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EAP > March 2020 E6 Exam > Flashcards

March 2020 E6 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the goal of resuscitation?

A

Maintain adequate perfusion

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2
Q

What is a clinical condition marked by inadequate organ perfusion and tissue oxygenation?

A

Shock

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3
Q

Capillary refill greater than _____ seconds, may indicate shock.

A

2

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4
Q

Which form of shock is defined as diminished volume resulting in poor perfusion due to hemorrhage, diarrhea, dehydration, and burns? It is also the most common type of shock in combat casualties.

A

Hypovolemic Shock

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5
Q

Hypotension is a late finding in shock, occurring after _____ blood volume loss?

A

30 - 40%

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6
Q

Which form of shock is defined as poor perfusion due to loss of vascular tone?

A

Distributive Shock

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7
Q

What is the goal in the treatment of shock?

A

Restore perfusion and oxygen delivery

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8
Q

When treating shock, administer O2 for an SpO2 saturation level of what percent?

A

92%

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9
Q

Patients in need of massive blood transfusions should get blood products at what ratio?

A

1:1:1

PRBC : FFP : Platelets

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10
Q

IO infusion should be removed as soon as possible after other IV access is established, but must be removed before?

A

24 hours

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11
Q

All war wounds are _____ and should not be closed primarily.

A

Contaminated

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12
Q

Tissue sparing debridement is acceptable if surgery follows within _____ .

A

24 hours

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13
Q

Regarding muscle viability, which 4 C’s observed the retraction of muscle with the pinch of forceps or a response to electrocautery?

A

Contraction

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14
Q

When should Antibiotics be given for penetrating wounds?

A

ASAP or < 1 hour

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15
Q

Regarding muscle viability, which of the 4 C’s is the best predictor?

A

Consistency

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16
Q

Creatinine phosphokinase, CPK will be elevated in trauma patients usually of _____ .

A

100,000 IU/mL

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17
Q

Combat injuries are at elevated risk of compartment syndrome within _____ .

A

48 - 72 hours

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18
Q

What chapter in the Emergency War Surgery deals with soft-tissue & open joint injuries?

A

Chapter 9

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19
Q

What are the four key factors that support cockroach infestations?

A

Food

Water

Warmth

Harborages

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20
Q

Which stored product pest is internationally quarantined?

A

Kaphra Beetle

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21
Q

What is the most common stored product pest?

A

Saw-Tooth Grain Beetle

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22
Q

What stored product pest is considered to be on of the most destructive?

A

Rice Weevil

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23
Q

What is the number one pest of dried fruit in storage?

A

Indian Meal Moth

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24
Q

Within how many hours should onboard inspections of replenishments new conducted?

A

Within 48 hours

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25
Q

How often should Medical Department Personnel inspect storerooms?

A

At least monthly

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26
Q

What form is used to report and identify stored product pests?

A

DD 1222 - Request for and Results of Test

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27
Q

Where is the DD 1222 sent?

A

NEPMU or NECE

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28
Q

How many specimens should be sent?

A

At least 2

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29
Q

With the exception of moths, how should specimens be preserved?

A

In 70% ethyl alcohol or isopropyl alcohol

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30
Q

How should moths be preserved?

A

Dry vials

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31
Q

Which of the two rats discussed in the manual are more common on ships?

A

Roof Rat

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32
Q

Which of the two rats discussed is also known as the common rat?

A

Norway Rat

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33
Q

Which rat is associated with Tularemia?

A

Norway Rat

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34
Q

What are other names for the roof rat?

A

Ship Rat

Black Rat

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35
Q

What should the minimum diameter of a rat guard be?

A

36 inches

36
Q

What should the cone angle be for rat guards?

A

30 degrees

37
Q

How far should rat guards be from the pier?

A

6 feet

38
Q

How far should rat guards be from the ship?

A

2 feet

39
Q

What is Navy Medicine’s official readiness and reporting system?

A

EMPARTS

40
Q

What system does the Navy utilize as the authoritative system to meet the DoD’s requirement to report readiness?

A

Defense Readiness and Reporting System - Navy (DRRS-N)

41
Q

What form is the Individual Deployment Readiness checklist?

A

NAVMED 6440/1

42
Q

Within how many days of checking in must a member assigned to a platform complete the NAVMED 6440/1?

A

30 Days

43
Q

If a member has a change that affects their deployment readiness, how quickly must they notify the POMI?

A

Within 48 hours

44
Q

How quickly must the POMI update a member’s status in EMPARTS if there is a change in their readiness?

A

Within 2 days

45
Q

If a member has a condition that will make them non-deployable for _____ days, they will no longer be assigned to that platform.

A

90 Days

46
Q

What is the Navy’s designated official manpower data systems?

A

TFFMS & DMHRSi

47
Q

What is the precedence in which platforms are augmented?

A 
MARFOR
CRTS
T-AH
EMF
FDPMU
OCONUS MTF
BPU
48
Q

Temporary Additional Duty (TEMADD) greater than how many days for personnel assigned to platforms, require notification to NAVMED Echelon 3 activities?

A

30 Days

49
Q

If the platform assigned personnel are going TEMADD for greater than 30 days or overseas, when must NAVMED Echelon 3 be notified?

A

No later than 30 days prior

50
Q

Who must validate all augmented requests prior to being received by BUMED?

A

OPNAV

51
Q

Who tasks NAVMED Echelon 3 activities for the deployment execution of individual and platform augments?

A

BUMED-M9

52
Q

Within how many days should BUMED-M9 task the Echelon 3 activities with augment requests after receiving the validated request from OPNAV?

A

No later than 2 working days

53
Q

How many years break in service with the Marine Corps must there be for a member to qualify for Special Initial Utility Uniform Allowance (SIUUA)?

A

3 years

54
Q

What organization has established the nationally recognized standards for Patient Centered Medical Home / Medical Home Port?

A

National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)

55
Q

Within how many months will new Medical Home Port clinics attain level 1 NCQA recognition?

A

4 months

56
Q

After obtaining level 1 NCQA recognition, how many months does a Medical Home Port clinic have to achieve level 2 NCQA recognition?

A

6 months

57
Q

Who does the Commander/CO/OIC of an MTF notify when their clinic is ready for NCQA level 2 recognition?

A

Navy Medicine Region Commander

58
Q

Who does the Navy Medicine Region Commander forward the clinic NCQA level 2 recognition request to?

A

Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED)

59
Q

How many billable hours does a clinician require to be considered 1.0 FTE?

A

36 Bookable hours

60
Q

What is the recommended empanelment range for a provider?

A

1,100 minimum - 1,300 maximum

61
Q

What are the exceptions a Home Port clinic can make when providing care to patients not enrolled in their Home Port team?

A

Newborns of patients less than 60 days old, foreign nationals, and dignitaries

62
Q

Students cannot be enrolled in home port if they are on station less than how many days?

A

Less than 179 days

63
Q

What percentage of a provider team should be made up of civilians?

A

50%

64
Q

In a three provider team, how many of the providers have to be physicians and what is the maximum administrative discount for the team?

A

1 Physician / 0.75 FTE

65
Q

In a four provider team, how many of the providers have to be physicians and what is the maximum administrative discount for the team?

A

2 Physicians / 1.0 FTE

66
Q

In a five provider team, how many providers have to be physicians and what is the maximum administrative discount for the team?

A

2 Physicians / 1.25% FTE

67
Q

How many exam rooms are required per provider?

A

2

68
Q

Within what time frame must a patient be seen, when they have an ACUTE type appointment?

A

Within 24 hours

69
Q

Within what time frame must a patient be seen, when they have a WELL type appointment?

A

Within a week

70
Q

Within what time frame must a patient be seen, when they have an OPAC type appointment?

A

Same calendar day

71
Q

Within what time frame must a patient be seen, when they have an EST type appointment?

A

Within a week

72
Q

In order of preferred application, what are the 4 principles of hazard control?

A

Substitution

Engineering Controls

Administrative Controls

PPE

73
Q

Which method of hazard abatement employs special operating procedures to reduce the exposure of individuals to hazards?

A

Administrative Controls

74
Q

Machine guards, electrical insulation, sound barriers and remote controlled equipment are examples of what method of hazard control?

A

Isolation - Which is a type of Engineering Controls

75
Q

Who must be contacted for substitution approval?

A

COMNAVSEASYSCOM or COMNAVAIRSYSCOM

76
Q

Which method of ventilation is preferred and more economical?

A

Local Exhaust

77
Q

What is submitted in order to replace a tool or material on a MRC?

A

PMS feedback report (FBR)

78
Q

What method of hazard control is the least preferred?

A

PPE

79
Q

Where are hazards that cannot be corrected “on the spot” documented?

A

Work Center Deficiency Log (WCDL) / Job Sequence Number (JSN)

80
Q

What form is the Safety and Hazard Report?

A

OPNAV 3120/5

81
Q

What is derived from the elements of hazard severity and mishap probability?

A

Risk Assessment Code (RAC)

82
Q

How many Risk Assessment Codes (RAC) are there?

A

5

83
Q

What are the five Risk Assessment Codes (1-5)?

A 
1 - Critical
2 - Serious
3 - Moderate
4 - Minor
5 - Negligible
84
Q

What are the letters assigned to mishap probability?

A

A - Likely to occur immediately
B - Probably will occur in time
C - May occur in time
D - Unlikely to occur

85
Q

What are the hazard severity categories?

A

I - Catastrophic
II - Critical
III - Marginal
IV - Negligible

EAP (2 decks)

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