

A

Vessels less than 65ft are not required to carry or exhibit anchor lights within a special anchorage

124
Q

A Naval Vessel Protection Zone is an example of a ________.

A

Limited Access Area

125
Q

A positive control measure boarding is conducted seaward of ________.

A

12NM

126
Q

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for operational commanders during MARSEC 2?

A

Maintain track data on green shipping

127
Q

When are security zones active for certain dangerous cargo?

A

When transiting key port areas

128
Q

Which of the following is an example of a HCPV?

A

Cruise ship with 1500 passengers

129
Q

What is the force protection condition that can be maintained indefinitely?

A

ALPHA

130
Q

What classification is the HIV targeting matrix when filled in?

A

Secret

131
Q

When no commercial salvage companies are available within a reasonable time or distance, the District Commander may modify the policy to provide for refloating a grounded boat which is not in peril of further damage or loss if _____.

A

Coast Guard units are capable of rendering the assistance

E6 SWE (7 decks)

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